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THE 

Comprehensive Question 
AND Answer Book 

FOR 

REVIEW AND STUDY IN SCHOOL AND HOME 



A PRACTICAL GUIDE TO SUCCESS 
IN CIVIL SERVICE AND TEACHERS' EXAMINATIONS 



By ISAAC PRICE, A. M. 

Instructor in New York City day and evening schools. Editor School Work, New York 

Author of "The Pedagogic Question Book," and "Question and Answer Book in 

American and English Literature" 



CHICAGO 

A. FLANAGAN COMPANY 



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Copyright 1911 
A. FLANAGAN COMPANY 



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(^GlA2i)'S[)rjQ 



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PREFACE. 

The Comprehensive Question Book is the result of 
an experience of several years in the public schools of New 
York City, in both the day and the evening sessions. The 
work of selecting questions that would be comprehensive 
and practical, yet would not include any of the unnecessary 
detail in the various subjects of the elementary school, led 
to the examination of several thousand question papers 
prepared by the civil service and examining boards through- 
out the country. 

The questions have been selected for their utility and 
their disciplinary value. They are arranged logically, follow- 
ing the general order of cause and effect. They should en- 
courage thought. The answers are supported by the authori- 
tative text-books in the respective fields of knowledge. 

The book has been tested in the classroom. It is com- 
prehensive without the burdensome and unessential details 
usually found in books of this nature. It reviews the neces- 
sary subjects in the curricula in use throughout the coun- 
try, and those called for in the special and civil service ex- 
aminations for teachers and others. 

The purpose of the book is twofold : for the teacher 
and examiner it furnishes a wide range of questions suitable 
for drill, test and review ; for the student it supplies an 
exhaustive and analytic quiz of the subjects that will aid 
in the preparation for the many examinations that he takes, 
not omitting the encouragement of original thought. 

I desire to acknowledge my deep appreciation for the 
valuable suggestions and criticisms made by Ossian Lang, 
editor of School Journal, without which many valuable fea- 
tures of the work would be lacking. To the principals and 
teachers whose criticism of the manuscript and reading of 
the proof have helped to make this a successful book, my 
thanks are als. due. That the readers will derive material 
benefit from uiis book is the earnest wish of the author. 

Isaac Price. 



TABLE OF CONTENTS. 



CHAPTER I. 

Questions in Anatomy, Physiology and Hygiene, 7 

Answers in Anatomy, Physiology and Hygiene, 15 

CHAPTER II. 

Questions in Civics, 31 

Answers in Civics, 41 

CHAPTER III. 

Questions in Geography, 55 

Test Questions Taken from Examination Papers of Various 

Colleges given in 1908-1909, 85 

Answers in Geography, 88 

CHAPTER IV. 

Questions in Arithmetic, 134 

Answers in Arithmetic, 168 

CHAPTER V. 

Questions in Grammar, 190 

Answers in Grammar, ^ 210 

CHAPTER VI. 

Questions in American History, 251 

Test Questions in American History, 274 

Answers in American History, 276 

CHAPTER VII. 

Questions in Composition and Rhetoric, 319 

Test Questions in Composition and Rhetoric, 333 

Answers in Composition and Rhetoric, 337 

CHAPTER VIII. 
Spelling and Dictation, 353 

5 



CHAPTER IX. 

Questions in English Literature, 360 

Answers in English Literature, 368 

CHAPTER X. 

Questions in Bookkeeping, 393 

Answers in Bookkeeping, 399 

CHAPTER XI. 

Questions in Geometry, 412 

Answers in Geometry, 418 

CHAPTER XII. 

Questions in Algebra, 439 

Answers in Algebra, 452 

CHAPTER XIII. 
List of Abbreviations, 460 

CHAPTER XIV. 
Penmanship, 464 

CHAPTER XV. 

Pedagogic Subj ects, 476 

Questions in General Methods and Special Methods in Arith- 
metic, English, History and Geography, 482 

CHAPTER XVI. 
The Art of Questioning, 487 



CHAPTER I. 

QUESTIONS IN ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY 
AND HYGIENE. 

1. What is meant by (a) physiology, (b) anatomy, 
(c) hygiene? 

2. Name the different materials entering into the for- 
mation of the human body. 

3. What is a tissue? State its importance. 

4. Define organ. 

5. What is meant by the statement that " man is a 
vertebrate animal " ? 

6. What is man's position among vertebrate animals? 

7. Give your reasons for placing man among the 
mammals. 

8. Define (a) cell, (b) cell body, (c) nucleus, (d) 
nucleolus. 

9. (a) What is the chemical composition of the body? 
(&) Name some of the more important chemical ele- 
ments entering into its composition. 

10. Name the three chief kinds of organic constituents 
of the body. 

THE BONES AND THE SKELETON. 

11. (a) What is a skeleton? (b) Of how many bones 
is it composed? (c) What is the importance of the 
skeleton ? 

12. (a) What is bone? (b) Of what importance is 
bone? 

13. (a) Explain what is cartilage. (b) State its im- 
portance. 

14. What is meant by connective tissue or ligaments? 

15. (a) Name the three natural divisions of the skele- 
ton, (b) What is meant by the extremities? 

7 



8 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

16. (a) What is the skull? (b) Name the parts of the 
skull. 

17. How many and what are the bones of the skull? 

18. What peculiarity have the bones of the skull? 

19. What are cranial sutures? 

20. How many and what are the bones of the trunk? 

21. (a) What is the axis? (b) Of what use is it? 

22. What is the pelvic arch? 

23. (a) How many dorsal bones in the vertebra? (b) 
State their importance. 

24. (a) What are the ribs? (b) How many are there? 

25. Explain the value of the structural arrangement of 
the spinal column. 

26. (a) Name the parts of the upper extremities, (b) 
Name the bones forming them. 

27. Name the parts of the lower extremities and the 
bones that compose each part. 

28. (a) What is the composition of bone? (b) Show 
how to prove this. 

29. Classify bones according to their shape or form. 

30. Explain why bones are hollow. 

31. What is the difference between the bones of the 
adult and those of the child? 

32. (a) What is a fracture? (&) In whom is a frac- 
ture of the bone likely to occur more readily, in a child 
or in an adult? Why? 

33. What is the periosteum? What purpose does it 
serve? 

34. (a) What is a joint? (b) Name the different kinds 
of joints. Give examples of each. 

35. Name the four kinds of movable joints. 

36. Enumerate the movements allowed by the different 
kinds of joints. 

37. What is a (a) dislocation, (b) sprain? 

38. (a) What is the patella? (b) What special pur- 
pose does it serve? 

THE MUSCLES. 

39. (a) What are muscles? (b) What is their use or 
function ? 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 9 

40. (a) Distinguish between voluntary and involuntary 
muscles, (b) What are striated muscles? 

41. Give the characteristics of the voluntary and in- 
voluntary muscles. 

42. What is the origin and the insertion of a muscle? 

43. Name the different varieties of muscles. 

44. (a) How are muscles controlled? (b) Describe the 
general structure of a muscle. 

45. (a) What is the chemical composition of muscle? 
(b) How many muscles are there in the body? 

46. Name the principal muscles of the trunk. 

47. Enumerate the principal muscles of the head and 
the trunk. 

48. (a) Give a list of those of the upper extremities. 
(&) How many and what are the muscles of the lower 
extremities? 

49. (a) State the chief constituent of muscle sub- 
stance, (b) What is the effect of alcohol on muscle sub- 
stance ? 

50. State the relation of exercise to muscular develop- 
ment. 

51. Give a scheme of exercise that should be practiced 
daily in order to insure general muscular development. 

52. Name several causes of muscular contractility. 

DIGESTION. 

53. What is meant by digestion ? 

54. (a) What is the alimentary canal? (b) Name all 
the parts of the alimentary canal. 

55. Name the organs of mastication and swallowing. 

56. (a) What are glands? (b) Name the different 
kinds of glands, (c) Name the secretive glands. 

57. What is the mouth? 

58. What is the palate? 

59. (a) How many teeth has an adult person? (b) 
What is the difference between the milk teeth and the 
permanent set of teeth? 

60. (a) Give the general structure of a tooth, (b) 
Name the different kinds of teeth and tell their uses, (c) 
Give the number of the different kinds of teeth. 



y 



10 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

61. Why should teeth be thoroughly cleaned after eat- 
ing? 

62. (a) What is the tongue? (&) What is its im- 
portance ? > 

63. (a) What is meant by a "furred tongue"? {h) 
What does it indicate? 

64. (fl) What are the salivary glands? (&) State the 
effect of the saliva upon food. 

65. What is the fauces? 

^Q. Where and what are the tonsils? 

67. (a) Describe the pharynx. (&) What is the oesoph- 
agus ? 

68. What is a mucous membrane? 

69. Describe the stomach. 

70. What is the function of the stomach? 

71. Name the glands found in the stomach. 

«^ 72. (a) What are the properties of the gastric juices? 
(&) Describe the effect of alcohol on the gastric juice. 

73. Name the muscles aiding the stomach in its work. 

74. What is the appendix? 

75. (a) Describe the small intestine. (6) Name the 
three parts into which it is usually divided. 

76. (a) What are the villi? (&) What are the lacteals? 

77. (a) What is chyme? (&) chyle? 

78. Describe the large intestine. 

79. (a) Where is the liver situated? (&) Describe the 
liver, (c) What office does the liver perform? 

80. (a) What is bile? (&) What are the uses of bile? 

81. (o) What is the pancreas? (&) State its impor- 
tance. 

82. Name all the digestive juices. 

83. (a) What are the uses of saliva? (&) Describe its 
chemical action, (c) Show how saliva promotes diges- 
tion in the stomach. 

84. (a) Tell of the action of the gastric juice. (&) 
What are peptones ? 

85. Trace a mouthful of food through the alimentary 
canal showing the changes it undergoes in its course. 

86. What is dyspepsia? 

87. (a) Where does the absorption of nutriment take 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 11 

place most? Least? (b) How does this absorption take 
place? 

THE BLOOD AND ITS CIRCULATION. 

88. (a) What is blood? (b) Why do human beings 
need red blood? 

89. Of what is blood composed? 

90. Describe (a) red blood corpuscles, (b) colorless 
blood corpuscles, (c) What is the use of each? 

91. (a) What is haemoglobin? Of what use is it? (b) 
What is meant by coagulation of the blood? To what is 
this due? 

92. Has coagulation any value? 

93. What is blood serum? 

94. Name the gases carried along by the blood. 

95. What is the proportion of blood to the entire body 
weight? 

96. Define anemia and state its relation to health. 

97. What is the connection of exercise to good blood? 

98. (a) What is lymph? (b) Of what importance is it? 

99. (a) What is circulation? (b) What are the or- 
gans of circulation? 

100. Draw a diagram of the circulatory organs. 

101. To whom are we indebted for the discovery of the 
circulation of the blood? 

102. Distinguish between (a) veins, (b) arteries, (r) 
capillaries. 

103. (a) What is the heart? (b) Where is its position? 
(c) Describe it. 

104. Tell what the pericardium is. 

105. What are the cavities of the heart called? 

106. What is the aorta? 

107. Trace the course of a drop of blood from the head 
around the body. 

108. What are the venae cavae? 

109. Tell how the heart is nourished. 

110. Explain why the large arteries lie deeper than the 
veins. 

111. Show the importance of the valves of the heart. 

112. What is the connection between the heart and the 
hing? 



12 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

113. Give reasons why special care should be taken not 
to develop heart disease. 

114. (a) What is the pulse? (b) What may be learned 
from it? 

115. Tell how good circulation may be promoted. 

116. Discuss the effect of alcohol on the circulation. 

117. What is the effect of alcohol on the heart? 

118. Show the influence of tobacco on the heart. 

119. What is the pulse in (a) a child, (b) a healthy 
adult? 

BREATHING AND THE LUNGS. 

120. (a) What is respiration? (ib) Name the organs 
of respiration. 

121. What is the purpose of respiration? 

122. Describe the lung. 

123. What is (a) the trachea, (b) the pleura, (c) the 
thorax? 

124. Tell what takes place in the lungs. 

125. State the changes produced in air by being once 
breathed. 

126. (a) Show the connection of ventilation to good 
breathing, (b) How much fresh air should be allowed 
for each person in a room? 

127. What are the effects of alcohol and tobacco on 
the air passages? 

128. (a) By what means are waste matters excreted 
from the body? (b) Name the organs of excretion. 

129. What do the lungs do? 

THE SKIN. 

130. Describe the skin? 

131. What sense resides in the skin? 

132. Describe the hair. 

133. Tell about the nails and what they are. 

134. Name the kinds of glands in the skin, and their 
uses. 

135. Why should the skin always be kept clean? 

136. Give the hygiene of bathing. 

137. Show the effect of smoking on the skin. 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 13 

138. (a) Describe the kidneys, (b) State their special 
use. 

THE BRAIN AND THE NERVOUS SYSTEM. 

139. (a) What is meant by the nervous system? (b) 
Show its importance. 

140. Name the parts of the nervous system. 

141. Describe the brain. Of what importance is it? 

142. Describe the spinal cord. 

143. What is the connection between the brain and 
formation of habits? 

144. Show the connection of the brain and the nerves. 

145. What is a nerve? 

146. Define reflex action. Show its importance. 

147. What is the effect of alcohol on the nervous sys- 
tem. 

148. Show the effect of tobacco on the nervous system. 

149. (a) Name the different kinds of nerve tissue, (b) 
Which is the more important, the white or the gray mat- 
ter? 

150. Describe the cerebrum and its hemispheres. 

151. What are ganglia? 

152. What are the three coverings of the brain and the 
spinal cord? 

153. Which nerves convey (a) sensation? (b) motor 
impulses? 

154. When are reflex actions noticed by the persons in 
whom they occur? 

155. What is the medulla oblongata? " 

THE SENSES AND THEIR ORGANS. 

156. (a) Name the special senses and their organs. 
(&) Define sensation. 

157. Describe the eye. Draw a diagram. 

158. State the importance of the retina. 

159. (a) How is the eye protected? (b) What governs 
the movements of the eye? 

160. (a) What is the blind spot? (&) Define color 
blindness. 



14 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

161. (a) What is meant by myopia, (b) hypermetropia, 
(c) astigmatism? 

162. Give a few suggestions as to taking care of the 
eye. 

163. State the effect of alcohol and tobacco on the eye. 

164. Name the three parts of the ear. Which is the 
most important? Why? 

165. (a) Describe the outer ear. (b) Of what does the 
middle ear consist? (c) Describe the internal ear. 

166. (a) Show the importance of the tympanum. (&) 
Show how sound is recognized. 

FOODS. 

167. What is meant by albumens or proteids? Give 
examples. 

168. What are fats? Name some foods that are fats. 

169. What are carbohydrates? Exemplify. 

170. (a) What are the chief chemical constituents of 
food? (b) What is the difference between organic and 
inorganic food substances? 

171. State the importance of (a) iron, (b) water, (c) 
salt, (d) lime as foods. 

172. Show the need for food. 

173. Why is oxygen so essential as a food element? 

174. (a) Name the principal chemical wastes in the 
body. (b) What is meant by waste in the body? 

175. (a) What is the value of proteids? (b) of fats? 
(c) To what extent are carbohydrates valuable as body 
food? 

176. (a) Name the most important inorganic foods. 
(b) Name the most perfect food. Why? 

177. Show in what way the following foods are par- 
ticularly nutritious: meats, cheese, rice, corn, beans, 
fruits. 

178. How far does alcohol rank as a food? 

179. To what extent should coffee and tea be used as 
a food ? 

180. What is the importance of good cooking? 

181. State the advantages of a mixed diet. 

182. Show the relation of diet to work. 



ANSWERS IN ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND 
HYGIENE. 

1. (a) Physiology is that branch of biology that treats of the 
uses or functions of the various parts of the human body. 

(b) Anatomy treats of the form, structure, purpose and connec- 
tions of the various parts of the human body. 

(c) Hygiene treats of the preservation and improvement of health. 

2. Bone, cartilage and connective tissue. 

3. A tissue is one of the primary fabrics necessary in building up 
the various parts and organs of the human body. It consists of 
cells arranged in regular order. Each tissue is built up for certain 
use and varies from all others. 

4. Any distinct portion of the body designed for specific use or 
function is called an organ; as, the eye, ear, etc. 

5. Along the back of man there is a solid column of bone which 
separates the dorsal from the ventral cavities and thus divides the 
human body into two general parts. 

6. Man is intellectually superior to all other animals, can rea- 
son and form judgments. He can rise superior to and conquer 
all other vertebrates. 

7. (a) His body is covered with hair: (b) the female has the 
mammary organs for the production of milk to nourish the young; 
and (c) he has a diaphragm which divides and separates the thorax 
from the abdomen. 

8. (a) See 3; (b) the soft granular substance that forms the 
principal part of the cell; (c) the central mass of the protoplasm; 
(d) a tiny dot lying within the nucleus. 

9. (a) All the parts of the body, such as tissue, muscle, etc., 
are made up of elements and compounds in varying proportions. 
(&) The elements found in a body of normal health are principally, 
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, sulphur, prosphorus, calcium, 
sodium, iron and Hthium. 

10. (c) Albumens or proteids ; (b) fats; (c) carbohydrates. 

THE BONES AND THE SKELETON. 

11. (a) The bony framework of the body, (b) It is composed of 
about 300 bones. 

(c) To give firmness to the body and to protect the important 
internal organs. 

12. (o) Bone is a solid tissue designed for the support and 
protection of other tissues. (&) It aids locomotion and gives form 
to the body. 

13. (a) A tough tissue, the gristle of the body, with uses similar 
to those of the bones. 

15 



16 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(b) It precedes bone in a greater part of the body, it forms 
cushions between the bodies of the vertebrae, and in a number of 
important joints; it forms the windpipe, external ear, etc., and 
unites the ribs to the breast bone and also the two pelvic bones. 

14. A tissue in the form of stout cords, as ligaments or tendons, 
serving to bind bones together and to attach muscles to the bones ; 
it also covers bones. It is found almost everywhere in the body, 
from the skin to the lining of the alimentary canal. 

15. (a) Skull, trunk, and extremities. (&) The limbs or loco- 
motive organs. 

16. (a) The skull is the upper part of the human body, above the 
trunk, holding and protecting the brain and the organs of sight, 
hearing, tasting and smelling, (b) The cranium and the face. 

17. (a) The facial bones are fourteen in number; viz., two each 
of the nasal, superior maxillary, lachrymal, malar, palatal, turbi- 
nated and one vomer and one inferior maxillary or jaw bone. 

(b) The cranial bones are eight in number, viz., the frontal, eth- 
noid, sphenoid, occipital, two temporal and two parietal. 

(c) There are also bones in the ear, the teeth, and sometimes 
wormian bones. 

18. They are prolongations and divisions of the spinal column. 

19. All the bones of the skull, except the inferior maxillary or 
lower jaw bone are immovably joined together by means of joints 
like those of the dovetail carpenter's joint; these fit in accurately 
and are called sutures. 

20. Seven cervical, twelve dorsal (in the back), five lumbar (in 
the small of the back), five to form the sacrum and four pelvic 
to form the coccyx. 

21. (a) The axis is the backbone, spinal column or spine, on 
(&) which the rest of the body is carried. 

22. The pelvic arch or pelvis is a single bone firmly fixed at the 
lower end of the spine, and has deep sockets into which the upper 
ends of the thigh bones fit. 

23. (a) Twelve, (b) The twelve pairs of ribs are attached to it. 

24. (a) A bony or cartilaginous strip attached to the spinal col- 
umn and extending around to the front of the body, (b) Twelve 
pairs, (c) They serve to form a protective box for the organs in 
the thorax. 

25. The spinal column presents four curvatures, one in the 
neck, followed by another in the opposite direction in the dorsal 
region, another opposite to the former curve in the loins and in the 
sacrum in the direction opposite to the third curve. This allows 
the column to be bent in any direction and the body to stand in a 
vertical position. 

26. (a) The shoulder, arm, forearm, and hand. 

(&) The shoulder blade and the collar bone (clavicle) in the 
shoulder; the arm bone (humerus) in the arm; the outer and inner 
bones (radius and ulna [funny bone]) in the forearm; and the 
wrist or eight carpal bones, the five metacarpal bones forming the 
palm and the fourteen phalanges in the fingers. 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 17 

27. The hip consisting of the three bones, the ilium, ischium and 
pubic bone in the child, and one bone only in the adult ; the thigh 
(femur) ; the knee-cap (patella) ; the leg (the tibia and the fibula) 
and the foot (seven tarsal bones). 

28. (a) Bone consists of one-third animal matter (chiefly gelatin 
and vessels) and two-thirds mineral (chiefly calcium or lime). 
(&) Place a bone previously cleaned of all muscular attachments 
into diluted hydrochloric acid, and only the animal or gelatinous 
matter will be left. The mineral portion may be obtained by burn- 
ing the bone in a bright fire. Only the calcareous matter will be 
left. 

29. Body with sides and angles ; shaft with extremities ; rough 
surfaces; smooth surfaces for joints, openings, etc.; long, short, 
flat or irregular. 

30. The hollow bone will bear a greater strain than would a solid 
bone; the openings are also used for vessels and nerves. 

31. The bones of the child contain more organic matter and 
are softer and more pliable, tougher and not so easily broken. The 
bones of the adult are principally of the calcareous matter, and thus 
rendered more easily breakable. 

32. (a) A break in a bone. (&) In the adult. See 31. 

33. The covering of the bones, serving as a protection and as a 
means of attachment for the musch ligaments and tendons. 

34. (a) Attachments which permit one bone to move around 
another so as to give certain movements. (b) Movable — as at 
wrist, jaw, hip, etc. Immovable — between the bones in the skull. 
Mixed — as the ribs to the breast bone. 

35. Movable, (a) sliding — wri^ patella; (b) hinge — jaw, elbow, 
knee; (c) rotating — skull and atlas around axis; (d) ball and sock- 
et — shoulder and hip. 

36. Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, pronation, supina- 
tion, rotation, circumduction. 

37. (a) Any bone displaced at a joint, the ligaments being more 
or less torn, is called a dislogation. 

(b) A sprain is an injury to a joint, accompanied by a straining, 
twisting, or tearing of the ligaments, without a dislocation of the 
bones. 

38. (a) A flat three-sided gristly bone fitting over the knee-joint 
in front, (b) It prevents the joint from being injured when we 
fall, and protects the tendons and muscles meeting there. 

THE MUSCLES. 

39. (a) Organs composed of fibres through the contraction of 
which motion is afforded. 

(&) To give motion; to protect and give warmth to the vital 
organs ; give shape to the body. 

40. (a) Those which can be controlled by the will are called 
voluntary; those not under the control of the will are involuntary 
muscles. 



18 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(&) The muscle of the heart is involuntary, with a slower con- 
traction than the other involuntary muscles ; but in structure it is 
similar to the voluntary muscles. This muscle is called striated. 

41. Involuntary or striped muscles are plain, light in color, com- 
posed of spindle-shaped cells, interlacing to form layers in the walls 
of organs, as stomach, etc. 

Voluntary or striped muscle — commonly called flesh — is of a red 
color, composed of long fibres, bound in bundles, and a number of 
these bundles tied together to form the muscle. They are attached 
directly, or by tendons, to the bone, ligament, etc., and have a va- 
riety of shapes. Added to the skeleton, they give shape to the body. 

42. The part of the skeleton to which the inner end of the muscle 
is attached is the origin, and that to which the outer end (the end 
farther from the center of the body) is fixed is called the insertion. 

43. Two-headed (biceps), three-headed (triceps), feather-like (di- 
gastric or two-bellied), flat. 

44. (a) Most of the muscles are paired, having a corresponding 
muscle of the opposite side, and opposing the other. They are con- 
trolled by the working of the brain and spinal cord, with the aid 
of the nerves. 

(b) Composed of fibres, covered and supported by connective 
tissue, and intertwined with blood and lymph vessels, and nerves. 
All of these are covered by a sheath. 

45. (a) About three-fourths water and a quantity of salts ; pro- 
teids or albuminous substances form the rest. 

(b) About four hundred. 

46. Pectoralis major and minor (chest muscles), latissimus dorsi 
(broad of the back), intercostal^ (between the ribs), diaphragm, 
rectus abdominalis (abdomen), obliquus externus and internus, 
transversaTTs, lumburum (loins), erector spinas (up the vertebral 
column). The rectus abdominalis and the obliquus externus and 
internus with the transversalis compress the contents of the stom- 
ach. 

47. (a) Occipito-frontalis, temporals, masseters, buccinators, or- 
bitals. 

(b) Sterno-cleido mastoid and trapezius. 

48. (a) Deltoid (shoulder), biceps and triceps (arms and fore- 
arms), flexors and extensors (hands and fingers), pronators, sup- 
pinators. 

(b) Glutei, iliac, psoas, rectus, vastus externus and internus, sar- 
torius, biceps, gastrocnemius, tibialis. 

49. (a) Myosin and a number of proteid substances. 

(b) It changes the muscles into fat, making them flat and flabby 
and not strong enough for their proper functions. 

50. Exercise strengthens the muscles, develops them, to keep 
them in good quality. Exercise should be taken judiciously; it must 
not be too violent and spasmodic, causing waste and fatigue. 

51. Raising weights with the arms; pushing or punching the bag; 
bending forward till the fingers touch the floor; rising upon tiptoe 
and stretching the arms upward ; bending the knee systematically ; 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 19 

lying upon the back and raising body to a sitting position; swing- 
ing the arms in a circle. 

52. The will ; drugs ; electricity ; mechanical means or agents. 

DIGESTION. 

53. The preparation and change of the food taken in so that it 
can be absorbed into the body. 

54. (a) The alimentary canal is a tube which runs through the 
body from the lips to the posterior end of the trunk. 

(&) The mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, 
large intestine. 

55. The tongue and the teeth. 

56. (a) Hollow organs which are imbedded in the mucous mem- 
brane, and which prepare liquids that make chemical changes in the 
food so that it may be taken into the system. 

(b) Excretive and secretive, according to their work. Accord- 
ing to their shape, they are tubular, capillaries, racemose, papillae, 
villi, follicles, and simple. They may also be ductless or with a 
duct. 

(c) The mouth glands (parotid, sub-maxillary, tonsils), stomach 
follicles, liver, pancreas, intestinal glands, lymph glands. 

57. The initial cavity of the alimentary canal, bounded by the lips 
and cheeks, the tongue and the palate. 

58. The roof of the mouth, consisting of the hard palate and the 
soft palate. 

59. (a) Thirty-two. 

(b) The milk teeth are the temporary set consisting of only twen- 
ty teeth, no molars. The permanent set replaces the milk teeth and 
adds twelve molars. 

60. (a) The greater part of the tooth is made of dentine or ivory; 
the crown or that part of the tooth above the gum is covered with 
the hard material, enamel. The fang, the part within the gum, is 
covered with a cement; the pulp cavity contains the vessels, nerves, 
and tooth cell to the cells lying against the dentine. 

(&) The incisors or cutting teeth; the canine or tearing teeth; 
the molar or grinding teeth and the bicuspids or premolars, which 
are also used for grinding and crushing food. 

(c) Eight incisors, four canines, eight premolars (or bicuspids) 
and twelve molars, thirty-two in all. 

61. Food that is not removed from the teeth decays and forms 
acids, which act upon the limes in the teeth, causing the teeth 
surely but slowly to decay. 

62. (a) The tongue is a muscular organ, covered with mucous 
membrane and attached to the inferior maxillary and hyoid bones. 
(b) It aids in the mastication and swallowing. It has the sense 
of taste located in the back portion. It is part of the mechanism 
of speech. 

63. (a) The tongue is moist and covered by little " fur." In 
health they are rei (b) A change in the color indicates disease. 



20 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

64. (a) The three glands, the parotid, sublingual and submax- 
illary, which secrete the saliva. 

(&) It keeps the mouth moist and allows us to speak with com- 
fort. It also enables us to swallow dry food, and dissolves such 
bodies as sugar and salt when taken in the solid form, enabling us 
to taste them. 

65. A passage leading into the pharynx, below the soft palate. 

66. A gland lying in the folds of the fauces that becomes en- 
larged during a cold or sore throat. It contains numerous glands 
making mucus. 

67. (o) A conical bag with its broad end turned up toward the 
skull and the narrower end leading to the oesophagus. 

(b) The oesophagus or gullet is a tube commencing at the end 
of the pharynx and passing through the neck and chest, ending in 
the stomach, just below the diaphragm. 

68. The membrane secreting the mucus to moisten the passages 
in the alimentary canal, etc. 

69. A curved, conical bag, very elastic, placed in the upper part 
of the abdominal cavity. It lies just beneath the diaphragm. At 
one end the gullet enters, and at the other end is the pyloric ori- 
fice, leading directly into the small intestine. Its usual holding ca- 
pacity, when moderately stretched, is three pints (and can hold at 
the most two quarts). It is about twelve inches long and four 
inches wide at its widest part when moderately distended. 

70. It is the great organ to aid the digestion of the food. 

71. The gastric glands which secrete the gastric juice, containing 
the pepsin. 

72. (a) The gastric juice dissolves that part of the food that con- 
tains the albumen, and makes peptones out of the albuminous foods 
as lean meat, gluten of flour, etc. 

(b) Alcohol irritates the membrane of the stomach and dilates 
the blood vessels, makes the gastric juice flow, but lessening the 
power of the juice to do its work. 

73. The rectus abdominalis, the obliquus externus and internus 
and the transversalis. 

74. A small tube about four inches long opening out from the 
large intestine, no longer of any value to man, but of importance 
in the lower animals. 

75. (a) The small intestine commences at the pyloric end of the 
stomach and after many windings ends in the large intestine. It 
is about twenty feet long and about two inches wide at its greatest 
width. 

(&) It is usually divided into the duodenum, jejunum and the 
ilieum, though there are no marked divisions visible. 

76. (a) Closely packed minute elevations covering the mucous 
membrane of the small intestine, containing the lacteals and blood 
vessels. 

(b) The lacteals are villi containing a milky white juice that aids 
in the digestion of the food and the distribution of it along the 
intestine. ^ 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 21 

n. (a) Chyme is the partly digested food in liquid form as it 
passes from the stomach into the small intestines for conversion 
into (b) chyle, which is a nutritive milky fluid contained in the 
lacteals of the small intestines during digestion, formed by the ac- 
tion of the pancreatic juice and the bile on the chyme. 

78. The fiinal portion of the alimentary canal, about five feet in 
length and from 1^ to 2^^ inches in diameter. It is generally di- 
vided into the coecum, vermiform appendix and the rectum. 

79. (a) It is situated in the upper part of the abdominal cavity, 
just ,below the diaphragm. 

(&) The liver is the largest gland in the body and weighs from 
three to four pounds. It is dark reddish-brown in color, and of a 
soft texture. It contains a large number of blood vessels, and the 
gall bladder. 

(c) It receives all the blood from the stomach and intestines. 
Its cells destroy all old red blood corpuscles, and take out of the 
blood the excess of sugar, storing it up in the form of a starch, to 
be used as needed. 

80. (a) The bile is a juice made by the liver, stored up in the 
gall-bladder. 

(b) It helps break up the fats and carbohydrates so that they 
can be absorbed into the system. It contains the coloring matter 
derived from broken down red corpuscles. 

81. (a) The pancreas is a gland, elongated and of a pinkish- 
yellow color. Its right end is embraced by the duodenum. A 
duct drains it and joins the bile duct close to the intestinal opening. 
(b) It secretes a watery-looking liquid of the greatest aid in di- 
gestion, helping with the bile to break up the fats. 

82. Saliva, gastric juice, pancreatic juice and bile. 

83. (a) It keeps the mouth moist, enables us to swallow dry 
food, and aids in dissolving solid substances like salt and sugar. 

(b) The ptyalin in the saliva acts upon the starch in the foods and 
converts it into a maltose, a form of sugar. 

(c) It makes the change of starch into sugar, and indirectly stim- 
ulates the gastric glands to pour out their juice. 

84. (o) The food having entered the stomach, it is exposed to 
the action of the gastric juice, which contains water, salts and 
mucus, free hydrochloric acid and pepsin, which acting upon the 
albumens or proteids converts them into peptones. 

(b) Ordinary proteids do not readily pass through most animal 
membranes. The peptones are proteids which readily pa^ through 
such membranes and are, therefore, capable of absorption from the 
alimentary canal. The peptone is broken up and its substances, as| 
serum and albumin, are found in the blood. • 

85. In the mouth it meets the saliva, where the starch is convert- 
ed into sugar. It passes from there into the oesophagus and thence 
into the stomach, where the gastric juice acts upon the albumins, 
forming peptones. From there it passes into the small intestine 
where it is acted upon by the pancreatic juice and the bile, which 
emulsify the fats and allow of their absorption into the body. 



22 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Through the large intestine where the waste then passes and is 
excreted. 

86. The inability of the digestive organs to act upon the various 
foods, and the consequent derangement of the digestive system, 
and the loss of appetite. 

87. (a) (1) In the small intestine; (2) in the large intestine. 
(&) By means of the digestive juices and dialysis. 

THE BLOOD AND ITS CIRCULATION. 

88. (a) Blood is a red liquid distributed everywhere over the 
body. 

(b) It takes up the gases in the body; it carries and distributes 
the nutritive material needed to build up the various organs of the 
body; it removes the waste products. 

89. It consists of a liquid plasma which has floating in it minute 
corpuscles. 

90. (o) Red corpuscles are very minute, solid, disk-like bodies 
which give the color to the blood. They are so numerous and small 
that five millions are contained in a drop of blood the size of a 
small pin head, (b) Colorless blood corpuscles are larger and less 
numerous than the red, and are cell-like, with ability to change 
shape, (c) Red corpuscles are the oxygen carriers; white cor- 
puscles destroy the bacteria and foreign particles, such as broken- 
down cells, etc. ; they are the resisting agents to disease. 

91. (a) A proteid substance containing iron, which has the power 
to take up oxygen where it is plentiful and give it up where the gas 
is lacking. It enables the blood to carry large quantities of gas 
where it is most needed. 

(b) When blood is first drawn from the living body it is per- 
fectly liquid, flowing readily. On exposure to the air it becomes 
hard after a short while. This is known as clotting or coagulation. 
It is due to the fermentation of the fibrin in the blood. 

92. In a wound, it closes up the mouths of the small blood 
vessels ; it serves as a covering for openings and wounds and thus 
prevents bleeding to death. 

93. Serum is the blood plasma made up of albumin dissolved in 
a great deal of water. It hardens when boiled. It feeds the tissues 
with 1?he nutritive material. 

94. Oii^gen and carbonic acid. 

95. Or^e-thirteenth of the weight of the body. 

, ^ 96. Anemia is a diseased condition of the body characterized by 
^--Jr a pallor flue to a lack of red blood corpuscles. Anemic persons 
should exercise, be a considerable time in the fresh air, and eat lots 
of good food, especially that which contains iron. 

97. A proper amount of exercise will involve the use of the mus- 
cles and the organs of the bodj', causing a more rapid flow of the 
blood, enabling all the organs of the body to do their work with 
more vigor. The blood circulates more rapidly and more air is 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 23 

taken into the system, while the carbonic acid gas is more rapidly 
exhaled. 

98. (a) Lymph is the liquid in blood which passes through the 
walls of the capillaries and carries the nutritive material to the tis- 
sues. (&) It nourishes the cells in the tissues and absorbs the gas- 
eous wastes from the cells. 

99. (a) Circulation is the passing of the blood round the body. 
(b) The heart and the blood vessels. 

100. See text-book on physiology. 

lOL Dr. Harvey, an English physician, who discovered this in 
the early seventeenth century. 

102. (a) The blood vessels that carry the blood toward the heart. 
(b) Those through which the blood flows from the heart, (c) 
Small blood vessels joining the arteries to the veins. 

103. (a) The heart is the organ that pumps the blood into the 
arteries after receiving it from the veins, (b) It lies in the middle 
of the chest, between the two lungs, with its pointed end turned 
toward the left side, (c) It is conical in form, about the size of 
a closed fist. It is divided into four cavities from top to bottom 
and then from side to side. These chambers have valves in them 
to let the blood pass through in the proper direction. A large blood 
vessel either enters or starts from each of these chambers. 

104. A large, loose, conical bag composed of connective tissue and 
attached to the diaphragm, which surrounds thejieart. The space 
between these is filled with a liquid which diminishes the friction 
that would otherwise occur during thg heart movements. 

105. The upper two are the right aq^ left auricles, receiving the 
blood from the veins ; the lower two, the left and right ventricles, 
from which arteries arise. 

106. The largest artery in the body, starting from th^left ven- 
tricle, running down to the pelvis and giving off many brSches. 

107. It becomes bright and red (from the admixture of oxygen 
and haemoglobin in the-blood) in the lungs and goes to the left 
auricle; thence into the left ventricle and is pushed into the aorta. 
It next rushes through the arterial branches, the capillary, and into 
the vein, and at last reaches the right auricle, where its color is 
dark. Through the auricle and valve into the right ventricle and 
into the lung artery, where it becomes purified. All this while you 
are counting 22. 

108. Hollow veins carrying the blood to the right auricl^ 

109. The heart walls are penetrated by numerous networks of 
capillary blood vessels. 

110. For protection. The arteries are always filled with blood 
while the heart is working, and a cut or a bruise would be a very 
serious matter. Not so with the veins. 

111. Excepting the aorta and the lung or pulmonary artery only 
veins have valves which permit the blood to flow only toward the 
heart. 

112. The lungs purify the impure blood from the heart and give 
it fresh red blood. See 124. 



24 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

113. So that the heart shall perform its functions in a normal 
manner, and allow the organs to receive their nourishment and do 
their work with vigor. 

114. (a) The beat of the heart as the blood passes through the 
artery, (b) Whether the heart is beating normally or abnormally, 
it is an aid in the detection of diseases. 

115. Proper amount of exercise; loosening of clothing; good 
diet. 

116. It destroys the nerves controlling the blood vessels. 

117. It deadens the nerve controlling the heart action, allowing 
the heart to beat too fast, and thus increases the wear and tear of 
the heart. It leads to diseases of this vital organ. 

118. As a narcotic it causes a weak and intermittent pulse, due 
to irregularities of the heart. 

119. In a child of 8 years, from 90 to 100; in an adult, about 72 
beats to the minute. 

BREATHING AND THE LUNGS. 

120. (a) The inhalation or breathing in of air into the lungs. 
(&) The lungs, thorax and air passages, viz., the nostrils, larynx 
and trachea. 

121. (a) To renew the supply of oxygen; (b) to get rid of the 
poisonous carbon dioxide. 

122. Two large, pinkish, spongy organs, filled with a mass of air- 
passages, with arteries, veips and capillaries, lying on each side of 
the chest, between the collarrfbne and the shoulder-blade. 

123. (a) An air passage opening in the back of the mouth, known 
as the windpipe, (b) Thin, elastic membrane covering the exterior 
of each lung, (c) A cavity with extensible walls which holds the 
lungs. jA 

124. Tne pure air containing large amount of oxygen is taken in 
and robbed of its oxygen (See 112), and the poisonous carbonic 
acid gas is breathed out. 

125. Changes in (a) temperature of the exhaled air higher than 
air breathed in; (b) moisture is greater in the exhaled air; (c) the 
volume of the air breathed out is much greater due to a and b; 
(d) more carbonic acid gas as well as organic substances in impure 
air. 

126. (a) Proper ventilation will provide sufficient fresh air with 
the proper proportion of oxygen for the lungs to breathe in. 

(b) About six hundred cubic feet per man. 

127. Alcohol tends to bring on inflammation of the lung tissues 
and more liable to attacks of cold and pneumonia. It makes him 
easily afifected by tuberculosis. 

128. The lungs, the kidneys and the skin. 

129. Excrete the poisonous air. 

THE SKIN. 

130. The skin consists of two parts, the dermis or true skin, and 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 25 

the horny, outer layer. The true skin contains the fine blood ves- 
sels and nerves, and is everywhere raised in elevations, forming the 
pores, through which the sweat or perspiration passes. 

131. Touch. 

132. The hair grows out of small sacs in the skin. It has a mi- 
nute bulb which is fixed in the skin. The color to the hair is given 
by the pigment in the bulbs. 

133. A part of the epidermis or outer skin, but more horny, 
serving to protect the ends of the fingers and toes. 

134. Sweat glands and oil glands to keep the hair healthy; to 
moisten the skin ; to pass off the poisonous excretions. 

135. So that the pores be kept open to allow of the excretions to 
pass off. 

136. No bathing should be done immediately after a meal or when 
in a depressed vital condition. A warm bath cleanses the skin and 
opens the pores ; a cold bath is stimulating, either in a plunge or 
a shower. Prolonged warm baths should rarely be taken. 

137. Discolors the skin, because the pores become saturated with 
the tobacco essence. 

138. (a) The kidneys are two firm masses, lying at the back of 
the abdominal cavity opposite the lumbar vertebrse. 

(b) To excrete the urinary wastes. 

THE BRAIN AND THE NERVOUS SYSTEM. 

139. (a) The system that governs the actions and movements of 
the organs of the body, (b) It allows the harmonious co-operation 
of all the bodily organs ; it permits the control and combination of 
a number of bodily activities for a definite end. 

140. The brain, the spinal cord and the nerves. 

141. A pulpy-looking mass in the skull, the outside of which is 
folded like a crumpled cloth. The two parts are the cerebrum, the 
upper one or brain proper, about seven-eighths of the whole mass, 
and the cerebellum or lower brain, lying beneath the back part of 
the cei^brum. It is covered by three membranes, the external one 
or the dura mater, the innermost and tender one or the pia mater, 
and middle or arachnoid membrane, formed from the other two. It 
weighs about fifty ounces in the average man. The brain contains 
the centers for the bodily functions ; it is the seat of the reason 
and thought. 

142. The spinal cord is a long whitish nerve in the backbone, 
whicl^gives out the spinal nerves, going out in pairs and branching 
out as they go to the muscles, etc. 

143. When brain cells have acted in the same way a few times, 
they tend to act exactly in the same way again. Brain cells that act 
together once, act together more readily a second time, still more 
readily and easily a third time, and so on. They form the habit of 
acting together without any friction. The more they act together in 
doing or saying the right things the more deeply will the habit of 
doing or saying the right thing become impressed. The brain, then. 



26 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

is the fixing agent of good or bad habits, and through habits char- 
acter. 

144. The nerves transmit from the brain action to the end organs, 
and carry messages from these organs back to the brain. 

145. A nerve is a branch of the spinal cord; it passes all over 
the body to the organs, muscles, and tissues all over the body. 

146. An impulse from an afferent nerve to a nerve center and 
the return impulse along an efferent nerve, without the conscious- 
ness of the brain. The brain is relieved of a great amount of work 
necessary to keep us alive. Actions tend to become habitual. 

147. It paralyzes or deadens the nerves and the brain of the 
drinker; it dulls the judgment, and excites the emotional nature of 
the man. Loss of voluntary motion may take place. It injures 
every faculty of the mind. 

148. It is narcotic in effect due to the presence of nicotine, making 
it extremely dangerous, often producing palpitation of the heart, 
dyspepsia, irritation of the throat and lungs and a breaking up of 
the system. Loss of consciousness may occur. It impairs the will 
and memory, and makes the user liable to outbursts of passion. 

149. (o) The white and the gray tissue. 
(b) The gray matter. 

150. The more important pai't of the brain. It is deeply convo- 
luted and divided into two hemispheres, containing the centers of 
all the special senses. 

151. A collection of gray cellular matter; and is the center of 
reflex action. 

152. The dura mater, arachnoid and pia mater. 

153. The afferent; the efferent. 

154. Only after their occurrence. 

155. The part of the hind brain joining the spinal cord. 

THE SENSES AND THEIR ORGANS. 

156. (a) Sight, the eye; hearing, the ear; touch, the skin; smell, 
the nose; taste, the tongue. ^ 

(b) An impression received by the brain through certain nerves. 

157. The eye is held in an egg-shaped bag in an opening in the 
skull. The optic nerve connects it with the brain; and in the back 
spreads itself out like a network upon the inner surface of the eye- 
ball, forming the retina. The front of the eyeball has a transparent 
covering called the cornea. Back of this is a chamber filled with 
a fluid, the aqueous humor; and hanging in it is a sort of cfrtain, 
the iris, with a hole in it, the pupil. A crystalline lens lies just back 
of the pupil ; the space between the lens and the retina is filled with 
a fluid, the vitreous humor. 

158. Upon this the pictures of all objects are formed. 

159. (o) It is placed in a bone case; the eyelids protect it from 
dust and insects; the eyelashes are sensitive to the slightest touch 
and cause the lids to close ; the lachrymose gland washes and moist- 
ens it. 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND" HYGIENE. 27 

(&) Six muscles control its movements, up and down and from 
side to side. 

160. (c) The point where the optic nerve enters the retina and 
that does not possess any power to reflect an image. 

(&) The inability to distinguish between colors. 

161. (o) Nearsightedness or the inability to see distant objects 
clearly. (&) Farsightedness or the inability to see nearby objects 
distinctly, (c) The inability to see horizontal and vertical lines in 
the same plane. 

162. (a) Do not read while lying down; (&) avoid reading while 
riding in the cars; (c) have the light come from the back over 
the left shoulder; (d) do not read, etc., in bright light, or in the 
dusk; (e) take care of them and consult the doctor as soon as 
necessary. 

163. They dull the nerves and hence weaken sight ; inflame the 
membranes ; partially paralyze the optic nerve. 

164. Th^ external ear, the middle ear and the internal ear or 
labyrinth, the most important because it contains the auditory nerves. 

165. (a) The outer ear is a piece of gristle covered with skin 
and formed so as to collect the sound. At the lower end is a thin 
elastic membrane, called the tympanum or drum. 

(b) The middle ear or drum contains three small bones within 
it, and is connected with the pharynx by means of the Eustachian 
tube. 

(c) The inner ear consists of a bony case of winding chambers 
and tubes, spiral in shape, hollowed out in the temporal bone. These 
passages are lined with membranes and support the organ of Corti 
in which are the endings of the auditory nerves. 

166. (a) Any break or tear in this membrane results in deaf- 
ness, and cannot be repaired. 

(b) The vibrations of the air are gathered by the outer ear and 
produce vibrations on the drum which set in motion the membrane 
in the inner ear. These are conveyed to the brain and there inter- 
preted. 

FOODS. 

167. The most important of organic compounds that exist in the 
body, consisting chiefly of carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen. 
They are obtained only from living beings, and enter into all the 
body tissues that have any physiological property excepting the hair, 
nails, and teeth. The white of an egg, gluten, albumen, casein, 
fibrin.- 

168. Fats are organic compounds that contain no nitrogen, con- 
sisting solely of carbon, oxygen and hydrogen. Fats, butter, oils, 
etc. 

169. Carbohydrates also are composed of carbon, hydrogen and 
oxygen in varying proportions. Starch, sugar, glucose. 

170. (a) See 9. 

(b) Organic food substances are those which are derived from 
those living forms, as animals, vegetables. Inorganic food sub- 



28 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

stances are composed principally and derived from the mineral sub- 
stances, as salt, water, lime, etc. 

171. (a) Serves as a tonic and strengthener of the body, (b) 
Serves to carry on and partly dissolve the food taken in by the body ; 
it forms an important part of every tissue and muscle, (c) Salt 
has an exciting and stimulating effect on some of the digestive 
juices, (d) Lime forms an important constituent of the bones, 
teeth, nails, etc. 

172. (a) To repair waste material in the body; (b) to keep the 
body warm; (c) to build up the different parts of the body. 

173. (a) It is a food for the blood; (b) it causes the oxidation 
of foods and thus warmth; (c) the body is enabled to expend mus- 
cular energy. 

174. (a) Carbon dioxide, water, urea. 

(&) The materials that are given off by the body, and are chiefly 
those things that cannot be burned to give it energy, etc. 

175. (a) The proteids or albumins are needed in order to repair 
and build up the tissues in the body. No other material or food 
will do. 

(&) Fats and oils are rich in carbon and hydrogen, but contain 
little oxygen. Hence their oxidation gives a large amount of energy. 

(c) Mainly of vegetable origin, they yield starch, dextrin, gum, 
to yield sugar. Containing the same elements as the fats, but more 
oxygen, they yield energy, though not to the same extent as the fats. 

176. (a) See 9, 171. 

(&) Milk, because it contains the proper proportions of all the 
food materials. 

177. Meats contain albumin and fats ; cheese contains the casein 
of milk, and is a food rich in albumins ; rice contains proteids, 
starch, sugar and fat; corn contains proteids, starch, and much fat; 
beans contain a large amount of proteids and about half its weight 
in starch; fruits contain salts, water and acids. 

178. Alcohol in very small doses tends to yield energy through its 
oxidizing power. But owing to its stimulating effects with the con- 
sequent derangement of the various organs of the body, its use 
ultimately leads to a diminution of vitality, lessened resistance to 
disease, and an overgrowth of fats and connective tissue. 

179. They are stimulants and should be given to children very 
sparingly or not at all. They are far superior to alcohol, and are 
not so disastrous to the adult, except in cases of organic diseases. 
Moderate quantities leave no serious after effects. 

180. The heat will convert certain chemical elements into com- 
pounds that are more easily digestible than when in the raw state. 

181. Various foods contain different amounts of the proteids, fats 
and hydrocarbons. Hence, in order to get the proper amounts of 
the food materials into the body, is the need for a varied diet. 

182. Energy is given off in the form of heat, and is used up by 
all the bodily organs in their work. To replace this energy by 
other energy, a good wholesome diet of foods that can replace the 
lost heat is therefore the most desirable thing. 



ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND HYGIENE. 



29 





The Skull, 



Brain. 




Vertical Section 

Throug-h a Tootii 

Lodged in Its Socket. 




ORNft 

outogs HUMoa 



Section of Eyeball. 



30 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 




Digestive Canal. 



The Heart and Its Large Blood 

Vessels. 



CHAPTER II. 
QUESTIONS IN CIVICS. 

1. What does civics or civil government treat of? 

2. (a) What is a constitution? (&) In what way does 
it differ from an ordinary law? 

3. What are its objects as stated in the Preamble? 

4. Into how many divisions does the Constitution di- 
vide the government? 

THE LEGISLATIVE DEPARTMENT. 

5. What are the functions or powers of the legislative 
branch ? 

6. What is the legislature of the United States govern- 
ment called? 

7. (a) Into how many houses is the Congress di- 
vided? (b) Name them. 

8. How is the House of Representatives elected? 

9. Name the qualifications necessary for election as a 
Representative. 

10. (a) What is the presiding officer of the House of 
Representatives called? (b) In his absence who acts 
as presiding officer? 

11. Name the powers exclusive to the House of Rep- 
resentatives. 

12. How are the members of the House of Representa- 
tives apportioned? 

13. Tell how this is determined and by whom it is 
fixed, 

14. Tell how the Senate is formed. 

15. How does the election of a Senator differ from 
that of a Representative? 

16. What are the qualifications for election as Senator? 

17. Compare the length of the terms of both Senator 
and Representative. 

31 



32 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

18. Name the presiding officer of the Senate. 

19. Who acts as presiding officer in the absence or dis- 
ability of the regular presiding officer? 

20. Enumerate the special powers limited to the Senate. 

21. When, where and how often does Congress meet? 

22. What is meant by a quorum? 

23. Name the powers belonging to both houses. 

24. State the limitations placed by the Constitution 
upon the time of adjournment of either house. 

25. What and by whom is the compensation of both 
Representative and Senator fixed? 

26. State how the work of either house is carried on. 

27. Name the principal Congressional Committees. 

28. Why does the Constitution prohibit the holding of 
any other civil office by a Representative or a Senator 
during the term of his office? 

29. Name the other officers in Congress and briefly 
state their duties. 

30. Define representative-at-large. 

31. What proportion of the Senate is necessary for an 
aye and nay vote? 

32. What is the difference between a bill and a law? 

33. Give in detail the method of passing a bill. Tell 
how the bill becomes a law. 

34. Discuss the President's connection with the mak- 
ing of laws. 

35. What are the sources of the powers of Congress? 

36. Name all the powers of Congress as regards taxa- 
tion. 

37. Name all the powers as regards war, the army and 
the navy. 

38. Name all the powers as regards commerce. 

39. Name all the powers as regards the courts, 

40. Name all the powers as regards money and coin- 
age, 

41. Name all the powers as regards the postoffice and 
postal matters. 

42. Name all the miscellaneous duties and powers. 

43. Where may these powers be found? 



QUESTIONS IN CIVICS. 33 

44. What is meant by the " elastic clause " or, " the 
sleeping giant" clause? 

45. Under what provisions are the implied powers of 
Congress exercised? 

46. Enumerate the prohibitions on the powers of Con- 
gress. 

47. Name the powers that are denied to the states. 

48. How are vacancies in the House of Representatives 
filled? 

49. How are vacancies in the Senate filled? 

50. What is a joint or concurrent resolution? 

51. What is meant by (a) "loose construction"? (b) 
"strict construction" of the Constitution? 

52. State the connection between the election of the 
President and the Vice-President and the House of 
Representatives. 

53. In what ways are taxes laid by the government? 

54. Distinguish between imposts and excises. 

55. Define (a) citizen ; (b) alien. 

56. Explain the difference between (a) natural-born 
citizen and (b) naturalized citizen. 

57. Distinguish between (a) naturalization (&) citizen- 
ship and (c) the right to vote. 

58. Detail the necessary steps for a foreigner to be- 
come a citizen of the United States. 

59. Explain what is meant by impeachment. 

60. Explain how impeachment proceedings are brought. 

61. What is legal tender? 

62. What are letters of marque and reprisal? 

63. Explain why titles of nobility are prohibited. 

64. State the enacting words of a bill. 

65. (a) What is a copyright? (b) Tell how a copy- 
right is secured. 

66. (a) Define patent, (b) How can an inventor se- 
cure a patent? 

67. Justify the provision in the constitution regarding 
the freedom from liability of the member for anything 
said in Congress. 

68. Why are members of the House of Representatives 
elected m.ore frequently than Senators? 



34 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

69. What is meant by the " committee of the whole "? 

70. What limitation is placed upon Congress in the 
matter of appropriating- moneys ? 

71. Define (a) ex-post facto law. (b) What does the 
constitution say about it? 

72. Define (a) customs (b) tariff, (c) capitation or 
poll tax. 

73. What is meant by interstate commerce? 

74. On what grounds is an income tax unconstitu- 
tional? 

75. What is an appropriation? 

THE EXECUTIVE DEPARTMENT. 

76. What are the functions of the executive branch of 
the government? 

77. In whom is this power vested? 

78. State fully how the President is elected, and by 
whom. 

79. In case of the death or inability of the President 
to act, who succeeds to his duties? 

80. State fully the qualifications for eligibility as Pres- 
ident. 

81. (a) What is the salary of the President? (b) 
By whom is it fixed? (c) What limitation is placed upon 
an increase in the salary of the President? 

82. Enumerate the legislative duties of the President. 

83. State those that could properly be placed under 
the heading of judicial acts. 

84. Make a list of those duties that are purely execu- 
tive and administrative. 

85. What is the President's connection with the finan- 
ces of the country? 

86. In case of failure by the Electoral College to elect 
a President, upon whom does this duty devolve? 

87. State the succession to the Presidency in the event 
of the death or inability of both the President and the 
Vice-President. 

88. What are the duties of the Vice-President? 

89. Why should the Vice-President possess the same 
qualifications for election as the President? 



QUESTIONS IN CIVICS. 35 

90. What limitation is placed upon the election of both 
President and Vice-President? 

91. Under what circumstances can the Vice-President 
vote? 

92. Illustrate how a President can be elected by a 
minority of the popular vote. 

93. What is the Cabinet? 

94. (a) To what does the Cabinet owe its existence? 
(b) Mention the Constitution in regard to this matter. 

95. Make a list of the Cabinet officers. 

96. What are the principal duties of the Secretary of 
State? 

97. What are the principal duties of the Secretary of 
the Treasury? 

98. What are the principal duties of the Secretary of 
War? 

99. What are the principal duties of the Attorney- 
General? 

100. What are the principal duties of the Secretary of 
the Navy? 

101. What are the principal duties of the Postmaster- 
General? 

102. What are the principal duties of the Secretary of 
the Interior? 

103. What are the principal duties of the Secretary of 
Agriculture? 

104. What are the principal duties of the Secretary of 
Commerce and Labor? 

105. To what executive departments do the following 
duties belong: (a) notifying the state of a proposed 
amendment to the constitution; (b) arranging for the en- 
campment of the militia of the several states ; (c) the 
investigation of charges against a corporation ; (d) prose- 
cuting a corporation for a violation of the law? 

106. Name three independent bureaus and tell their 
functions or duties. 

107. (a) What relation does the cabinet hold to the 
President? (b) What is the authority for this relation? 

108. By whom are the postmasters appointed? 



36 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

109. In whom is vested the power of removal of any 
cabinet officer from the service? 

110. To what departments do (a) the inspector-gen- 
eral of the army, (b) quarter-master general, (c) commis- 
sioner of immigration, (d) commissioner of pensions, 
(e) treasurer, belong? 

111. Explain why a bill that has been passed over the 
President's veto, does not go to him for signature. 

112. What punishment does impeachment carry with 
it? 

113. In whom is the sole responsibility for the faith- 
ful execution of the laws vested? 

114. In case of failure to elect a Vice-President of the 
United States by the electors on whom does this duty 
devolve? 

115. A person was born in Russia, both his parents 
being American citizens at the time of his birth. Pro- 
vided he has resided in the United States the requisite 
number of years, is he eligible for the election as Presi- 
dent? 

116. Who is the prosecuting ofjficer of the United 
States ? 

117. (a) How many classes of mail are there? (b) 
What are the rates for a letter and in what class does 
it belong? 

118. Who can not become a citizen of the United 
States ? 

THE JUDICIAL DEPARTMENT. 

119. What are the duties of the judicial department? 

120. In whom are they vested? 

121. Name the courts mentioned in the Constitution. 

122. Enumerate all the federal courts. 

123. What is the extent of the jurisdiction of the federal 
courts? 

124. State the powers and duties of the District Courts. 

125. What are the powers and duties of the Circuit 
Courts ? 

126. What are the powers of the Circuit Court of Ap- 
peals? 



QUESTIONS IN CIVICS. 37 

127. (a) In what cases has the United States Supreme 
Court original jurisdiction? (6)appellate jurisdiction? 

128. What is meant by original jurisdiction? 

129. To what kind of cases is the jurisdiction of (a) the 
Court of Claims Hmited? (b) The Court of Commerce? 

130. Name three points of excellence in our judicial 
system. 

131. What is its prime defect? 

132. (a) An assault has been made upon the British 
Ambassador in the streets of the City of New York. 
What court would take cognizance of the case? (b) 
How many judges constitute this court? (c) How are 
these judges appointed and for how long do they serve? 

133. (a) What powers in the country may annul a fed- 
eral law? (b) On what grounds? 

134. State in what way Congress may control the Su- 
preme court? 

135. Explain why judges enjoy a longer term of office 
under the constitution than do officers in any other de- 
partments. 

136. How may judges of the Supreme Court or any 
other federal court be removed? 

GENERAL. 

137. What is meant by (a) a jury? (b) a grand jury? 
(c) an indictment? 

138. (a) Define treason, (b) What is the punishment 
for treason? 

139. Name some of the rights guaranteed to the citi- 
zen by the Constitution. 

140. What is extradition? 

141. What is the difference between (a) a felony and 
(b) a misdemeanor? 

142. How may a new state be admitted into the Union ? 

143. (a) What is a territory? (b) Who represents a 
territory in Congress? 

144. Discuss the difference between (a) monarchy, (b) 
democracy, and (c) republic. 

145. What does the Constitution mean when it guar- 
antees to the states a republican form of government? 



38 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

146. Define amendment. - 

147. How can amendments to the Constitution be 
made? 

148. What is the Bill of Rights in the Constitution? 

149. (a) By whom can citizens be sued? (b) by whom 
can States be sued? 

150. What are the restrictions as to slavery in the 
United States? 

151. How are freedom of speech and of religious be- 
lief guaranteed to the citizen? 

152. (a) What is meant by quartering soldiers? (b) 
Can the United States quarter soldiers in any house? 

153. A person has been tried and acquitted of a crime. 
He has been arrested on the same charge, new evidence 
having been found against him. Discuss the case. 

154. Give the substance of Amendment X to the Con- 
stitution. 

155. What is the special importance of Amendment 
XH to the Constitution? 

156. State the substance of the Fifteenth Amendment. 

157. (a) Define writ of habeas corpus, (b) Tell what is 
said of it in the Constitution. 

REVIEW AND SUMMARY. 

158. Name the government officers that are elected by 
popular vote. 

159. (a) Define nation; (b) ambassador; (c) consul; 
(d) treaty. 

160. Mention two financial officers in the government, 
and specify their principal duties. 

161. What is meant by the oath of office? 

162. Under what provisions of the Constitution does 
Congress exercise power (a) to charter national banks ; 
(b) to prohibit the adulteration of foods and drugs? 

163. Name any three important decisions of the United 
States Supreme Court, and state the point involved in 
each. 

164. State the legal procedure following in bringing 
fugitive criminals from one state to another. 

165. Might a state legally exclude from voting at Con- 



QUESTIONS IN CIVICS. 39 

gressional elections : (a) all but property-owners ; (&) 
all but those who can read and write; (c) all but white 
citizens; (d) all but native-born citizens? State your 
reasons. 

166. When do bills become law without the President's 
signature? 

167. (o) Mention and define the two most common 
forms of government today. 

(b) In which of these forms of government is it neces- 
sary for the citizen to take more active interest in the 
administration of public afifairs? State your reasons. 

168. Mention two things either a state or the national 
government may do? 

169. In whom in the United States government is 
vested the power to (a) declare war; (b) make treaties; 
(c) regulate commerce; (d) make rule for the immigra- 
tion; (e) dispose of the mines found on public lands? 

170. What are the essential differences in the eligibil- 
ity of Representatives, Senators and the President? 

171. (a) Name five officials appointed by the Presi- 
dent, (b) By whom must these appointments be ratified? 
(c) In case of failure to ratify, state what happens. 

172. On what grounds may the United States interfere 
in a railroad strike? 

173. A business firm in your city fails. Before what 
court is this bankruptcy brought? Why? 

174. (o) How can a citizen residing in Pennsylvania 
collect his claim from the State of New York? (b) 
from the United States? 

175. Describe the system of checks and balances in our 
National Government. 

176. Define gerrymandering. 

177. (a) What are civil rights? (b) political rights? 

178. In what respect does the relation of a county 
to a state differ from that of the state to the nation ? 

179. To what different governments is a resident of a 
town or a city subject? 

180. Distinguish between the privileges of an alien 
and a citizen, and how far do they appear to conflict in 
some states? 



40 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

181. What is meant by the "60th" Congress? 

182. What is meant by the civil service? 

183. Name the section of the Constitution that can not 
be amended. 

184. Name those sections that have caused the greatest 
amount of discussion. 

185. (a) What is a bill of attainder? (b) What does 
the Constitution say about it? 

186. (a) What is the customs service? (b) Of what 
executive department is it a branch? 

187. Why is the President's consent not necessary in 
^se of an amendment to the Constitution? 



ANSWERS IN CIVICS. 

1. The study of citizenship and the relations of the citizen to the 
government. 

2. (o) The Constitution is the fundamental law by which the 
union of the states was formed, and under which the national gov- 
ernment is administered for the common welfare. (&) A law, or 
statute law, is an expression of the will of the people as represented 
by the law-making power in some particular direction. The Con- 
stitution cannot be abrogated or repealed ; it is superior at all times 
to statute law, and can be amended only after some specific proced- 
ure directed by the Constitution itself. 

3. "To form a more perfect union, establish justice, insure do- 
mestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the 
general welfare and secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and 
our posterity." 

4. (a) Three, the legislative, the executive and the judicial. 

LEGISLATIVE DEPARTMENT. 

5. To make all laws that are needful for the country. 

6. The Congress. 

7. (a) Two. (&) The House of Representatives, and the Senate. 

8. By the citizens entitled to vote for the corresponding legis- 
lative house in the state in which they reside. 

9. Citizenship in the United States ; at least twenty-five years of 
age, and have been a citizen for at least seven years prior to the 
date of election, and reside in the state in which he is elected. 

10. (a) The Speaker, (b) A member of his party selected for 
that purpose. 

11. The power of originating all revenue bills; the power to im- 
peach. 

12. Representatives are apportioned among the states according to 
their respective populations, the smallest number of Representatives 
to any state being one. 

13. Congress, in accordance with the Constitution, orders a cen- 
sus of the populations and industries of the country to be taken 
(during the years ending in 0) and fixes the ratio for each Repre- 
sentative. The number of members each state is entitled to is then 
determined. The state legislature then proceeds upon fixing the dis- 
tricts. There are at present 386 members in the House of Represent- 
atives. 

_ 14. Each State is represented by two Senators, regardless of the 
size or importance of the State. 

15. The Senators are elected by the Legislatures of the States in 

41 



42 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

which they are chosen, while Representatives are elected by popular 
vote. 

16. Citizenship for at least nine years, residence in the state in 
which he is chosen, and he must be at least thirty years of age. 

17. The Representative serves for two years, and is eligible for re- 
election. The Senator serves for six years and is likewise eligible 
for re-election. One-third of the Senate goes out of ofHce each two 
years, while an entirely new House of Representatives is chosen at 
the end of the two years. 

18. The Vice President of the United States. 

19. The senior Senator of the party in the majority. 

20. To try all impeachments; ratifies Presidential appointments; 
concurs or disagrees as to treaties made by the executive depart- 
ment. 

21. Congress meets at least once each year in the Capitol at Wash- 
ington, District of Columbia, on the first Monday in December. 

22. A quorum is, in the Houses of Congress, a majority of the 
members of either body entitled to transact the business of the 
House. 

23. Each House is sole judge of the elections, returns and qualifi- 
cations of its own members ; it may determine the rules for its pro- 
ceedings ; punish its members ; expel a member (by a two-third 
vote); publish a journal of its proceedings; appoint committees 
to attend to the duties assigned ; and incur necessary expenses. 

24. Neither House can adjourn without the consent of the other 
House for a period of more than three days. 

25. $7,500. Congressional enactment. 

26. Through Committees to consider the various measures. 

27. The most important committees are, in the House of Repre- 
sentatives, Committee on Ways and Means, which considers mat- 
ters relating to the raising of the revenues. Committees on Appro- 
priations, Foreign Affairs, Judiciary, Military Afifairs, Banking and 
Currency, Railways and Canals, Territories, Insular Affairs, Pen- 
sions, District of Columbia, Post Offices, Coinage, the duties of these 
committees being indicated by their names. In the Senate are the 
Committees on Finance, Appropriations, Foreign Relations, Rail- 
ways, and many others with names similar to those of the lower 
House, and with duties similar to those of the House Committees. 

28. To prevent any possibility of dishonest practices on the part 
of these officials. 

29. A clerk who has charge of the records and the routine work. 
The Sergeant-at-arms who is the police officer and messenger of 
the House and its paymaster. The Doorkeeper who is in charge of 
the rooms and the galleries. The Postmaster who is in charge of the 
mail of the members. The Librarians in charge of the famous Con- 
gressional Library, and the Chaplain are the other important of- 
ficers. In addition there are numerous clerks for the committees, etc. 

30. Representatives chosen by the citizens of the entire state be- 
fore the state has been redistricted by the legislature. (See 13.) 

31. One-fifth of the Senators or Representatives present. 



ANSWERS IN CIVICS. 43 

32. A bill is the proposed draft of the law considered by the Con- 
gress. The President's signature affixed to the official copy makes 
the bill a law. 

32. The bill is introduced by being presented to the clerk, en- 
dorsed with its title and the name of the member introducing it. 
It is numbered, and when its turn comes in the regular order of 
business, it is read for the first time and ordered printed. On a 
subsequent day it is again read, and is then referred to a standing 
committee for consideration. Here it is examined and reported back 
by them to the House, in its original form or amended. The third 
reading takes place in the open house, where it is discussed and de- 
bated, and if needs be, further amended. A vote is then taken, a 
majority in its favor being necessary for its passage. The bill is 
then signed by the Speaker, attested by the clerk and sent on to the 
Senate. A similar procedure takes place in the upper House. 

34. When properly engrossed and signed by the presiding officers 
of both houses, the bill is then presented to the President for his 
signature. If he approve it, the bill becomes a law ; if he disapprove 
it, it must be returned to the house in which it originated, where it 
may be repassed by a two-third vote in this and the other House, 
and thus become a law automatically. 

35. The powers delegated to the Congress by the Constitution 
(Article 1, section 8) ; the powers denied to the States (Article 1, 
section 10) and the implied powers (Section 8, last clause). 

36. The power to lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts and ex- 
cises ; these taxes to be uniform throughout the United States. 

37. To declare war, and grant letters of marque and reprisal, to 
make rules of war ; to raise and support armies ; to provide and 
maintain a navy ; to make rules for the army and the navy ; to pro- 
vide for calling out the militia; to provide for the organization, 
arming, and disciplining the militia when in the service of the na- 
tional government. 

38. To regulate commerce with foreign states and among the sev- 
eral states, and with the Indian tribes; to establish uniform laws of 
bankruptcy ; to punish piracies. 

39. To organize tribunals, courts inferior to the Supreme Court. 

40. To coin money and regulate its value ; to establish the value 
of foreign coins; to provide for the punishment of counterfeiting. 

41. To establish post roads and post offices. 

_ 42. To establish laws of naturalization ; to grant patents and copy- 
rights; to punish offenses against the laws of nations; to exercise 
exclusive jurisdiction over the District of Columbia and the terri- 
tories acquired by the United States. 

43. Article I, Section 8. 

44. Clause 18, Section 8, Article 1.— "To make all laws which 
shall be necessary and proper for carrying into execution the fore- 
gomg powers, and all other powers vested by the Constitution in 
the government of the United States, or in any department or of- 
ficer thereof." 

45. Article 1, Section 8. Same as 44. 



44 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

46. Congress is forbidden to pass laws suspending the writ of 
habeas corpus except in case of martial rule ; to pass any bill of at- 
tainder or ex post facto law ; to tax exports ; to give preference to 
any seaport as a port of entry; to grant titles of nobility; to expend 
any monies except on appropriation. 

47. States are forbidden to enter into any treaties, alliances or 
confederations ; to grant letters of marque ; to coin money ; issue 
bills of credit ; to make anything but gold or silver legal tender ; to 
pass bills of attainder or ex post facto laws ; to grant titles of no- 
bihty ; to pass any law impairing the obligations of contract ; to lay 
any tax upon imports or exports without the consent of the Con- 
gress ; to engage in war unless actually invaded. 

48. The Governor of the state in which the vacancy occurs calls 
a special election, upon thirty days' notice, and only the citizens 
within the district vote. 

49. Senators pro-tem are appointed by the Executive of State 
until the next meeting of the state legislature. 

50. A bill or resolution introduced into both Houses simul- 
taneously. 

51. (c) An interpretation of the Constitution of the powers of 
Congress including those that could be reasonably inferred from 
the powers that are specifically stated. (&) An insistance upon the 
literal interpretation of the Constitution. 

52. Congress determines the date of choosing the electors, and 
the day on which they shall cast their votes, the dates being the 
same throughout the United States. 

53. Directly according to the population ; and indirectly in the 
form of imposts and excises. 

54. (a) Taxes or charges laid upon imports, (b) Taxes im- 
posed upon such articles as spirituous liquors, tobacco, manufac- 
tured in our country. 

55. (a) A citizen is a resident in this country who has been born 
here or been adopted by the country and has the right to select 
those who are to act for him in the government, (b) A foreigner 
residing within the country. 

56. (a) A natural-born citizen is one born in this country or born 
abroad of parents that are citizens of this country, (b) A natural- 
ized citizen is one that has been adopted as such by the country. 

57. (a) Naturalization consists of changing the alien into a citi- 
zen, (b) Citizenship is the political condition of the person where 
he is entitled to all the rights and privileges and immunities of the 
citizens of the several states, as the equal protection before the law, 
the right to vote, and the right to hold property, (c) The right 
to vote is a privilege conferred upon a citizen allowing him to take 
part in the selection of officers to carry on the government. 

58. The alien must declare his intention, which is commonly 
known as taking out his "first papers." When this application has 
been made out and filed for at least two years, the second papers 
are made out. This is signed by the applicant and testified to by 
affidavits of two citizens. These papers are kept by the court for a 



ANSWERS IN CIVICS. 45 

period of ninety days, during which time the notice of the applica- 
tion is posted, publicly. The judge cannot issue citizenship papers 
to anyone unable to speak the English language. The first papers 
may be taken immediately on arrival in this country, but the final 
papers cannot be taken out unless the applicant has resided within 
the country for at least five years. 

59. Charges made in writing by the House of Representatives to 
the Senate against a civil officer charging him with malfeasance or 
misconduct in office. 

60. The House of Representatives investigates the case, and then 
decides whether impeachment proceedings are to be brought or not. 
If in the affirmative, the accused officer is brought before the Senate, 
acting as the Court of Impeachment, the President of the Senate 
acting as the Presiding officer, except in the case of the impeach- 
ment of the President, in which instance the Chief Justice of the 
Supreme Court takes the place of the Vice President. 

61. The money or currency of the United States which, by law, 
a debtor can require a creditor to accept in payment of a debt. 

62. Permits issued by the government to private citizens in time 
of war to prey upon the property of the enemy wherever found. 
This has since been abolished by the civilized powers by mutual 
agreement. 

63. To prevent class distinctions, so prevalent in Europe at the 
time of the Revolution, and today. 

64. " Be it enacted by the Senate and the House of Representa- 
tives of the United States of America in Congress assembled, that," 
etc. 

65. (a) A copyright is an exclusive authority given to a person 
to print, publish, reproduce, and sell some literary or artistic repro- 
duction, (b) Application is made to the Librarian of Congress who 
receives, before publication, the printed title page. Within ten days 
after publication, two copies of the completed work must be sent to 
the Congressional Library. Mention must be made on the article 
Df the copyright, and its date. Copyrights hold good for twenty- 
eight years with one renewal for a period of fourteen years. 

66. (a) A patent is the exclusive privilege to m^ake, use or sell 
some article discovered or invented, (b) A description of the ar- 
ticle, its use, accompanied by full drawings, and in some instances 
by a model of the article itself, must be filed with the Commissioner 
of patents who investigates into its originality. Patents are good 
for a period of seventeen years. 

67. So that it is possible for a member to criticize any measure 
or person coming before Congress without any danger of being held 
liable in the courts at law. 

68. Representatives are elected by the citizens on the supposition 
that the frequent elections will make them act more in accord with 
the wishes of their constituents, because the citizens will have the 
opportunity to review their conduct while the events are fresh in 
their ni,emory. Since this is the body in which revenue measures 



46 THE COlMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

must originate, the tendency will be conservative action by the 
House in the matter of appropriations and taxes. 

69. The entire House acting on the consideration of a question. 

70. The right to appropriate monies for the organization and 
maintenance of the army for a period of more than two years. 

71. (a) A law that makes an action done before the passage of 
the law, and which was innocent when done, criminal and punishes 
such action, or which inflicts a greater punishment on a crime than 
when committed, (b) The Constitution prohibits the adoption of 
such laws by either state or national government as manifestly un- 
just and oppressive. 

72. (a) Taxes laid upon the value or quantity of imports from 
foreign countries or our insular possessions, (b) The list of tax- 
able goods and the amount of taxes laid, (c) A tax laid upon the 
head of a person. 

73. Commerce or trade carried on between and among two or 
more states in the union or the citizens therein. It includes land 
and coast trade and upon navigable waters. 

74. That it is a direct tax not laid in proportion to the popu- 
lation. 

75. A legislative act setting aside a sum of money for a particular 
purpose. 

EXECUTIVE DEPARTMENT. 

76. The executive department sees to the enforcement and the 
carrying out of the laws. 

77. The President of the United States. 

78. Each state appoints, in such manner as the legislature thereof 
directs, a number of electors equal to the total number of its repre- 
sentation in both houses of Congress. Senators, Representatives 
and other government officials are forbidden to serve. These elec- 
tors are voted upon by the citizens in their respective states on the 
general election day. The electors thus chosen meet at their capi- 
tals on the second Monday in the January following their election. 
Triplicates of the result of their choice for both the President and 
Vice President are signed by all. One copy is mailed ; another is 
sent by special messenger, and the third is deposited with the Judge 
of the Federal District Court in whose jurisdiction the meeting is 
held. The ballots are counted on the second Wednesday in Febru- 
ary in the presence of both houses of Congress in joint session; 
and the result of this count is announced as the official result, in all 
cases a majority of the total number of electoral votes being re- 
quired. 

79. The Vice President. 

80. The President must be a natural born citizen of at least thirty- 
five years of age, and for fourteen years previous to his election a 
resident within the United States. 

81. (a) $75,000. (b) By Congress, (c) Such increase must not 
take place during the term of the President signing the bill. 

S2. To sign or veto measures adopted by Congress ; to inform 



ANSWERS IN CIVICS. 47 

Congress of the state of the Union and recommend measures for 
their consideration; to call Congress in special session; to adjourn 
Congress when both houses cannot of themselves agree as to the 
duration of the adjournment (see 24). 

83. To grant reprieves and pardons, and to commute sentences 
for offences committed against the United States excepting in case 
of treason. 

84. To be commander-in-chief of the army and navy ; head of the 
militia of the states vi^hen called into national service; to make 
treaties with foreign countries; to nominate judges of the federal 
courts, representatives to foreign countries, and such other officers 
as he may be authorized to appoint to assist him in seeing to the 
faithful execution of the laws ; to receive representatives of foreign 
nations ; to commission all officers of the federal service, and to 
take care that all the laws are faithfully executed. 

85. His approval is necessary to all bills for raising revenues and 
appropriations. Through his Secretary of the Treasury he receives 
and disburses all government funds. 

86. The House of Representatives selects from among the three 
candidates having received the highest number of votes the one to 
be President. In this event, however, the vote is taken by states, 
and not by individuals, each state having only one vote. 

87. According to the law of 1886, the succession to the Presi- 
dency is as follows : Secretary of State, Secretary of the Treasury, 
Secretary of War, the Attorney-General, the Secretary of the Navy, 
the Postmaster-General, the Secretary of the Interior. But these 
must possess all the qualifications prescribed by the Constitution. 
Congress, within a reasonable time, is called in extraordinary ses- 
sion and appoints a date for a special meeting to elect a new Presi- 
dent and Vice President. 

88. To act as President of the Senate, and the possible successor to 
the presidency in case of death or inability of the regular incumbent. 

89. The possibility and probability that he may become the Presi- 
dent of the United States. 

90. Both President and Vice President cannot be residents of the 
same state. 

91. Only in case of tie vote. 
92. 

Electoral 

Total Repub- Demo- Vote 

State Vote Oast Ucan cratic Rep. Dem. 

Massachusetts 400,000 220,000 180,000 16 

New York, 1,500,000 860,000 640,000 39 

Pennsylvania, 1,200,000 340,000 860,000 34 

California, 300,000 80,000 220,000 10 

3,400,000 1,500,000 1,900,000 55 44 
From the above we see that though the Democratic party received 
a clear majority of the votes of the four states, the Republican can- 
didate received a majority of the electoral vote. 



48 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

93. The Cabinet is the council of the heads of the different ex- 
ecutive departments and act as the President's advisers. 

94. (a) To Congressional legislation. (b) The only mention 
made in the Constitution is the following : " The President may re- 
quire the opinion in writing of the principal officer in each of the 
executive departments upon any subject relating to the duties of 
their respective offices." 

95. The Secretary of State, the Secretary of the Treasury, the 
Secretary of War, the Attorney-General, the Postmaster-General, 
the Secretary of the Navy, the Secretary of the Interior, the Secre- 
tary of Agriculture and the Secretary of Commerce and Labor. 

96. The Secretary of State has charge of the foreign affairs of 
the United States ; he controls the representatives to foreign gov- 
ernments from this country ; he is the custodian of the official rec- 
ords of the United States and publishes the statutes ; he is the secre- 
tary to the President in his communications vi^ith the states in the 
Union. 

97. The Secretary of the Treasury is in charge of the collection 
and disbursement of all government funds ; supervises the coinage 
and the national banks. 

98. The Secretary of War is in charge of all matters connected 
with the organization and maintenance of the army and is in direct 
charge of the building of the Panama Canal. 

99. All legal matters of the national government, the prosecution 
for all offences against federal laws, and the defence of a law in the 
courts come within the jurisdiction of the Attorney-General's office. 

100. The Secretary of the Navy is in charge of all matters con- 
nected with the organization and maintenance of the Navy. 

101. The Postmaster-General's office takes charge of all matters 
pertaining to the domestic and foreign mail service within the 
United States and postal agreements with foreign countries. 

102. All public lands, land surveys and grants, matters of educa- 
tion in the United States (not subject to State regulation), the pay- 
ing out of pensions, Indian affairs, the departments of patent and 
the geological survey, all are parts of the work of the Department 
of the Interior. 

103. The Secretary of Agriculture sees to the publication and dis- 
semination of all information regarding the latest and most ap- 
proved methods of agriculture and of the animal industry, public 
roads, and the weather bureau. 

104. The Department of Commerce and Labor includes the light- 
house board and establishment, bureau of navigation, the steamboat 
inspection service, the shipping commissioners, bureau of standards, 
immigration, the census office, the department of labor, the fish com- 
mission and the bureau of corporations. All the work of these 
commissions and bureaus comprises the work of the Department. 

105. (a) State; (b) War Department; (c) Department of Com- 
merce and Labor; (d) Department of Justice. 



ANSWERS IN CIVICS. 49 

106. (a) The Civil Service Commission which holds examinations 
to test the fitness of candidates for the civil service. 

(b) The Interstate Commerce Commission in whose department 
is the supervision of the interstate railroads and other common car- 
riers that transport freight and persons. 

(c) The Board of Trustees of the Smithsonian Institution, the 
national museum. 

107. (a) As a body of advisers in carrying out the policies of the 
President, (b) Custom only. 

108. By the President. 

109. In the President only ; excepting when impeached. 

110. (a) (b) War Department; (c) Commerce and Labor; (d) 
Interior; (e) Treasury. 

111. Because of the constitutional requirement that an amend- 
ment must be passed by a two-third vote of both legislative houses, 
the number sufficient to pass any measure over the President's veto. 

112. Removal from office and disqualification to hold any office 
of honor, trust or profit under the United States. This does not 
prevent indictment and trial by due process of law. 

113. In the President. 

114. Upon the Senate; from the two highest candidates, a quorum 
of two-thirds being necessary and by a majority vote of the Senate. 

115. Yes. He is considered a natural-born citizen. 

116. The Attorney-General acting through the District Attorneys. 

117. (a) Four classes. First class, letters or sealed matter; second 
class, newspapers and other publications entered in the Post Office 
as such ; third class, books, pamphlets, circulars ; fourth class, all 
other mailable matter. (&) Two cents for each ounce or fraction 
thereof. First class. 

118. Chinese, Japanese and anarchists. 

JUDICIAL DEPARTMENT. ""^^--^ 

119. To determine the validity and constitutionality of legislative 
enactments when brought before it ; " to expound and define their 
true meaning and operation." 

120. In the Supreme Court and such other courts as have been 
established by the Congress. 

121. The Supreme Court. 

122. The District Court, the Circuit Court, the Circuit Court of 
Appeals, the Court of Claims, the Supreme Court, the Court of Im- 
peachment (the Senate), and the Court of Commerce. 

123. The jurisdiction of the federal courts extends to all cases 
involving the federal constitution, and federal statutes ; treaties 
with foreign nations and with foreign representatives ; all cases of 
admiralty and maritime law ; to controversies to which the United 
States is a party, and between two or more states, between citizens 
of different states, and between the states or citizens therein and for- 
eign states or their subjects. 

124. For the trial of all cases arising under federal law. 

125. This Court is superior to the District Court, and all cases 



so THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

arising under federal law are subjects to its jurisdiction. It further 
serves as a court of appeals from the lower court. The United 
States is divided into nine judicial circuits, to each of these a Jus- 
tice of the Supreme Court has been assigned. In addition at least 
two Circuit Judges are appointed to sit in the circuit. Either one 
or both may sit in the circuit. 

126. The judges of the Circuit Court with the Supreme Court 
Justice of the circuit make up this court, and any tv/o of thern con- 
stitute a quorum. These courts have only appellate jurisdiction, 
and appeals can be carried from them to the Supreme Court only 
on their certification. 

127. (a) In all cases affecting ambassadors, consuls and other 
public foreign ministers, and when a state is a party to a suit. (&) 
In cases carried up on appeal from the lower federal eourts and 
from the state courts on questions involving the constitutionality of 
the act involved. 

128. Where the case is tried in the court from its beginning. 

129. (c) Cases involving claims against the national government. 
(&) Cases involving questions of duties, and rates fixed by the In- 
terstate Commerce Commission. 

130. It has been extremely stable; the length of service does not 
depend upon favors ; the salary cannot be reduced during the in- 
cumbency of a judge so as to change his opinion. 

131. That Congress has the power to control it in that it can in- 
crease the number of judges by legislative enactment. 

132. (o) The United States Supreme Court. (b) Nine, one 
Chief Justice and eight Associate Justices, (c) These judges are 
appointed by and with the consent of the Senate, and serve during 
good behavior. After a certain age they may be retired on a pen- 
sion. 

133. (a) Only the federal courts, (b) On the grounds of un- 
constitutionality. 

134. See 131. 

135. So that the best men of legal ability can be secured; that 
the judges be kept entirely out of politics while serving on the 
bench, and that decisions be rendered without fear or favor. 

136. By impeachment. 

GENERAL. 

137. (o) A body of men called to give a verdict in a case at law 
according to the evidence presented. (&) A body of men, number- 
ing from twelve to twenty-three, called to hear complaints of of- 
fences, and to decide whether there exists grounds*v. for criminal 
prosecution, (c) The verdict or decision of the grated jury that 
the person charged with the commission of a crime be held for trial. 

138. (a) Treason consists only in levying war against the United 
States, or in adhering to their enemies, giving them aid and com- 
fort, (b) Congress has fixed the punishment as death, or imprison- 
ment at hard labor for not less than five years, and a fine of not 
less than ten thousand dollars. 



ANSWERS IN CIVICS. 51 

139. The right to reHgious beUef; the right to jury trial; the 
right to be free from search without due process of law ; the right 
to take part in all elections to which the general body of citizens is 
entitled ; the right to protection of the law. 

140. The demand and surrender of persons charged with crimes 
that have fled from one jurisdiction to another, upon the written 
request of the executive officer of the state in which the crime was 
committed. 

141. (a) A felony is a crime punishable by death or imprison- 
ment, (b) All other crimes are misdemeanors. 

142. (a) By the passage of an act by. Congress authorizing the 
people to hold a convention and adopt a^'constitution. This con- 
stitution is to be submitted to the federal authorities, and if ap- 
proved, the territory becomes a state, (b) The people of the terri- 
tory themselves hold a convention and adopt a constitution, which 
is submitted to Congress. If accepted? the territory becomes a state 
in regular order. « 

143. (a) A territory is a tract of land acquired by the United 
States, and administered under federal authority, (b) A delegate 
who has the right of debate but not ^o vote. 

144. (a) A monarchy is a government by one person who is 
called a monarch, sovereign, king, emperor, etc., and who exercises 
his powers over his subjects. 

(b) A democracy is a government in which the members of the 
community exercise a direct power over the affairs of the govern- 
ment. 

(c) A republic is one in which the functions or power of the 
government are delegated to a body of men elected by the body of 
citizens. 

145. That the form of government in each and every state is the 
one similar to that of the Uni^d States, with its three co-ordinate 
branches. 

146. An act changing any of the requirements of the fundamental 
law as embodied in the Constitution. '^ 

147. (a) Congress, by a two-third vote in each house, may adopt 
the proposed amendment. This amendmertt must be submitted to 
the states. Three-fourths of the number of states, either by their 
legislatures direct or conventions ordered by the legislatures, must 
accept the amendment to make it valid, (b) The legislatures of 
two-thirds of the states may ask Congress to call a constitutional 
convention for the consideration of the proposed amendment. If 
adopted by them, the amendment is then submitted to the states, 
three-fourths of whom must accept the amendment, as above. 

148. The first ten amendments to the Constitution which assert 
and guarantee the inherent rights of the citizens. 

149. (a) By the national and state governments, and by the citi- 
zens within or without that state. (b)*On\y by the national and 
other state governments. 

150. The Constitution forbids slavery, Vxcept as a punishment 
for crime, after due process of the law. 



52 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

151. The first amendment prohibits the passage of any law abridg- 
ing the right of free speech and a free press and free religious be- 
lief. 

152. (a) Boarding and lodging soldiers in the house or home of 
a citizen, (b) Only with the consent of the owner or by due 
process of the law. 

153. He cannot be tried again for the same offence. Amendment 
V prohibits any person from being put in jeopardy of life twice for 
the same offence. Once a person has been acquitted of a charge, he 
cannot be tried on the same charge for the same act. 

154. That all powers not delegated to the United States are re- 
served to the states, if these powers are not denied to the states. 

155. It changed the method of election of President and Vice 
President. 

156. Citizens of the United States, regardless of race or color, 
shall have the right to vote ih accordance with the state laws on 
that subject. , 

157. (a) A writ or an order of the Court issued by the judge be- 
fore whom the application is made directing the sheriff or the jailer 
to produce the prisoner before that or another judge, when argu- 
ment will be heard as to the vafidity of the imprisonment, (b) This 
writ shall not be suspended, except in case where public safety re- 
quires it to be so suspended. 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

158. The President, Vice President and Representatives. 

159. (a) "A body or society of men, united for the purpose of 
promoting their mutual safety and advantage by the joint effort 
of their combined strength."- — Cooley. 

(b) The highest rank of foreign representative to this or another 
country. 

(c) A representative or agent sent to a foreign country to look 
after the interests of the country which he represents, especially its 
commercial interests. 

(d) An agreement or compact between two or more sovereign 
nations or powers for their mutual benefit. 

160. The Collector of the Port who collects the revenue duties 
on imports entering through that port. The Treasurer of the United 
States who keeps the finances and accounts of the United States. 

161. The oath or affirmation taken by an officeholder at the com- 
mencement of his service to support and defend the Constitution. 

162. (a) To make all laws necessary to carry out the powers 
delegated to Congress (clause of implied powers) ; (&) same clause, 
and on the ground that the foods and drugs are commodities of 
interstate commerce, provided these pass from state to state, other- 
wise they are not affected by the law. 

163. (a) United States v. Hill, in which the power of Congress 
to lay and collect taxes, etc., is affirmed, (b) Morgan's S. S. Co. 
V. Louisiana, in which the prohibition to lay an export tax is af- 
firmed, (c) The Dartmouth College Case in which the obligation 
of contracts is affirmed. 



ANSWERS IN CIVICS. 53 

164. The executive officer of the state in which the crime was 
committed issues extradition papers on the state executive of the 
state in which the criminal has been located. The criminal is ar- 
rested, and if he refuses to waive his rights, he is brought before 
the Governor and there the case is presented by both sides. If the 
Governor feels that a crime has been committed, he signs the ex- 
tradition papers, and the prisoner is given over to the custody of 
the officers of the former state. 

165. (a) Yes. (b) Yes. (c) No. See 156. Amendment XV 
forbids this, (d) No. A citizen is entitled to all the rights, privi- 
leges and immunities that other citizens are entitled to. In (a) and 
(b) if the law is a general one throughout the state and these quali- 
fications are necessary in order ^o vote for the members of the 
legislative house in the state corresponding to the House of Repre- 
sentatives. 

166. Only when he has vetoed it and the bill has repassed over 
his veto by a two-third vote in each of the houses, and if the Presi- 
dent has not returned a bill within ten days from the date of its re- 
ceipt by him (Sundays excepted), unless the Congress has ad- 
journed, in which case it does not become law. 

167. (a) Monarchy and republic; see 144. 

(b) In the republican form of government, because of the neces- 
sity of the citizenship to keep alert and be fully acquainted with 
the affairs of the government in order to secure honest and ef- 
ficient officeholders. 

168. Support education and establish courts as it may deem neces- 
sary. 

169. (a) Congress; (b) the President with ratification by the 
Senate; (c) Congress; (d) Congress or when Congress delegates 
the authority to the Secretary of Commerce and Labor; (e) in the 
Department of the Interior. 

170. Age and length of citizenship. The President must be a 
natural-born citizen, while the other officials may be naturalized 
citizens. 

171. The Civil Service Commissioners, the Cabinet officers, the 
United States Treasurer, Consuls and Postmasters, (b) The Sen- 
ate, (c) He must appoint others. 

172. As an interference with the carrying of mail, the railroad 
being a post road while mail is carried on that road ; as an inter- 
ference with interstate commerce. 

173. Before the federal District Court. Bankruptcy is a subject 
of national legislation ; Congress has passed a bankruptcy act in ac- 
cordance with the constitutional provision. 

174. (a) By assigning his claims to the State of Pennsylvania or 
any other state; or to appear before the Court of Claims in New 
York, (b) Bringing suit before the United States Court of Claims 
at Washington. 

175. (a) The States against the United States; (b) the Senate 
against the House of Representatives ; (c) the House of Represent- 
atives against the Senate; (d) the Congress against the President; 



54 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(e) the Courts against the Congress and the President; (f) Con- 
gress against the Courts; (g) the Senate against the President in 
the matters of appointments and treaties; (h) the House of Repre- 
sentatives against the Executive and Judicial Departments in the 
matter of appropriations for their maintenance, etc. ; (i) the people 
against the House of Representatives ; (;) the people through the 
State Legislatures against the Senate; (k) the people against the 
President and Vice-President through the electors. 

176. The laying out of districts in such a way as to secure for 
the party making the division as many districts as possible where it 
will be dominant. Districts have thus been laid out in the shape of 
a dumb-bell, a shoe-string and a monkey-wrench. 

177. (a) Those which the individual possesses in his intercourse 
with his fellow-men in his ordinary relations and business. 
(b) Rights which the individual possesses in the matter of govern- 
ment. 

178. Whatever powers the county possesses it has derived from 
the state, and these may be increased or decreased at the will of the 
legislature. The county is purely and simply a creation of the state. 
The nation has received its delegated powers and implied powers 
from the states, and these cannot be taken away; the nation was the 
creation of the States and is today their superior, yet with no power 
of supervision or control over the State, except in federal matters. 

179. To the town or municipal, the county, the state and the fed- 
eral governments. 

180. Some States allow the alien to vote, to hold property; others 
forbid both of these unless he has declared his intention of becom- 
ing a citizen. 

181. That this is the sixtieth Congress that has been elected. 

182. All those employees of the federal government except those 
engaged in the conduct of war in the army and navy. 

183. The section which provides and secures equal representation 
of the states in the Senate. 

184. Article I, Section 8 (powers of Congress), and 10 (powers 
denied to the States) ; Article III, Section 2 (judicial jurisdiction). 

185. (a) A law carrying with it the forfeiture of the estate or 
property of the person found guilty or charged with a crime, and 
preventing its transmission to the other members of his family. 
(b) Constitution prohibits states and nation from passing any such 
bill. 

186. (a) That branch of the government that attends to the col- 
lection of duties on imports, (b) Treasury Department. 

187. Because of the necessity of a two-third vote in each house 
for the passage of the amendment, the vote necessary for the pas- 
sage of any bill over the President's veto. 



CHAPTER III. 
QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 

GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF GEOGRAPHY. 

1. What is (a) the real shape of the earth, (b) its 
apparent shape, (c) a sphere? 

2. Show how we can prove the earth's shape. 

3. What is the (a) diameter of the earth, (b) circum- 
ference? 

4. How long- is (a) the diameter, (b) circumference of 
the earth in miles? 

5. How many and what are the motions of the earth? 

6. Define (a) rotation, (b) revolution. 

7. (a) What is the effect of rotation, (b) In what time 
does the earth make a complete rotation? 

8. Tell what you mean by (a) day, (b) night, (c) twi- 
light. 

9. (a) What is the actual direction in which the earth 
rotates? (b) the apparent direction of the sun's move- 
ments? (c) Give a proof of its actual direction. 

10. What is meant by (a) east, (b) west, (c) north, 

(d) south? How can you find these directions during 

(e) day, (/) at night, (g) how does the navigator tell his 
directions? 

11. Give the dates when we have (a) the longest day, 
(b) the shortest day, (c) day and night of equal duration 
or length. 

12. What part of the earth's surface is always in light? 

13. What is (a) the axis, (b) the poles? 

14. (o) What is the effect of the earth's revolution? 
(&) Name the seasons and give their duration. 

15. To what other causes are seasons due? 

55 



56 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

16. Define (a) the equator, (b) the tropics, (c) polar 
circles, (d) Name each of the preceding. 

17. Explain why the tropics are placed at a distance 
of 23V^° from the equator. 

18. Why are the polar circles placed at a distance of 
23y2° from the poles? 

19. (a) Name the five zones, (b) What do these zones 
show? 

20. What is meant by (a) the equinoxes, (b) the sol- 
stices? (c) What do they mark? 

21. Show why we have a winter season in the south 
temperate zone when it is summer in the north tem- 
perate zone. 

22. Show the need for latitude and longitude. 

23. What is (a) latitude, (b) longitude, (c) a meridian, 
(d) a parallel of latitude, (e) the prime meridian? 

24. How are latitude and longitude measured? 

25. (a) What is the latitude on the equator? (b) at 
the north or south pole? (c) the longitude of the prime 
meridian at Greenwich? 

26. What importance is attached to a meridian? 

27. What is the International Date Line? 

28. Define (a) temperature, (b) isotherm. 

29. What is meant by (a) weather, (b) climate? 

30. Upon what things is the climate of a place de- 
pendent? 

31. (a) What is meant by the heat belts? (b) Explain 
fully why these do not necessarily coincide with the 
zones. 

32. Define (a) wind, (&) trade winds, (c) prevailing 
westerlies. 

33. Locate (a) the belt of calms, (b) the doldrums or 
horse latitudes. 

34. (a) What are monsoons? (b) Where are they most 
noticeable? 

35. Explain the cause of the monsoons. 

36. What are (a) cyclones, (b) tornadoes, (c) hurri- 
canes, (d) typhoons? 

37. (a) What do you understand by vapor? (b) Show 
how rain, snow, and hail are formed. 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 57 

38. The humidity of the air is 75. Explain what is 
meant by this. 

39. The average rainfall is 40 inches. Explain the 
statement. 

40. (a) Define ocean currents, (b) Gives their causes. 

41. Name and locate the principal ocean currents. 

42. Show the connection between ocean currents and 
climate. 

43. What is the influence of the surface of a country 
upon its climate? 

44. State why nearness to bodies of water has such a 
marked effect upon the climate of a place. 

45. (a) Define and (b) name the hemispheres. 

46. What is (a) a continent, (b) island, (c) peninsula, 
(d) cape? 

47. Define (a) mountain, hill, (b) plateau, (c) plain, 
(d) valley. 

48. What is (a) a mountain range, {b) mountain sys- 
tem, (c) volcano? 

49. Explain how eruptions and earthquakes are caused. 

50. Show the importance of the wearing away of the 
land upon (a) the coast, (b) the soil. 

51. Define (a) basin, (b) divide or watershed, (c) lake, 
(d) river. 

52. What is (a) a wave, (b) tide? 

53. Of what importance are waves and tides? 

54. Locate the regions of (a) greatest rainfall, (b) 
least rainfall. 

55. (a) Where is vegetation heaviest? (b) Describe 
the vegetation found in the equatorial regions and give 
its cause. 

56. What kind of plant life is found in the temperate 
regions ? Why ? 

57. Define (a) prairies, (b) steppes, (c) llanos, (d) 
pampas, (e) selvas. Locate each. 

58. What and where are the tundras? 

59. (a) Describe the plants found in the desert regions. 
(b) To what are deserts due? 

60. Tell what kinds of plants are found in the cold 
regions. 



58 THTE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

61. What are the natural barriers to the spread of 
plants and animals? 

62. How are the seeds of plants scattered? 

63. Compare the animal life found on the land with 
that found in the oceans. 

64. Describe the animal life found in Australia. 

65. Name some of the animals found in South America. 

66. Name the principal animals found in the ocean that 
are useful to man. 

67. What are the special plants found in (a) Australia, 
(b) South America, (c) Africa, (d) Asia, (e) Europe 
and North America? 

68. Distinguish between the animals found in Asia 
and Africa, and those found in Europe and North Amer- 
ica. 

69. Name the principal ones found in each of the four 
continents. 

70. In what zone are (a) domesticated animals, (b) 
flesh-eating- animals, (r) poisonous animals, (d) largest 
and smallest animals, (^) fur-bearing animals most prev- 
alent ? 

71. Name the races of mankind. 

72. Locate each in the continents. 

73. Name the great world industries, and briefly de- 
scribe each. 

74. What is meant by (a) commerce, (b) domestic 
commerce, (c) foreign commerce? 

75. State the principal means of transportation. 

76. Enumerate the chief aids to commerce. 

77. Make a list of the articles found on the breakfast 
table (and in the various rooms at home) and tell 
where each comes from. 

78. What is (a) town, (b) city? 

79. Upon what features does the success of cities usu- 
ally depend? 

NORTH AMERICA. 

80. Draw an outline map of North America. 

81. Locate North America in (a) the hemispheres, (&) 
latitude, (c) longitude. 

82. What bodies of water surround it? 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 59 

83. (a) With what continent is it connected? (b) By 
what isthmus? 

84. (o) Which coast seems to be the longest? (b) 
Which is the least regular? (c) Which the most impor- 
tant? (d) the least important? Why? 

85. Name the indentations on each coast. 

86. Name the bodies of water (a) north, (b) east, (c) 
west of the continent. 

87. Name and locate the peninsulas and capes on each 
coast. 

88. Off what coast are most islands found? 

89. What groups of islands off the eastern coast? 

90. Name the largest islands off this coast. 

91. (a) What island is east of the Gulf of St. Law- 
rence? (b) What group partly encloses the Caribbean 
Sea? 

92. (a) Name the islands oft' the western coast ; (b) 
the largest. 

93. Why are so few islands found off the western 
coast? 

94. (a) In what part of the continent is the great high- 
land region? (b) Give its general direction. 

95. What long mountain chaiin extends through the 
central part of this island? 

96. Name the three mountain ranges bordering the 
highland on the west. 

97. Locate the two highland regions in the eastern 
part. 

98. Locate the lowland plains in North America. 

99. (a) What rivers of the central lowland flow north- 
ward. (&) Name the river flowing into Bering Sea. 

100. What large lakes are found in Canada? 

101. (a) Where is the St. Lawrence River? (b) Into 
what body of water does it flow? 

102. Name the five " Great Lakes " in the central part 
of North America. 

103. Tell where the Mississippi River rises, in what 
direction it flows and into what body of water it flows. 

104. (a) Name its three longest western branches, (b) 
An eastern branch. 



60 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

105. What rivers beside the Mississippi River flow 
into the Gulf of Mexico? 

106. Name the three longest rivers on the Pacific slope. 

107. What is the general direction of the rivers on the 
Atlantic slope? Why? 

108. Compare these rivers in number, length and im- 
portance with those in the Central Plain region and in 
the western part of the United States. 

109. Describe the climate of the northern, middle and 
southernmost sections. 

110. Briefly describe the vegetation. 

111. Name and briefly describe the animal life found 
on the continent. 

112. (a) Name the different races of man found in 
North America, (b) Locate each and give reasons, geo- 
graphical and historical. 

113. (a) In what direction are Greenland and Iceland 
from the mainland? (b) What body of water separates 
them from the mainland? 

114. Name the countries occupying North America 
and locate each. 

115. Which is (a) the largest, (b) the smallest, (c) 
the longest from east to west, (d) the ones nearest the 
United States, (e) the one farthest away from us? 

116. (a) Name the four largest islands of the West 
Indies, (b) Which of them is the nearest to the United 
States? (c) the farthest from us? 

THE UNITED STATES. 

117. What country lies (a) north of the United States, 

(b) to the south? 

118. Describe (a) its northern border, (b) its southern 
border. What bodies of water to (c) the east, and (d) to 
the west? (e) Draw an outline map of the United States 
showing the above. 

119. State the size of the United States from (a) east 
to the west, (&) greatest length from north to the south, 

(c) area in square miles. 

120. Compare the size of the United States with that 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 61 

of (a) North America, (b) Europe, (c) Great Britain, 
(d) Germany, (e) Russia. 

121. Draw an outline map of the United States and 
indicate on it the regions of highland and lowland. 

122. Show on the same map the slope of the land. 

123. Mark, on an outline map, the principal rivers in 
the United States. 

124. Locate the United States in (o) zones, (b) lati- 
tude, (c) longitude. 

125. Describe the climate of the United States. 

126. Explain why the great Central Plain is hotter in 
summer and colder in winter than the coast regions. 

127. Account for the dry climate of the western states. 

128. Why have the Pacific Coast states abundant rain- 
fall while the states directly to the east of these are dry 
and have little plant life? 

129. What portions of the United States are thinly 
populated because of the lack of rainfall in those regions ? 

130. Locate the regions of the greatest and the least 
rainfall in the country. 

131. What influence has amount and distribution of 
rainfall upon the population? 

132. Name and locate all the regions where the pres- 
ence of a mountain range makes a difference in the rain- 
fall of the two slopes of that mountain. 

133. Locate the Great Basin region and give reasons 
for its aridity. 

134. Show the influence of the surface of the United 
States upon the routes of transportation. 

135. What is the importance of the Great Lakes to the 
United States? 

136. Give a few descriptive facts of the Mississippi 
River System. 

137. Compare the rivers in the eastern part of the 
United States with those in the western part. 

138. Name the states included (a) in the prairies, (b) 
in the plains, (c) in the western plateau. 

139. Name the ten leading vegetable products and tell 
where they grow. 



62 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

140. Name the principal mountains in the Appalachian 
system. 

141. Give the names of four of the most important 
mountains in the Rocky Mountain system. 

142. (a) What ranges comprise the Pacific highlands? 
(b) Name the highest peaks. 

143. Name the most important animals in the United 
States. 

144. Mention the most important minerals in the 
United States. 

145. Describe the fishing industry. 

146. Name the groups of states most noted for (a) 
manufacturing, (b) agriculture, (c) commerce. 

147. Enumerate the most important articles of manu- 
facture. 

148. Name the three states and territories that rank 
first in the mining industry. 

149. What state has fishing as its most important in- 
dustry ? 

150. Make a list of the five largest railroad systems 
in the country. 

151. Name the five most important railroad centers in 
the country. 

152. What is the mileage of the United States? 

153. Name five railroads that leave (a) Chicago, (b) 
New York City, (c) one passing through El Paso, (d) 
one that passes through Omaha. 

154. Name the principal lake ports. 

155. What are the chief leading seaports on (a) the 
Atlantic coast, (6) the Gulf coast, (c) the Pacific coast. 

156. Name (a) three foreign steamship lines that leave 
New York City; (b) two that leave Philadelphia; (r) 
three that leave San Francisco, (d) With what countries 
is the United States connected by steamship lines? 

157. Name the principal foreign steamship ports with 
which the United States is connected. 

158. What seaport is noted for (a) its export of sugar, 
rice and cotton, (&) shoes and leather goods? 

159. Name five steamship lines engaged in coastwise 
trade 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 63 

160. Make a list of the most important exports from 
this country? 

161. What are its most important imports? 

162. Name the states making up (a) the North Atlan- 
tic States, (b) the South Atlantic States, (c) the South 
Central, (d) the North Central, (e) the Western States. 
(/) What are the territories? 

163. Make a list of all the states bordering on (a) the 
Atlantic coast, (&) the Pacific coast, (c) the Gulf of 
Mexico, (d) the Great Lakes, (e) Canada, (/) Mexico. 

164. Enumerate the states bordering on (a) the east 
bank of the Mississippi, (b) the west bank of the Missis- 
sipi River. 

In the study and review of the individual states of the 
United States the following are suggested as typical 
questions : 

165. Make a list of all (a) bays, (b) islands, (c) moun- 
tains, (d) rivers, (e) lakes in (name the states). 

166. Tell where the river (a) rises, (b) in what 

direction it flows, (c) into what body of water it flows. 

167. State the general direction of mountains 

and tell how the land slopes. 

168. What is the importance of river? 

169. Make lists of (a) the vegetable products, (b) ani- 
mals and animal products, (c) minerals and mineral pro- 
ducts found in — . 

170. What are the leading industries in ? Give 

your reasons therefor. 

171. Name (o) the leading railroad, (&) canals in . 

172. (a) What states border on (&) what bodies 

of water? 

173. (a) Locate the capital. Mention (b) the chief 
seaport, if any. (c) Leading manufacturing centers, and 
tell for what each is noted. 

174. Draw an outline map of the United States and 
locate thereon New York, Boston, Chicago, St. Louis, 
and San Francisco. 

175. Tell why each of the above mentioned cities is 
commercially important. 



64 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

176. Account for the prairie regions in Illinois and In- 
diana. 

177. Name three important cities on the Mississippi 
River, and tell for what each is noted. 

178. What river must one cross in going from (a) 
Arizona to California, (b) Georgia to South Carolina, (c) 
New Jersey to Pennsylvania? 

179. Locate (a) Long Island, (b) Roanoke Island, (c) 
Nantucket. 

180. Name four cities that are made important because 
of their situation at the junction of two or more navi- 
gable rivers. 

181. Give three reasons why the eastern states are 
predominatingly manufacturing states. 

182. What is the commercial value of the canals in the 
United States? 

183. Locate the great (a) wheat, (b) cotton, (c) rice, 
(d) beet sugar producing states in the United States. 

184. What is the all-water route from Duluth to the 
Atlantic seaboard? 

185. What has been the influence of irrigation on the 
United States? 

186. Name three railroad lines connecting New York 
with Buffalo. 

187. Name three particulars in which New York state 
excels all other states in the Union. 

188. Mention a state extensively engaged in the manu- 
facture of (a) cotton cloth, (b) silks, (c) flour, (d) glass- 
ware, (e) carriages and automobiles. 

189. Name in order the states whose northern boun- 
dary is the forty-ninth parallel of latitude. 

190. Give approximately the distance from (a) New 
York to Chicago, (b) New York to San Francisco. 

191. (a) What is meant by standard time? (b) Give 
the standard time in your own state. 

192. Where are (a) the Erie Canal, (b) Illinois Canal, 
(c) Pike's Peak, (d) the Mammoth Cave? 

193. Locate (a) the Grand Canyon, (b) the Yosemite 
Valley, (c) Yellowstone National Park, (d) Salt Lake. 

194. In traveling in a straight line from Ne.w York to 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 65 

St. Louis, mention in order, the states that you would 
have to pass through. 

195. Name all the possessions nf the United States. 

196. Locate Alaska with reference to (a) continent, 

(b) latitude and (c) zones. 

197. Describe the climate of Alaska and tell to what it 
is due. 

198. Name in Alaska (a) the mountains, (b) rivers, (c) 
surrounding waters, (d) capes, (e) islands. 

199. For what products is Alaska specially noted? 
Make a list of them. 

200. Name (a) its capital, (b) most important city, (c) 
other cities. 

OTHER COUNTRIES OF NORTH AMERICA. 

201. (a) What country borders the United States on 
the north? (b) What parallel of latitude marks the great- 
er part of the boundary line? 

202. Locate Canada as to (a) zones, (b) direction from 
Great Britain, (c) neighboring waters. 

203. Compare it with the United States and Great 
Britain as to size. 

204. Describe its coast line, and the value of that coast- 
line commercially. 

205. Name all the indentations on its coast. 

206. In what direction does Greenland lie from it, and 
by what bodies of water is it separated? 

207. Describe its surface. 

208. Name the rivers. 

209. Locate (a) Newfoundland, (b) Cape Breton Isle, 

(c) Prince Albert Land, (d) Anticosti Island. 

210. Name the five largest lakes in Canada. 

211. Name the leading agricultural products. 

212. For what minerals is Canada noted? 

213. Describe its climate. 

214. How does the population of Canada compare with 
that of the United States? Give reasons for your answer. 

215. Name the peoples inhabiting Canada. 

216. What are the political divisons of the Dominion 
of Canada, and mention the capital of each. 



66 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

217. What city is the capital of the Dominion? 

218. Name the leading cities, and tell for what each is 
noted. 

219. What are the principal imports into Canada? 

220. What are its leading exports? 

221. With what country is most of the commerce car- 
ried on? 

222. Name the leading industries. 

223. Draw an outline map of Canada and mark there- 
on the physical features mentioned in the previous ques- 
tions. 

224. Name two important railroads in the Dominion 
and the leading railroad centers. 

225. Explain why the St. Lawrence River is, compara- 
tively, not so important a commercial river as the Ohio. 
Hudson or Missouri River. 

226. In passing from Ottawa to Vancouver, state in 
order through what provinces you would travel. 

227. Show of what importance the Welland Canal is 
to the Dominion. 

228. For what are the provinces of (a) British Colum- 
bia, (&) Saskatchewan, (c) New Brunswick noted? 

229. (a) To whom does Labrador belong? (b) What 
is its capital? 

230. Locate the Bay of Fundy, and tell for what re- 
markable physical phenomenon it is known. 

231. State a few important facts about Greenland. 

232. Mention the cities. 

233. Mention the most important items about Iceland. 

234. (a) What is its capital? (&) To whom does it 
belong? 

235. What body of water partly separates Mexico 
from our country? 

236. Name the bodies of water on the (a) eastern coast, 
(b) western coast. 

237. (a) Describe its surface, (b) Name the moun- 
tains in Mexico. 

238. What is the effect of the surface and position on 
the climate? 

239. Name the chief agricultural products. 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 67 

240. What important and valuable minerals and metals 
does Mexico produce? 

241. Briefly mention the industries. 

242. (a) What are the means of transportation within 
the country? (&) Name the most important railroad. 

243. Describe its population. 

244. What are the leading imports? 

245. How do these compare with, and what are, the 
exports? 

246. Describe the government of Mexico. 

247. (a) Name the capital, (b) What are its most 
important seaports? 

248. "JSTame four other important cities. 

249. Explain why Mexico has not developed so rapidly 
as has the United States. 

250. Name the states comprising Central America. 

251. Describe the surface. 

252. Describe its climate. 

253. Show the influence of its surface and climate upon 
its agricultural and animal products. 

254. What are the principal products? 

255. State the products that constitute the bulk of its 
exports. 

256. With what countries is most of its commerce car- 
ried on? 

257. Name the principal industries. 

258. On an outline map of Central America mark the 
principal physical features. 

259. (a) Name the chief lake in Central America, (b) 
Of what importance is this lake? 

260. What are the British possessions in the Central 
America? 

261. Name the capital and the most important city in 
each of the states. 

262. State the commercial importance of Panama. 

263. What two important cities in Panama? 

264. Locate the West Indies. 

265. Between what bodies of water do they lie? 

266. Name the principal islands in this group and tell 
to whom they belong. 



68 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

267. Describe the climate. 

268. What is the nature of the agricultural products? 
Name them. 

269. What important minerals do these islands pro- 
duce? 

270. What islands comprise the (a) Lesser Antilles, 
(b) the Greater Antilles? 

271. Describe the population of these island groups. 

272. (a) Mention the capital of each, (b) Name the 
principal seaport on each. 

273. (o) Locate the Bermudas, (b) To whom do they 
belong? (c) What is their principal product? 

SOUTH AMERICA. 

274. Locate South America (a) in hemispheres, (&) 
with reference to North America and Europe, (c) sur- 
rounding waters. 

275. Give (a) its latitude, (b) longitude, (c) approxi- 
mate length from north to south, (d) east to west 
(e) Give the area in square miles. (/) What is its 
shape? 

276. In what zones does it lie? 

277. Compare its coastline with that of North America. 

278. Name the capes at its four extremities. 

279. Enumerate the islands off its coasts and locate 
them. 

280. Where is the great highland of South America? 

281. Describe the surface of South America. 

282. Name the states that are entirely in the lowland. 

283. Of what mountain chain is the western highland 
a continuation? 

284. Name the plateaus and locate them. 

285. Locate the regions of greatest rainfall, and state 
the cause. 

286. Why is the western coast dry? 

287. Describe the temperature in the various sections 
of South America. 

288. Name the principal seasons. To what are they 
due? 

289. How does the land slope? What is its effect? 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 69 

290. Name the five most important rivers and locate 
each. 

291. Describe the vegetation of South America. 

292. Explain the location of the selvas. 

293. Locate the savannas and the campos. 

294. In what countries are the pampas and llanos 
found? What is their importance? 

295. Describe the animal life in the selvas and name 
the animals found there. 

296. Name (a) three animals that yield wool, (b) that 
are used as beasts of burden, (c) whose skins furnish 
leather. 

297. Enumerate (a) the different peoples found in 
South America, (&) the various languages spoken, (c) 
the forms of government. 

298. What are the leading industries? 

299. Make a list of the principal products in South 
America; (a) animal, (b) mineral, (c) vegetable. 

300. What are the means of transportation? 

301. With what countries is most of the foreign trade 
carried on? 

302. Enumerate (a) the principal exports, (b) the prin- 
cipal imports. 

303. Which is (a) the largest, (b) the smallest, (c) the 
most important country? 

304. Compare the size of Brazil with that of the United 
States. 

305. Bound Brazil. 

306. What is (a) its capital, (b) its most important 
city, (c) four seaports? 

307. For what products is Brazil specially noted? 

308. Of what peoples does her population consist? 

309. Locate Argentina and tell what countries to the 
north and the west of it. 

310. Advance reasons why Argentina is the most ad- 
vanced and progressive of the South American coun- 
tries. 

311. What are its principal industries? 

312. For what products is Argentina specially noted? 



70 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

313. Name (a) the capital city, (b) its most important 
seaport, {c) two other cities. 

314. Locate (a) Uruguay, (b) Paraguay. 

315. What are (a) the capitals, (b) the chief trade 
centers? 

316. How does Chile rank among the South American 
nations as a commercial country? 

317. Locate it and state its physical peculiarity. 

318. (a) What mineral product is most important? (b) 
Name the other minerals found. 

319. (a) Where is the Desert of Atacama? (b) State 
its cause. 

320. What is (a) its capital, (b) its leading seaport? 

321. Locate (a) Bolivia, (b) Peru, (c) Ecuador. 

322. Mention of each of the above mentioned countries, 
(a) the capital, (b) most important city, (c) other cities. 

323. In what respect does Bolivia differ from all other 
South American countries excepting Paraguay? 

324. Where is Lake Titicaca? 

325. Name the principal products of the countries men- 
tioned in question 322. 

326. Why is the mining industry so poorly developed 
in these countries? 

327. Locate (a) Colombia, (b) Venezuela, (c) the 
Guianas. 

328. To what European countries do the Guianas be- 
long? 

329. State in regard to each, (a) the capital, (b) the 
leading city. 

330. (a) Where are the Falkland Islands? (b) Of what 
importance are they? 

331. Draw a map and locate the chief physical features. 

332. On an outline map indicate the regions of greatest 
importance in the production of (a) minerals, (b) ani- 
mals, (c) vegetable products. 

333. Which is the most important (a) commercial 
country, (&) in the production of minerals, (c) in the 
production of wool, (d) coiTee producing state? 

334. Name the leading seaports and mention a steam- 
ship line going to South America. 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 71 

EUROPE, 

335. Of what does Eurasia consist? 

336. Locate Europe (a) in hemispheres, (b) with re- 
spect to the other continents. 

337. Name all the bounding waters. 

338. State (a) its latitude, (b) longitude, (c) shape, (d) 
size compared with that of the United States and New 
York state. 

339. In what zone does it mostly lie? 

340. Show the importance of its irregular coastline. 

341. Describe the surface of Europe. 

342. Name the principal mountain ranges. 

343. What is the efifect of the Alps Mountains on the 
climate of southern Europe? 

344. Describe, the climate of Europe. 

345. Tell why the climate of Russia is colder than that 
of the German Empire. 

346. Explain why the western part of Europe has a 
milder climate than the corresponding region of North 
America. 

347. (a) Name the ten most important rivers in Eu- 
rope. (&) What is their importance? 

348. Explain why the eastern part of Europe has a 
light rainfall. 

349. Name the most important indentations in the 
coast line. 

350. What are the most important peninsulas? 

351. Show why the Scandinavian countries, with their 
extensive coast line, are unimportant commercially. 

352. (a) What race of people inhabits Europe? (b) 
Compare it with North America in number. 

353. Name the ten principal countries in Europe. 

354. Explain why there are so many independent coun- 
tries in Europe today. 

355. Name five countries in the western part of the 
mainland that have coastline. 

356. What great country occupies the most of the 
eastern part of Europe? 

357. What form of government prevails in Europe? 

358. Locate the great agricultural regions. 



72 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

359. Make a list of the important agricultural products. 

360. (a) What position does herding take among the 
industries? (b) How does it compare with the industry 
in the United States? 

361. Discuss fishing as an industrial occupation. 

362. Why does lumbering rank as a minor industry? 

363. (a) Explain the importance of the mining indus- 
try, (b) Name the principal minerals mined. 

364. Show why manufacturing is predominant in the 
western half of the continent. 

365. Make a list of the chief manufactures. 

366. (a) What are the leading exports? (&) With 
what countries is most of the commerce carried on? 

367. (a) Name the principal imports, (b) Why do 
foodstuffs form the greatest share of the imports? 

368. What are the means of transportation? 

369. Compare its railroad mileage with that of the 
United States. 

370. Name the countries making up the United King- 
dom of Great Britain and Ireland. 

371. By what waters are the British Isles surrounded? 

372. Name (a) the largest island, (&) the next in size, 
(c) the waters separating them, (d) the islands to the 
north. 

373. Show the importance of its coast line. 

374. Name the bays, gulfs, seas on (a) the eastern 
coast, (b) the southern coast, (r) the western coast. 

375. Name the principal mountains and tell where they 
are found. 

376. Name (a) four rivers in England, (b) two in 
Scotland, that are commercially important. 

377. Name (a) the capital, (b) the chief seaports, (c) 
and their location in England. 

378. (a) What is the capital of Scotland? (b) What 
are its important seaports? 

379. Name the leading manufacturing centers in the 
British Isles, and for what each is noted. 

380. Make a list of the chief industries. 

381. (a) Name the vegetable products, (b) Tell why 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 73 

Great Britain must import such large quantities of food 
products. 

382. Explain why manufacturing is the most important 
industry. 

383. What is the position of Great Britain as a trading 
nation? 

384. State the nature of her exports, 

385. (a) What is the capital of Ireland? (b) Name 
other leading cities. 

386. Mention the products for which Ireland is noted. 

387. Give as many reasons as you can for the great- 
ness of Great Britain, 

388. What country to (a) the east of Germany, (b) to 
the west, (c) to the south? (d) What is its northern 
boundary? 

389. Describe the surface of the German Empire. 

390. (a) Name the principal rivers in Germany, (b) 
How are these rivers connected? 

391. What are the leading industries? 

392. Make a list of (a) its agricultural, (b) mineral, 
and (c) animal products. 

393. Discuss its commercial relations with the United 
States. 

394. (a) Where is the Kiel Canal? (&) What is its 
importance? 

395. What are (a) the capital, (b) two leading sea- 
port cities, (c) manufacturing cities? 

396. (a) For what physical feature is Holland noted? 
(b) What are dikes? 

397. What are the leading industries? 

398. Make a list of the products. 

399. Compare its exports with its imports. 

400. Name (a) its capital, (b) its most important sea- 
port, (c) other important cities. 

401. Name the principal means of transportation with- 
in the country. 

402. Explain what makes Holland such an important 
country today, 

403. Of what importance is the location of Denmark? 

404. Name its foreign possessions. 



74 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

405. Name its capital and greatest seaport. 

406. Name the capital of (a) Norway, (b) Sweden. 

407. Show why these countries are relatively unimpor- 
tant. 

408. What is the position of Austria-Hungary in Eu- 
rope? Mention the countries surrounding it. 

409. Name the principal rivers in Austria-Hungary and 
tell why they are important. 

410. (a) What are its leading industries? (&) Make 
a list of its products. 

411. Name its chief exports. 

412. What races of people comprise its population? 

413. Name (a) its capital, (b) chief seaport, (c) one 
other important city. 

414. Show why Switzerland's location makes it so im- 
portant a country in Europe. 

415. What races make up her population? 

416. (a) Describe its surface, (b) Mention the prin- 
cipal mountains, (c) What are its famous lakes? (d) 
its famous peaks? 

417. (a) Name its industries, and their products, (b) 
What are its chief exports? (c) What must it import, 
in common with the greater part of Europe? 

418. Mention (a) its capital, (b) manufacturing cen- 
ters. 

419. What are (a) the capital, (b) the leading seaport, 
(c) other important cities in Belgium? 

420. Name the (a) capital, (b) three important cities, 
(c) four large manufacturing centers of France. 

421. Describe the surface and show the connection be- 
tween this and the products. 

422. Name its leading (a) exports and (b) imports, 
(c) With what countries does it carry on the greatest 
trade ? 

423. (a) What body of water separates it from En- 
gland? (b) Name the chief colonial possessions. 

424. Make a list of the principal rivers, and show their 
importance to the country. 

425. What peninsula do Spain and Portugal occupy? 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 75 

426. How does the surface of the peninsula affect the 
products of these countries? 

427. Name the chief industries, and the products of 
each. 

428. What are their chief colonial possessions? 

429. Mention, of each country, (a) its capital, (&) its 
leading seaport, (c) the other chief cities. 

430. Describe the climate of Italy, and the causes there- 
for. 

431. Name the principal mountains and volcanoes in 
Italy. 

432. What are (a) the capital, (b) the leading seaport, 
(c) other cities in Italy? 

433. Mention (a) its four leading industries ; (b) the 
important exports. 

434. What are (a) the capital, (b) exports, (c) lead- 
ing products of Greece? 

435. (a) Name and locate the capital of Turkey, (b) 
Show the importance of its location. 

436. Describe the population of Turkey. 

437. What are the capitals of Bulgaria, Roumania, 
Servia and Montenegro? 

438. Mention the principal products found in this 
region. 

439. Account for the undeveloped condition of this part 
of Europe? 

440. Show the importance of the rivers of Russia, 
naming them. 

441. What are the principal products? 

442. What are the most important industries, and lo- 
cate each. 

443. Describe the population of Russia. 

444. Locate and name (a) the capital, (b) the leading 
seaport, (c) important cities, and tell for what each is 
noted. 

445. Explain why Russia is not a great seafaring na- 
tion. 

ASIA. 

446. What physical features separate Asia from (a) 
Europe, (b) Africa? 



76 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

447. In what direction do (a) North America, (b) 
South America, (c) Australia lie? 

448. Locate Asia with reference to (a) the zones, (b) 
latitude and (c) longitude. 

449. In passing from Kamchatka to the Black Sea, 
name all the bodies of water over which you would have 
to sail. 

450. (a) How does Asia compare in size with North 
America, Europe and the United States, (b) with your 
own state? 

451. (a) Describe its surface in detail, (b) Name the 
mountains and locate them. 

452. (a) Discuss the drainage of Asia, (b) Name all 
the important rivers. 

453. Compare the rivers with those of Europe as to 
(a) length, (b) importance commercially, (c) impor- 
tance as means of communication, (d) Which is the 
most important river? Give reasons for your answers. 

454. Name all the peninsulas. 

455. Make a list of (a) the plateaus, (b) the plains, 
(c) the lakes. 

456. Describe the climate of Asia. 

457. What can you say regarding its vegetation? 

458. Name the principal animals found in Asia. 

459. Describe the minerals found on the continent. 

460. (a) What can you say regarding its population? 
(&) Name the races on the continent, (c) State the pop- 
ulation in round numbers. 

461. What are the leading industries? 

462. (a) Describe its commerce, (b) What are the 
principal means of transportation? 

463. Enumerate the religions represented in its pop- 
ulation. 

464. Describe the climate of Siberia and show its effects 
on the agricultural products. 

465. Explain why the industries of Siberia are so 
backward and undeveloped. 

466. What the chief means of communication in this 
country ? 

467. (a) Name the different provinces comprising Si- 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 11 

beria. (&). Mention the capital and important cities 
throughout the country and tell for what each is noted. 

468. With what country is most of its commerce car- 
ried on? 

469. Discuss the population of Turkey (in Asia). 

470. Name (a) the principal products, (&) and tell 
which of them are exported, (c) Name the most impor- 
tant imports. 

471. Explain why Turkey has not developed so rapidly 
as have other large countries. 

472. Name (a) the capital, (&) important cities, tell- 
ing for what each is noted. 

473. Describe the surface and climate of Arabia. 

474. (a) What is the nature of the agricultural prod- 
ucts? (&) To what is this due? 

475. Describe its government and population. 

476. State a few important facts about Oman. 

477. Show the importance of the location of Persia. 

478. (a) Describe the surface of Persia. (&) Name its 
leading products, and (c) state the chief exports. 

479. ia) What city is the capital? (&) Name the other 
important cities. 

480. Name the important cities in Afghanistan. 

481. Mention a few facts of importance regarding 
Baluchistan. 

482. Locate and bound India. 

483. Give a description of the surface. 

484. Name (a) the important rivers, (&) mountains, 
(c) tell in what direction and into what bodies of water 
the rivers flow. • 

485. Compare its size with that of (a) the United 
States, (&) Great Britain. 

486. How does its population compare with that of 
Great Britain as regards (a) races, (&) number, (c) re- 
ligion. 

487. Name the principal industries. 

488. (a) Why do food products form their most im- 
portant and valuable imports? (6) What are their 
chief exports? 



78 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

489. Enumerate the means of transportation through- 
out the country. 

490. (a) What city is the capital? (b) Name the lead- 
ing cities and tell in what way they are noted. 

491. (a) Locate Ceylon, (b) To what country does it 
belong? (c) Name its principal products and exports. 
(d) What city is its capital? 

492. Name the countries comprising Indo-China and 
tell to whom they belong. 

493. (a) Describe its surface, (b) Tell the chief prod- 
ducts, (c) Name the most important cities. 

494. In what part of Asia is the Chinese Empire? 

495. (a) Describe its surface. (&) Name the moun- 
tains, (c) Describe its climate. 

496. (a) What are the important rivers in China? (b) 
Explain why the Hoang-Ho causes such enormous dam- 
age. 

497. What are the principal means of communication 
and transportation throughout China? 

498. Describe her population. 

499. (a) Name the most important products, (b) Why 
is the mining industry so poorly developed? (c) With 
whom is most of its trade carried on? (d) Name the 
leading exports and mention the most important im- 
ports. 

500. Name the provinces in the Chinese Empire. 

501. (fl) Name the capital. (&) What are the leading 
seaports? (c) Name other important cities, telling for 
what each is noted. 

502. Discuss the importance of Manchuria. 

503. Name the various regions that have been leased 
by China to European nations. 

504. (a) What country rules over Korea? (b) Men- 
tion a few important facts about this country. 

505. (a) Of what is the Empire of Japan composed? 
(b) Name the most important of the islands. 

506. Describe its surface. 

507. (a) What are its chief products? (b) Name the 
leading industries, (c) Of what products do most of their 
exports consist? (d) Name the chief imports, (e) With 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 79 

what countries do they carry on their greatest com- 
merce? 

508. (a) To whom do the Philippine Islands belong? 
(b) Locate them. 

509. (a) Mention their principal products, (b) What 
and to whom do they export their products ? 

510. (a) What is the capital? (b) Name other impor- 
tant cities. 

511. (a) Name the largest and most important islands 
miaking up the East Indies or Malay Archipelago, (b) 
Name the seas and straits separating the islands from one 
another. 

512. (a) Show the importance of the climate upon the 
vegetable products, (b) What are the other important 
products? 

513. (a) To what country do these islands belong? 
(b) Describe the people. 

AFRICA. 

514. Locate Africa as to (a) hemispheres, (&) latitude 
and longitude, (c) zones, (d) with reference to Europe, 
Asia and Australia. 

515. What American city has about the same latitude 
as the northern part of Africa? 

516. (a) Name all the bodies of water surrounding 
Africa, (b) How does its coast line compare with the 
coast lines of the other continents in the Eastern hemis- 
phere? 

517. (a) Describe the surface of Asia. (&) Name the 
rivers and tell in what directions they flow. 

518. What cape is at (a) the southern extremity, (&) 
the northern, (c) the eastern, and (d) the western ex- 
tremity? 

519. Make a list of all the islands near Africa, and 
tell to what countries they belong. 

520. Describe fully the climate of Africa. 

521. What is the influence upon (a) the vegetable 
products, (b) animal products? (c) Make a list of the 
mineral products. 

522. Give reasons for the Sahara (desert). 



80 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

523. (a) Which slope contains the longest rivers? (&) 
Name the principal river systems. 

524. Name the lakes in Africa and locate them. 

525. Locate all the deserts and the grass lands. 

526. (a) What race of people is native to Africa? (b) 
What peoples inhabit the southern part? (c) the north- 
ern part? (d) Compare the distribution of population 
with that of the rainfall. 

527. (a) What is the influence of the Nile on the ag- 
ricultural occupations in Egypt? (b) Tell what parts of 
Egypt are populated. 

528. (a) Name the principal industries, (b) Of what 
do their exports consist? (c) their imports? (d) With 
what countries do they carry on their greatest com- 
merce? (e) What are the principal means of transporta- 
tion in the country? 

529. (a) Name the capital, (b) the most important sea- 
port. 

530. (a) Name the Barbary states, (b) Why are they 
so called? 

531. (a) Describe the climate, and (&) mention what 
products are found there, (c) Name the different races 
of people. 

532. Of each, mention (a) the capital, (b) the princi- 
pal city, (c) chief exports, (d) chief imports. 

533. Describe the Sahara (desert). 

534. Name the political divisions of the central part of 
Africa and tell to what countries they belong. Name the 
capital of each. 

535. (a) What are the chief exports of this region? (&) 
To what countries are these principally sent? 

536. (a) In what way does the surface of the southern 
part of Africa differ from that of the central part? (b) 
Show its influence on the products. 

537. (a) Name the leading industries, (b) What are 
the chief mineral products? (c) For what is southern 
Africa chiefly noted? 

538. (a) Name the different political divisions in the 
southern part of Africa, (b) Mention the capital of each. 
(c) Name the most important commercial cities. 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 81 

AUSTRALIA AND OCEANIA. 

539. (a) What tropic passes through Australia? (b) In 
what zones does it lie? (c) What oceans bound it? 

540. Describe its surface and coast line. 

541. (a) Describe the climate of the island, (b) Men- 
tion its chief vegetable and animal products. 

542. Mention the rivers in Australia. Locate them, and 
show the connection between them and the rainfall. 

543. (a) Name the leading mineral products. (&) 
What are the chief exports, (c) imports? (d) With what 
country do they carry on the greatest commerce? 

544. Describe the population of the island. 

545. Name the political divisions, and mention the capital 
of each. 

546. Locate (a) New Zealand, (b) Tasmania. 

547. Mention a few important facts about Tasmania. 

548. (a) Describe the vegetation of New Zealand, (b) 
Name five important products, (c) Tell too of what races 
its population consists, (d) What is the capital? (^) Name 
two other important cities. 

549. Name the most important islands and groups in 
Oceania. 

550. (a) Mention the chief products of these islands. 
(b) What race principally inhabits the island of Oceania? 

551. (a) Locate the Hawaiian Islands, (b) Tell to 
whom they belong, (c) Describe the surface and (d) cli- 
mate. 

552. Mention the most important products and tell with 
what country the bulk of their commerce is carried on. 

553. (a) Mention the principal industry, (b) Describe 
the population. 

554. (a) What is the capital city? (b) Mention another 
important city. 

GENERAL REVIEW. 

555. What river must one cross in going from (a) Illi- 
nois to Iowa, (b) Indiana to Kentucky, (c) Iowa to Ne- 
braska, (d) Louisiana to Texas, (e) Maryland to Virginia, 
(/) New Hampshire to Vermont, (g) Ohio to West Vir- 
ginia, (h) Oregon to Washington? 



82 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

556. State to what countries these islands belong: (a) 
Aldemey, (&) Corsica, (c) Crete, (d) Helgoland, (e) 
Jamaica, (/) Spitzbergen, (g) Sumatra, (h) Tasmania. 

557. Of what larger countries are the following states, 
kingdoms, provinces, etc., severally parts? (a) Amur, (b) 
Bohemia, (c) Chihuahua, (d) Finland, (e) Lombardy, 
(f) Normandy, (g) Oklahoma, (h) Ontario, (i) Saxony 
(/) Syria, (k) Tibet, (/) Victoria, (m) Wales. 

558. The daily papers contain advertisements of steamers 
to sail for (a) Antwerp, (b) Bremen, (c) Genoa, (d) 
Glasgow, (e) Hamburg, (/) Havre, (g) Hongkong, (h) 
Liverpool, (i) Rotterdam, (;) Southampton, (k) Yoko- 
hama. Tell of each of these pprts in what country and at 
or near the mouth of what river, or on what sea, gulf, etc., 
it lies. 

559. (a) Where do the Bedouins Hve, (&) where the 
Bushmen, (c) where the Esquimaux, (d) where the Hot- 
tentots, (e) where the Malays? 

560. Name (a) the South American countries on the At- 
lantic Ocean, (b) the two on the Caribbean Sea, (c) the 
four on the Pacific Ocean, and (d) the two inland. 

561. Tell in what states and on what rivers these cities 
severally lie: — (a) Bismarck, (b) Hartford, (c) Little 
Rock, (d) Louisville, (e) Minneapolis, (/) Nashville, (g) 
Omaha, (h) Poughkeepsie, (0 Topeka, (;) Wheeling. 

562. Where are (a) the Aleutian Islands, (b) the Azores, 
(c) the Hebrides, (d) the New Hebrides, (e) the Ionian 
Islands, (f) Long Island? 

563. Locate these lakes: — (a) Albert Nyanza and Vic- 
toria Nyanza, (b) Baikal, (c) Cayuga and Seneca, (d) 
Como and Maggiore, (e) Great Bear, (/) Great Salt, (g) 
Ladoga and Onega, (h) Moosehead, (i) Nicaragua, (/) 
Wener and Wetter. 

564. (a) Why do travelers go to Switzerland ? (6) Why 
to Egypt? (c) Why to Naples and its vicinity? (d) What 
scenery, natural formations, and phenomena, what buildings 
and constructions may travelers in the United States be ad- 
vised to visit? 

565. On the maps the North is usually above, and people 
usually say " up north " ; what proves that the northern coast 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 83 

of both continents is lower than the land south of it for 
hundreds of miles ? 

566. Draw an outline map of your state, and on it desig- 
nate, giving name and location, two lakes lying wholly with- 
in the state (if any), three rivers, five important cities, 

567. Mention (a) three important mineral products of 
your state, giving locality where each is found, and (&) two 
leading agricultural products that are largely exported. 

568. Name (a) two rivers of North America flowing into 
the Pacific; (b) two flowing into the Gulf of Mexico; (c) 
one flowing into the Hudson Bay. 

569. Give the shortest approximate time required to go 
from New York to (a) San Francisco, (&) Havana, (c) 
Bermuda, (d) Buft'alo, (e) Liverpool. 

570. Name five countries of South America and describe 
one of them, touching on position, climate, surface, and pro- 
ductions. 

571. Name the countries comprising the island of Great 
Britain. Describe briefly one of these countries. 

572. Name (a) two empires, (b) two republics, (c) one 
kingdom in Europe. Give the capital of each. 

573. Describe one country of Asia, touching on the loca- 
tion, principal mountains, and rivers, and chief products. 

574. Name and locate five countries of Africa. Write a 
description of one of these countries. 

575. Give the location of five of the following and men- 
tion one important fact connected with each : (a) Waterloo, 
(&) Paris, (c) Edinburgh, (d) Athens, (e) Nile, (/) Gi- 
braltar. 

576. Name, in order, the bodies of water that would be 
traversed in going from New Orleans to Liverpool. 

577. Make drawings to illustrate each of the following: 
(a) isthmus, (b) strait, (c) peninsula, (d) cape, (e) bay. 

578. Draw an outline map of the county in which you 
live, and indicate the bounding counties by name. 

579. Name (a) two states that lead in the production of 
cotton, (b) two that lead in the production of sugar cane, 

(c) two that are corn-growing states, (d) two that are 
wheat-raising states, (e) two that lead in the production of 
iron. 



84 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

580. Give the location of each of the foUowincr places 
and state why each is noteworthy: (a) Bunker Hill, (b) 
Lexington, (c) Yorktown, (d) Gettysburg, (e) Salt Lake 
City. 

581. Mention some of the most important articles of 
freight that would probably be carried by steamer going 
from (a) New York to Rio Janeiro; (b) Rio Janeiro to 
New York. 

582. Give the location of each of the following: (a) Phil- 
ippine Islands, (b) Hawaii, (c) Cuba, (d) Sardinia. 

583. Mention three races of men and one country inhab- 
ited by each. 

584. Give the location of three of the following : Pompeii, 
Gibraltar, St. Petersburg, Thermopylae, West Point, Yel- 
lowstone National Park, Lake Titicaca. Mention an impor- 
tant fact concerning each of the three. 

585. Name three important countries of Asia and give the 
capital of each. 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 85 

TEST QUESTIONS TAKEN FROM EXAMINATION PAPERS OF 
VARIOUS COLLEGES GIVEN IN 1908-1909 

586. Define or illustrate by a drawing- each of the follow- 
ing: cape, peninsula, hay, lake, strait. 

587. Give two proofs of the rotundity of the earth. 

588. Name in order of size Uve of the largest cities of 
New York state and give the location of each. 

589. Give in order the different bodies of water on which 
one would sail in going from Chicago to the Atlantic ocean. 

590. What causes the change of seasons? 

591. Give the location and the reason for the importance 
of -five of the following : Waterloo, Constantinople, Cherry 
Valley, Valley Forge, Bunker Hill, Korea, London, Gettys- 
burg, West Point. 

592. What is standard time? What time is standard in 
New York state ? What in Chicago ? 

593. Give the location of each of the tropic and of the 
polar circles. Why is each located where it is ? 

594. Name in order the states of the United States which 
border on the Atlantic, 

595. Arrange the following cities in order of latitude, put- 
ting the most northerly one first: San Francisco, London, 
Yokohama, New Orleans, Venice. 

596. Describe (a) the Welland canal, {h) the Erie canal. 
Mention the bodies of water connected by each. 

In questions 507 and 508 zvrite a description of one coun- 
try in each group chosen, touching on (a) position on the 
earth, (b) capital and two principal cities, (c) chief moun- 
tains and rivers, (d) vegetable and mineral productions, 
(e) manufactures and commerce. 

597. Australia, Egypt, Brazil, China. 

598. United States, France, Spain, Japan. 

599. Make an outline map of some locality, showing an 
island, a cape, a bay and a river. Name each, 

600. Name the five continents in (a) order of size, (b) 
order of population. 

601. Compare the climate of an island in the ocean with 
the climate of that part of a continent in the same latitude. 
Account for the difference. 



86 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

602. Mention two of the principal grape producing sec- 
tions of New York state. What makes the climate of each 
of these sections favorable to this crop ? 

603. Mention three important exports from the United 
States ; tivo important imports. Where is each of the arti- 
cles named largely produced? 

604. Describe the surface of New York state, mentioning 
the principal elevations and depressions. 

605. Which has the greater altitude, Oswego or Ithaca? 
Buffalo or Rochester ? Whitehall or Quebec ? Give a rea- 
son for your answer in each case. 

606. Describe ttvo of the following: Niagara falls, Yose- 
mite valley, canon of the Colorado, Mammoth cave, Pike's 
peak. 

607. If the axis of the earth were to become perpendic- 
ular to the plane of its orbit, what would be the effect on 
(a) relative length of day and night, {h) change of sea- 
sons? 

608. Name tzvo republics and three monarchies of Eu- 
rope. Name and locate the capital of each. 

609. Name and locate five important cities of the United 
States west of the Mississippi river. 

610. Name in order the waters that would be traversed 
and the countries that would be passed in coasting from 
Hamburg, Germany, to Rome, Italy. 

611. Write a description of tivo of the following coun- 
tries, touching on (a) position on the earth, (&) capital and 
a principal city, {c) chief mountains and rivers, {d) vege- 
table and mineral productions, {e) commerce: Alaska, 
Venezuela, British America, Italy, Korea. 

612. (a) Name some of the essential features of a good 
harbor. (J?) Name the best harbors of each continent. 

613. Name seven important industries of the United 
States, two of which are almost wanting in Great Britain. 

614. Name the continents in the order of their size. 

615. (a) What are parallels of latitude? (&) What are 
meridians? What is meant by Prime Meridian? {c) What 
practical use do these circles serve? 

616. What influence do latitude and altitude have upon 
the temperature and vegetation of a region ? 



QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 87 

617. (a) Give the leading exports and imports of Balti- 
more. (&) Compare the wheat fields of Russia with those 
of the United States. 

618. Draw an outline map of the United States and lo- 
cate Chicago, San Francisco, Boston, New York, Baltimore, 
and New Orleans. 

619. Discuss the Philippine Islands as to — (a) their lo- 
cation, (b) how composed, (c) their principal exports, 
(d) their principal imports. 



ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS IN GEOGRAPHY. 

GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF GEOGRAPHY. 

1. (a) Spherical; (b) flat; (c) a solid, every point on its sur- 
face being equally distant from the center. 

2. (a) When a ship sails away or comes near, the sails and masts 
are the first things seen, then the hull of the vessel; (b) people have 
traveled around the earth in one direction and have come back to 
the starting point; (c) the shadows cast in eclipses are circular; 

(d) the horizon is larger when viewed from the top of a mountain 
than when viewed nearer the base. 

3. (a) The imaginary line passing through the center of the earth 
and terminating at the surface; (b) the greatest distance around 
the earth. It is about 2^ times as long as the diameter. 

4. (o) Almost 8,000 miles; (&) 25,000 miles in round numbers. 

5. Two. Daily or rotation, and annual or revolution. 

6. (a) The motion of the earth on its axis, (b) The motion of 
the earth around the sun. 

7. (a) Day and night; (b) in 24 hours. 

8. (a) Day is that period of time when the sun shines upon a 
particular part of the earth; (b) night when the sun's rays do not 
shine upon that region; (c) the period of the 24 hours when the 
part of the earth is lighted up by the refraction of the sun's rays. 

9. (a) From west to east; (b) from east to west; (c) the sun 
rises in the east and sets in the west. 

10. (a) The direction in which the earth is rotating, (b) The 
direction in which the sun appears to move across the sky. (c) The 
direction in which one faces when he has the east at his right and 
the west at his left, (d) The direction opposite to the north. 

(e) By watching the apparent motion of the sun. (/) By locating 
the North Star by means of the " Dipper." (g) With the aid of 
the compass. 

11. (o) June 21; (b) December 21: (r) March 23 and Septem- 
ber 23. 

12. One half. 

13. (a) The imaginary line or diameter around which the earth 
rotates; (b) the extremities of the axis; the one at the north end 
is called the North Pole and the other the South Pole. 

14. (a) Seasons; (b) spring (March 23 to June 21), summer 
(June 21 to Sept. 23), autumn (Sept. 23 to Dec. 21) and winter 
(Dec. 21 to March 23). 

15. To the inclination of the earth's axis at an angle of 23j^° to 
the earth's orbit. 

88 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 89 

16. (a) An imaginary line passing round the earth, equally dis- 
tant from the Poles. (&) The Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary 
circle around the earth at a distance of 23^° north of the equator, 
while the Tropic of Capricorn is 23^° south of the equator, 
(c) The Arctic and Antarctic circles are imaginary circles placed 
at 23y2° from the North and South Poles respectively. 

17. The sun never passes north of the Tropic of Cancer and 
south of the Tropic of Capricorn, sending his rays perpendicularly 
to the earth in this belt only. 

18. The Arctic Circle encloses that portion of the earth vi^hich 
does not get any of the sun's rays between September 23 and March 
23, while the Antarctic Circle marks that region that does not re- 
ceive the sun's light between March 23 and September 23. 

19. (a) The Torrid Zone between the tropics ; the North Tem- 
perate Zone between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle; 
the North Frigid Zone enclosed by the Arctic Circle ; the South 
Temperate Zone between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic 
Circle, and the South Frigid Zone included in the Antarctic Circle. 
(fc) The belts of the earth that receive the sun's heat and light 
during the day and during the same season. 

20. (a) The two equinoxes, vernal or spring and autumnal, mark 
the point in the heavens when the sun is directly over the equator. 
(b) The winter solstice is that position when the sun is directly 
over the Tropic of Capricorn and the summer solstice when the 
sun is overhead the Tropic of Cancer, (c) The summer solstice 
marks the beginning of summer in our hemisphere, the winter sol- 
stice the beginning of our winter and the equinoxes the beginnings 
of the other seasons, and when day and night are of equal duration. 

21. On June 21 the sun has reached the point jfarthest north that 
he travels and our days begin to shorten after that date, giving us 
the summer, autumn and winter seasons. He moves southward 
until he has reached the Tropic of Capricorn, when the southern 
hemisphere has its longest day, December 21, marking the beginning 
of their summer. 

22. To enable us to locate exactly places on the earth's surface. 

23. (a) The distance north or soujii of the equator; distance 
north is north latitude, distance sout^is south latitude, (b) The 
distance east or west of any given meridian, (c) An imaginary 
line running from Pole to Pole, (d) An imaginary line around 
the earth connecting points equidistant from the equator, (e) The 
meridian passing through Greenwich, England, from which all im- 
portant longitudes are measured. 

24. In degrees, minutes and seconds of the circular measure. 

25. (o) 0°; (b) 90° North; (c) 0°. 

26. It shows all places having the same time of the day at the 
same instant. 

27. The international date line is an imaginary line fixed at 180° 
longitude which causes a change in the date, according to the di- 
rection in which the ship is sailing. If going west a day is lost; if 
sailing east, a day is gained. 



90 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

28. (a) Temperature is the condition of the earth or any other 
body as regards heat and cold, (^b) A line connecting places having 
the average temperature. 

29. (a) Weather refers to the daily changes in temperature, winds, 
clouds and rain. (&) Climate is the average of these daily changes 
and extends over a long period of time. 

30. Upon (fl) zones of light and heat or latitude; (b) altitude; 
(c) nearness to bodies of water; (d direction of regional windsj 
(e) influence of ocean currents ; (/,) surface of land. 

31. (a) The heat belts are usually placed coincident with the light 
zones (see 19). (&) There are places in two or three zones which 
have the same average temperature due to the conditions enumer- 
ated in 30. See any isothermal line. 

32. (a) Wind is air moving in a lateral direction, (b) The trade 
winds are winds blowing steadily throughout the year from the 
northeast in the northern hemisphere and from the southeast in the 
southern hemisphere between latitudes 10° and 30°. (c) The 
winds that blow from the west in the temperate zones toward the 
polar regions. 

33. (a) Along the equatorial region between the trade winds are 
these light breezes that move upward. (&) In the regions of about 
30° latitude where the air begins slowly to settle is the region of 
these doldrums or horse latitudes. 

34. (a) Seasonal winds blowing toward the land during the warm 
seasons and from the land during the cold seasons, (b) In the 
northern Indian Ocean and the coasts ; along the eastern coast of 
Asia. 

35. During the summer season the land becomes hotter than the 
waters, hence the cooler ocean winds blow in very steadily and 
strongly. In winter when the land becomes much cooler than the 
neighboring oceans, the cold winds from the high plateau regions 
blow outward toward the oceans. These winds are steady for about 
six months each way. 

■^i 36. (a) Whirls of wind-m the center of which the air is rising; 
(&) a very strong cycloni^wind of small extent carrying with it 
rain and electrical discha"es; (c) and (d) very violent storms 
developing in the tropical zone. Typhoons occur in the Pacific re- 
gion, while hurricanes are in the Atlantic. 

37. (a) Water in an invisible form in the atmosphere. (6) When 
the air becomes surcharged with moisture or it strikes a cold re* 
gion, this vapor comes down in the form of rain. Rain is merely 
vapor in the air condensed. When the temperature is very cold or 
the condensation is very rapid the vapor is changed into snow and 
falling rain into hail. 

38. That the atmosphere contains seventy-five per cent of the 
maximum amount of moisture it can hold. 

39. That measured by the rain gauge the amount of rain falling 
during the year (or season or month) measured forty inches. 

40. (o) Slow moving surface waters of the ocean in a steady di- 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 91 

rection. (&) The winds, the rotation of the earth, the unequal tem- 
peratures of the waters and the shape of the continents. 

41. Equatorial currents near the equator; the Gulf Stream; Lab- 
rador Current ; the equatorial drifts in the Atlantic Ocean ; the 
Japan Current, California Current, Equatorial Curent and Drifts, 
in the Pacific Ocean ; the Monsoon drifts and the south equatorial 
drifts in the Indian Ocean. 

42. It modifies the temperature of the regions near which it 
passes ; as, the Labrador Current makes Labrador extremely cold 
while the Gulf Stream makes the climate of the western coast of 
Europe very mild. (How is the western coast of North America 
affected by the ocean currents?) 

43. The temperature of a place is partly dependent upon the sur- 
face. A lower surface is warmer than a plateau or mountainous 
region in the same latitude. 

44. Due to the water breezes and to the amount of moisture com- 
ing from the water. Places situated near bodies of water with the 
winds blowing toward them have large amount of rainfall and a 
milder climate in winter. 

45. (a) The earth divided into two equal parts. (&) The North- 
ern and Southern Hemispheres are due to a division of the earth 
by the equator. The eastern and western hemispheres are caused 
by a division by any meridian, but recognized as being caused by 
the meridian of 20° east longitude. 

46. (o) One of the six largest divisions of the earth, (b) A 
large mass of land wholly surrounded by water, (c) A piece of 
land stretching into the water and partly surrounded by water. 
(d) A point of land stretching out into the water. 

47. (o) A mountain is a lofty elevation of the earth standing 
very high above the surrounding country; a hill is an elevation two 
thousand feet or less, (b) A plateau is high level ground, (c) A 
surface of considerable extent that is not broken by any very no- 
ticeable elevations or depressions, (d) A depression in the earth's 
surface. It may be between mountains, in a plateau or plain. 

48. (a) A serie* of mountains extending for a great distance. 
(&) A number of parallel ranges forg:i "a" system, (c) A volcano 
is an opening in a mountain through which molten rock and steam 
flow out. 

49. Through a crack or crevice in the volcano water may pour in 
and be suddenly converted into steam ; or there may be underground 
explosions, which hurl the melted lava high into the air, causing it 
to fall over a large area. At the same time the earth's crust is 
broken, and shocks are felt in several places. These are known as 
earthquake shocks. 

50. (a) The coast may be made regular or irregular, with good 
or poor harbors, and thus allow every opportunity for a good com- 
mercial city, (&) The soil may be sandy and thus unfitted for agri- 
cultural purposes ; it may be a rich loam, very fertile and of great 
value for agriculture. 

5L (a) All the region through which water in time of rain may 



92 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

flow into a stream is called a basin, (b) An elevation that causes 
waters to flow down in a certain direction, (c) An enclosed basin 
of considerable extent serving to drain the surrounding country and 
connected with the sea by a stream, (d) A river is a stream of 
water, short or of considerable length, that flows in a certain di- 
rection, usually flowing into another river, the sea or the ocean. 

52. (a) The waters of the ocean or any other body of water in 
a regular definite movement, (b) The slow, regular rise of the 
sea along the coasts at fixed times. 

53. They wear away the coast ; make regular or irregular shores ; 
wear away or build up islands; close up harbors, aid or obstruct 
navigation. 

54. (a) Central parts of Africa and South America; western 
coast of North America ; southeastern part of North America ; 
eastern coast of Africa ; southeastern part of Asia ; the East Indies 
and the northern part of Australia, (b) Western coast of South 
America, northern and southern parts of Africa; and central parts 
of Australia and Asia, and western highland region of United 
States. 

55. (o) See 54 (a), (b) The vegetation is very dense and lux- 
uriant. Great trees stand very close together, with their branches 
intertwined with climbing vines. The ground is covered with a 
dense growth of underbrush and creeping vines. Due to the con- 
tinually warm climate and the excessively heavy rainfall. 

56. Plants which depend upon changes in climate; whose fruits 
ripen in the summer. Plants and grains of greatest value to man 
are found here. Forests with a growth less dense and luxuriant 
than in the equatorial regions are found here. Due to the changes 
in the climate, and the moderate amount of rainfall. 

57. (a) A level tract of land covered with grass and without 
trees, and with a rich, fertile soil. The north Central States and 
the western part of the United States, (b) The prairie region in 
the southwestern part of Asia around the Caspian Sea. (c) The 
llanos are the grassy regions along the Orinoco River in South 
America, (d) The pampas are the grassy regions in Argentina, 
along the Parana- Paraguay River Basin, (e) The selvas are the 
woody regions in the valley of the Amazon. 

58. The swampy lands in the Arctic regions. They are covered 
during the summer months with a very sparse growth of mosses, 
lichens and dwarfed shrubs, and frozen over during the cold 
months. 

59. (a) Those especially adapted to a very dry climate; that can 
retain the little water that they absorb, such as the cactus. These 
have a very hard, dry covering through which the juices cannot 
escape, and are generally covered with thorns to prevent the ani- 
mals from breaking or destroying them, (b) To the lack of rain- 
fall, due to winds and other causes. 

60. Evergreens of short, stunted growth. Mosses, lichens, and 
water-loving plants, grasses, shrubs, flowering plants, all of a short 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 93 

size, are found in the Arctic regions as soon as fhe snow and ice 
have melted. 

61. Oceans, deserts and mountains are the principal barriers. 

62. By man, animals, winds and ocean currents. 

63. As a rule invertebrate animals are the inhabitants of the seas, 
while backboned animals are the land animals. In addition most 
of the cold-blooded animals are found in the water while warm- 
blooded animals are found on land. The covering, too, in the wa- 
ter animals is such as to prevent the inflow of water. 

64. Most of the animals found in Australia are warm-blooded, 
hatched from the egg, and carried in a bag or pouch before birth. 
The kangaroo, tlie kaola, some others like the squirrel, mice, or 
moles in size and habits. The duckbill, emu, cassowary are found 
there. . -— . 

65. The sloth, opossum, ant-eater, armadillo, guinea-pig, the 
. long-tailed monkey, peccary, jaguar, boa constrictor, the llama, the 

parrot, condor, the ostrich-like rhea are the wild animals, while 
cattle, sheep and horses are the domesticated ones. 

66. The whale, fishes of all species, the amphibia, seal, walrus, 
sea-cow are among the chief water animals. 

67. (a) The leafless oak, the eucalyptus, the acacia tree and many 
trees with leaves that turn toward the sun. (b) Mahogany, rosewood, 
logwood, cinchona or Peruvian-bark, rubber, vanilla and gum trees ; 
cayenne pepper, tobacco, Indian corn, coffee-tree, sugar-cane and 
wheat, (c) The oil and date palms, gum trees, coffee-trees, rubber 
trees, in addition to the ones usually found on all continents. 
(d) Bamboos, palms, spice-yielding plants, hardwood trees, as the 
teak, ebony, sandalwood, and satinwood. The usual grains and 
vegetables are found on the continent, (e) The most useful trees 
are found on these continents. The cone-bearing trees, such as the 
pine, spruce, hemlock; and the chestnut, oak, walnut, beech, ash, 
etc. ; the golden rod, asters and the most beautifully colored flowers, 
together with the usual grain and vegetable plants are found on these 
continents. 

68. The largest, brightly colored, and fiercest animals are found 
in Africa and Asia, while the most useful to man, the domesticated 
animals, are found on the latter two continents. 

69. Africa — the lion, leopard, panther, hyena, jackal, ostrich, hip- 
popotamus, rhinoceros, giraffe, zebra, wild ass, monkey, gorilla and 
beautiful birds. Asia — the lion, leopard, hyena, tiger, elephant, buf- 
falo, rhinoceros, bear, peacock, jungle fowl. Europe and North 
America — bear, wildcat, wolf, reindeer and caribou, elk and moose, 
goat, sheep, chapiois, buffalo and musk-ox, fur-bearers, in both 
continents, birds ^f prey and song birds. 

70. (o) Temperate zone; (&) torrid zone; (c) torrid and south- 
ern parts of the temperate zones nearest the torrid zone; (d) torrid 
zone; (e) frigid zone. 

71. White or Caucasian, yellow or Mongolian, brown or Malay, 
black or negro, and red or American Indians. 

72. The white in Europe, North America and South America. 



94 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

The yellow in northern and eastern Eurasia. The brown in south- 
eastern Asia, the East Indies, and Pacific Islands. The red race in 
the two Americas. The blacks were native to Africa and Australia 
and some of the Pacific islands. 

73. Agriculture is the most important. One-fourth of the world's 
peoples are engaged in this industry. It is found in every country 
in the world, excepting in the far north. The principal plant foods 
are wheat, corn, rice, rye, oats and barley; vegetables, fruits and 
nuts. Tea and coffee, cotton, flax and jute are additional important 
vegetable productions. 

Herding and cattle raising. The raising of cattle and other do- 
mestic animals are usually found wherever agaiculture is carried 
on. Cattle, horses, sheep, are raised in enornri'ous numbers and 
from them we get "several important animal products, like butter, 
milk, cheese, eggs ; the hair of the goat and sheep form the basis 
of materials for clothing. 

Fishing is carried on principally in shallow-water regions near 
the shores of the continents in the north temperate zone. The 
cod, salmon, mackerel, whitefish, bluefish, oysters, lobsters and clams 
form the largest part of the catches. The whale, seal, walrus, etc., 
are also objects of the catch. 

Lumbering industry produces the woods from the various trees 
for furniture, houses, etc. The sap of some trees, like the rubber 
tree is of great value economically. The barks and woods are val- 
uable for the drugs, chemicals, etc., that they yield. 

The mining industry yields the most useful, ornamental and valu- 
able metals and minerals. Coal, iron, petroleum,- copper, gold, silver, 
tin, lead, zinc and stones are the most important products, without 
which civilization would not have made such rapid strides. 

Manufacturing is carried on where the raw materials are pro- 
duced or can be quickly brought, and where the means of converting 
the raw material into the manufactured product are found. The 
chief regions of manufacture are in the temperate zones, the zones 
inhabited by the white man. 

74. (a) The purchasing, selling, trading and transporting of the 
raw and manufactured material from one place to another give rise 
to a large number of occupations and industries which come under 
the general name of commerce or business, (b) Such commerce 
as is carried on within the country itself, (c) That done with for- 
eign countries comes under the head of foreign (;omm^ce. 

75. The ships, steam and sailing, railroad, camel^ horseback, don- 
key and other beasts of burden, canals, man acting as a porter. 

76. Telegraphs, telephones, mail service, wireless telegraphy. 

77. Answers will vary. Make a list of the ai^icles and consult 
a standard geography and an encyclopedia. 

78. (a) A large number of people gathered at one place and un- 
der one government, (b) The difference between the town and the 
city is the size of the place and number of its population, the varied 
occupations and industries that are found in the latter, and not in 
the former. 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 95 

79. Upon its location, its means of transportation, its natural 
features, its nearness to the fields of raw material. 

NORTH AMERICA. 

80. See geography text-book. 

81. (a) In the northern and the western hemispheres. (&) Lati- 
tude 7° to 75° North; (c) longitude 50° to 160° West. 

82. North — Arctic Ocean; east — Atlantic Ocean, Gulf of Mexico; 
south and west — Pacific Ocean. 

83. (o) South America. (&) Isthmus of Panama. 

84. (a) Westgm; (&) Pacific coast; (c) Atlantic coast; (d) 
Arctic coast, becSse it is blocked by ice the larger part of the year. 

85. North — Hudson Bay ; east — Gulf of St. Lawrence, Bay of 
Fundy, New York Bay, Chesapeake Bay, Gulf of Mexico; west — 
Gulf of California, Strait of Juan de Fuca. 

86. (a) Melville Sound, Davis and Hudson Straits, (b) Strait 
of Belle Isle, Florida Strait, Yucatan Channel, Caribbean Sea, 
(c) Bering Sea; Bering Strait. 

87. North — Point Barrow, Cape Farewell (Greenland). East — 
Capes Race, Sable, Cod, Hatteras, Lookout ; Peninsulas of Labra- 
dor, Nova Scotia. Florida and Yucatan. West — Capes San Lucas, 
Mendocino, Flattery; Peninsulas of Lower California and Alaska. 

88. Eastern. 

89. Bahamas, BernAidas and West Indies. 

90. Greenland, Icerand, Newfoundland, Anticosti, Cuba, Hayti, Ja- 
maica and Porto ^co. 

91. (a) Newfoundland; (b) West Indies, including the Lesser 
Antilles. 

92. (a) Aleutian, Queen Charlotte, Vancouver, Santa Barbara. 
(&) Vancouver. 

93. Because of its regularity. 

94. (a) Western; (b) from northwest to southeast. 

95. Rocky Mountains. 

96. Cascade, Sierra Nevada and Sierra Madre Mountains. 

97. Labrador and in the eastern part of the United States, J]f0 
Appalachian System. _^iF 

98. Between the western and eastern highlands (central Rowland) 
and along the Atlantic and Pacific Coasts ; in the far North. 

9^ (o) Mackenzie, Saskatchewan and Nelson Rivers. (&) Yu- 
kon River. 

100. Great Bear, Great Slave, Athabasca, Winnipeg Lakes. 

101. (a) In the northeastern part of North America. (&) Gulf 
of St. Lawrence. 

102. Lakes Superior, Michigan, Huron, Erie and Ontario. 

103. Mississippi River rises in Lake Itasca in Minnesota, flows 
southeast and then south, emptying into the Gulf of Mexico. 

104. (a) Missouri, Arkansas and Red Rivers, (b) Ohio River. 

105. Rio Grande, Brazos, Alabama and Chattahoochee Rivers. 

106. Colorado, Columbia, Sacramento and Yukon Rivers. 



96 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

107. Eastward because of the slope of the land toward the At- 
lantic Ocean. 

108. There are many more rivers in the eastern part of the United 
States due to surface conditions. The rivers are shorter and swift- 
er, with rockier river beds and numerous falls, making them of vast 
importance on account of their waterpower. 

109. The northern part has long and severe winters, with very 
heavy snowfalls ; the summers are very short and mild. The mid- 
dle section has very cold winters and hot summers, with heavy 
snows in the winter season and moderate rainfall in the summer. 
The summers are very hot and the winters are exceedingly mild in 
the southern section. W^ 

110. Northernmost part — tundras and ice field^ central portion — 
prairies, grassy plains and dense forests ; southern portion — grassy 
lands. Forests extend along eastern and western coasts and south- 
ern half of Canada. Grassy lands in great central lowland. 

111. Along Arctic coasts fur-bearing animals, like the polar bear, 
seal, walrus, otter, mink and the reindeer and muskox are found. 
Farther south are found the brown and black bears, the lynx, wolf 
and beaver. In the Western Highlands the grizzly /bear, bighorn 
sheep, goat, panther and domestic animals can be dis^covered. The 
domestic animals — horses, cattle, hogs, sheep, chickens, numbering 
into the hundred thousands — are to be seen in the g^eat central 
lowland. The usual tropical animals, such as«the alligator, monkey, 
vampire bat, jaguar, brilliantly colored birds, <)oisonous snakes and 
insects find their habitation in the southern section. 

112. (a) White, red and black races. • 

(&) Esquimaux and Indians in the north, because the climate is 
too cold for the white man. White in the east and central part 
from which sections the Indians (red) have been driven westward. 
The black or negro races are to be seen in the southeast section 
because of the climate and their economic value. 

113. (a) Northeast, (b) Davis Strait. 

114. Dominion of Canada in the north; United States of America 
■-^ in the central part ; Mexico — south of the United States, and Cen- 

tt^l America (Belize, Guatemala, Honduras, Salvador, Nicaragua, 
Cos'fa Rica and Panama) in the southernmost part. 

115. (a) United States, (b) Salvador, (c) Canada, (d) Can- 
ada and Mexico, (e) Panama. # 

116. (a) Cuba, Hayti, Jamaica, Porto Rico. (b) Cuba. (c) 
Porto Rico. 

THE UNITED STATES. 

117. (a) Canada, (b) Mexico. 

* 118. (a) Canada and the Great Lakes and St. Lawrence River, 
(fc) Gulf of Mexico and Mexico, (c) Atlantic Ocean, (d) Pa- 
cific Ocean, (e) See text-book. 

119. (a) 2.900 miles. (b) 1,500 miles. (c) 3,567,000 square 
miles. 

120. (a) Two-fifths the size of North America (8,035,632 square 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 97 

miles), (b) As large as Europe (3,840,000 square miles), (c) 
Thirty times the size of Great Britain (121,367 square miles). 

(d) Eighteen times the size of Germany (210,232 square miles), 

(e) One and one-half times the size of Russia (2,113,000 square 
miles. 

121. See text-book on geography. 

122. See text-book on geography. 

123. See text-book on geography. 

124. In the north temperate zone, north latitudes, 25° to 49° ; 
west longitude, 65° to 125°. 

125. In summer most of the country is in the hot belt ; in winter 
within the cold belt. 

Northern part — temperate summers and severe, cold winters. 
Central part — hot summers and cold winters. 
Southern part — hot summers, temperate, mild winters. 
Pacific slope— always temperate. 

126. The open nature of the country allowing the warm breezes 
from the Gulf, the hot winds from the v/est make this section hotter 
in summer than the coastal sections, which receive the cooling 
breezes from the sea. In the winter season, the cold winds from 
the north, west and south sweep over this country without hin- 
drance, while the severity of the winds on the coasts is tempered by 
the breezes from the oceans. •' 

127. The winds coming from the Pacific Ocean give up their 
moisture, which falls in the form of rain in the Pacific coast states ; 
so that when they pass over the Cascade and Sierra Nevada Moun- 
tains they are merely warm dry winds. 

128. See answer to 127. 

129. Western parts — in the Rocky Mountain region. 

130. Greatest amount of rainfall — Pacific Coast, along coast of 
Gulf of Mexico, and southern end of Appalachian highlands. 

Moderate rainfall — entire eastern half of the United States. 
Least rainfall — between 100° west longitude and the Cascade and 
Sierra Nevada Mountains. 

131. The most sparsely populated sections of the United States 
are where the rainfall is least ; where the rainfall is moderate we 
have the greatest population. A moderate population is found in 
regions of greatest rainfall. 

132. In the west along the Pacific coast — where the Coast Range, 
Cascade and Sierra Nevada Mountains are ; in the East, along the 
Appalachian Highlands ; and along the eastern slope of the Rocky 
Mountains. 

133. In Utah and Nevada. Only warm dry winds blow over that 
region. 

IM. Rivers are the original and natural means of transportation. 
Roaofe have been built where the land is near sea level. Railroads 
have laid their tracks on low, level land or in the mountain passes, 
hence the large network of railroads in the eastern and central parts 
of the country ; the few railroad lines in the west and their round- 



98 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

about way of reaching the Pacific coast show the mountainous na- 
ture of the western states. 

135. As a very cheap and efficient route of transportation of 
grains and other commodities from the western states to the East 
and to Europe. 

136. The Mississippi River together with the Missouri River 
(4,195 miles) is the world's longest river. It is unobstructed by 
falls or rapids for a great distance from its mouth and thus forms 
a most important commercial transportation system. With its four 
principal tributaries it drains almost seven thousand miles of land. 
Destructive floods result at times from the overflowing of its banks 
in its lower courses, caused by the melting of the snows and heavy 
spring rains around the headwaters of its branches. 

Some of the most important commercial cities in our country are 
located along the rivers of this system. 

137. In the east numerous comparatively small rivers, affording 
extensive water power and generally navigable for short distances. 

The rivers in the western part are principally long, tortuous and 
winding, uncertain in volume, not navigable. Many form shallow 
lakes, many of which are salt because of the rapid evaporation of 
their waters, or are lost in the sand. In the spring they are raging 
torrents ; in the summer their muddy bottoms are visible. 

138. (•%) Indiana, Ohio, Illinois, Wisconsin, Minnesota, Iowa and 
Michigan, (b) Texas, Kansas, Nebraska, North and South Dakota. 
(c) Montana, Wyoming, Colorado, New Mexico, Arizona, Utah 
and Idaho. 

139. Corn — in every state east of the Missouri River and Miss- 
issippi River, excepting Florida, Vermont and Maine. Wheat prin- 
cipally in Kansas, the Dakotas, Minnesota, Nebraska, Indiana, Iowa, 
Illinois and Missouri. Cotton in the South, principally in Texas, 
Georgia, Alabama, Mississippi, North and South Carolina. Tobacco 
in Kentucky, Ohio, Wisconsin, North Carolina, Virginia, Pennsyl- 
vania and Kentucky. Hay in New York, Iowa, Ohio, Pennsylvania, 
Wisconsin and Indiana. Sugar beets — California, Michigan. Fruits 
of all kinds, as the apple, pear, orange, plum, etc., in almost all the 
states, but particularly in the eastern states and along the Pacific 
Coast. Vegetables in every state in the union. 

140. The White Mountains in Maine and New Hampshire, the 
Green Mountains in Vermont, the Adirondacks in New York, the 
Blue in Pennsylvania, the Alleghany Mountains in Pennsylvania, 
Maryland and West Virginia, the Blue Ridge and the Cumberland 
in Virginia, the Carolinas and Tennessee. 

141. The Bitter Root in Washington, the Wind River Mountains 
in Wyoming, the Wasatch in Utah and the Sierra Madre in New 
Mexico and Arizona. 

142. (a) The Cascade Mountains, the Sierra Nevada an^ the 
Coast Range. (&) Mounts Whitney and Shasta in California and 
Mt. Rainier in Washington. 

143. Cattle, horses, swine, sheep and poultry. 

144. Coal, iron, petroleum, gas, zinc, aluminum, lead, copper, sil- 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 99 

ver, gold, salt, stone for building (granite, sandstone, slate, marble 
and limestone). 

145. The products of the fishing industry are more valuable than 
those of any other nation, our country catching one-fifth of the 
world's catch. The Atlantic coast leads in the catching of lobsters, 
cod, halibut, mackerel, oysters and shad. The Gulf yields oysters 
and sponges, while the northwest coast produces the salmon. Large 
quantities of halibut, cod and salmon are caught in Alaska, which 
is the center of the seal fisheries. 

146. (a) The North Atlantic and South Atlantic States, (b) The 
prairie and plain states and the Gulf states, (c) The eastern and 
the Pacific coast states. 

147. Iron and steel, meat products, petroleum products, products 
of grains and cereals, lumber, cotton, silk and woolen goods. 

148. Montana, Pennsylvania, Arizona and Alaska. 

149. Maryland. 

150. The New York Central and Hudson River System, the Penn- 
sylvania, the Union Pacific, the Northern Pacific and Great North- 
ern Railway Systems. 

151. Chicago, New York, St. Louis, San Francisco and Portland, 
Oregon. 

152. Two hundred thousand miles of track. 

153. (a) Chicago & Northwestern, Chicago Great Western, 
Chicago, Burlington & Quincy, Lake Shore & Michigan Southern 
and the Pennsylvania Railroads. (&) New York Central & Hudson 
River ; New York, New Haven & Hartford ; Delaware, Lackawanna 
& Western; Erie and the New Jersey Central Railroads, (c) Mis- 
souri Pacific and Southern Pacific Railroads, (d) Union Pacific 
Railroad. 

154. Chicago, Duluth, Buffalo, Cleveland, Detroit, Milwaukee and 
Toledo. 

155. (a) New York, Boston, Philadelphia, Newport News, Balti- 
more and Savannah, (b) Galveston and New Orleans, (c) San 
Francisco, Seattle, Portland, Oregon, and Tacoma. 

156. (a) The American, Cunard and Hamburg-American Lines ; 
(b) the American and Red Star Steamship Lines; (c) the Ori 
ental. Oceanic and Alaska Steamship Lines, (d) Great Britain (all 
divisions), Germany, France, Holland, Italy, Austria, Russia, Japan, 
China, and some of the South American States. 

157. London, Liverpool, Southampton, Cherbourg, Havre (Paris), 
Hamburg, Bremen, Antwerp, Rotterdam, Yokohama, Nagasaki, Hong 
Kong, Shanghai, Honolulu, Sitka. 

158. (a) New Orleans; (b) Boston. 

159. The Morgan, Clyde, Mallory, United Fruit Company, Old 
Dominion on the Atlantic and Gulf Coasts and the Pacific Coast 
Steamship Company on the west coast. 

160. Grains, meats and provisions, manufactured iron and steel 
goods, cotton and woolen manufactures, dairy products, lumber and 
articles of wood, tobacco, leather goods. 



100 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

161. Coffee, chemicals, manufactured cotton, manufactured fibre, 
hides and skins, India rubber, silk, sugar, wood and wood manu- 
factures, tin. 

THE STATES ARE DIVIDED INTO THE FOLLOWING GROUPS BY 
NATIONAL BUREAU OF EDUCATION. 



162. (a) 
Maine, 

New Hampshire, 
Vermont, 

(b) 
Delaware, 
Maryland, 
District of Columbia, 

(O 

Kentucky, 
Tennessee, 
Alabama, 

(d) 
Ohio, 
Indiana, 
Illinois, 
Michigan, 

(e) 
Montana, 
Wyoming, 
Colorado, 
New Mexico, 

Hawaii. 



Massachusetts, 
Rhode Island, 
Connecticut, 

Virginia, 
West Virginia, 
North Carolina, 

Mississippi, 

Louisiana, 

Texas, 

Wisconsin, 
Minnesota, 
Iowa, 
Missouri, 

Arizona, 
Utah, 
Nevada, 
Idaho, 

Alaska, 



New York, 
New Jersey, 
Pennsylvania. 

South Carolina, 

Georgia, 

Florida. 

Arkansas, 
Oklahoma. 



North Dakota, 
South Dakota, 
Nebraska, 
Kansas. 

Washington, 

Oregon, 

California. 



COAST STATES ARE- 



163. (o) 

Maine, 

New Hampshire, 

Massachusetts, 

Rhode Island, 

Connecticut, 
(b) 

Washington, 
(c) 

Florida, 

Alabama, 
(d) 

New York, Lakes Ei-ie and On- 
tario. 

Pennsylvania, Lake Erie. 

Ohio, Lake Erie. 



New York, 
New Jersey, 
Delaware, 
Maryland, 
Virginia, 

Oregon, 

Mississippi, 
Louisiana, 



North Carolina, 
South Carolina, 
Georgia, 
Florida. 



California. 



Texas. 



Indiana, Lake Michigan. 
Illinois, Lake Michigan. 
Wisconsin, Lakes Michigan and 
Superior. 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 



105 



Michigan, Lakes Superior, Hur 

on and Michigan. 

(e) 
Maine, 

New Hampshire, 
Vermont, 



Minnesota, Lake Superior. 



(/) 
Texas, 
California. 

164. (a) 
Minnesota, 
Wisconsin, 
Illinois, 

(b) 
Minnesota, 
Iowa, 



New York, 
Minnesota, 
North Dakota, 



New Mexico, 



Kentucky, 
Tennessee, 
Mississippi, 

Missouri, 
Arkansas, 



Montana, 

Idaho, 

Washington. 

Arizona, 



Louisiana. 



Louisiana. 



165-173. Answers will vary according to the states selected. See 
text-book and questions 117 to 200. 

174. See text-book on geography. An important answer. 

175. New York is the metropolis of the United States. It passes 
through its port more than one-half of the imports into the country, 
and ranks first in its manufactures and exports. Boston is the 
largest exporting center for shoes and leather goods. Chicago is 
the largest railroad center in the United States, and of the meat 
packing industry in the world. St. Louis is the most important 
city in the central part of the United States. San Francisco is the 
leading seaport on the Pacific Coast. 

176. Due to the erosive action of and the deposit of fertile soil 
by the glaciers that once covered the whole of the northern part of 
the continent. 

177. New Orleans is the leading seaport on the Gulf of Mexico, 
at the mouth of the Mississippi River; St. Louis's importance is 
due to its location at the junction of the Missouri and Mississippi 
Rivers ; St. Paul and Minneapolis as the leading milling cities due 
to their location on the river and in the central part of the wheat- 
raising district. 

178. (a) Colorado River; (b) Savannah River; (c) Delaware 
River. 

179. (a) Northeastern part of the United States and south of 
Connecticut; (5) east of North Carolina; (c) south of Rhode 
Island* 

180. Pittsburgh, St. Louis, Omaha, Sacramento. 

181. Th'e-nearness to the centers of fuel and power and the re- 
sulting cheapness in power (water power and steam), the proximity 
to the raw material and the ease with which raw material from 
other sections can be transported to it ; the nearness to Europe and 
other centers of consumption. 

182. The canal route is much cheaper than the railroad and was 
at one time the most important route for the carrying of freight. 



j^ 



106 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Many large, important commercial centers have been built up as a 
result of it. The railroads that have been built near canals, par- 
ticularly in the Eastern states, have usually followed the routes of 
these canals, because of their grade, and have thus depreciated the 
value of the canal. There is at present a movement to utilize the 
waters of the Mississippi and its branches in a system of canals 
that would furnish cheap transportation from the South to the 
North. 

183. (a) North and South Dakota and Minnesota, (b) Texas 
and Georgia, (c) The Carolinas and Louisiana, (d) California. 

184. Lake Superior, Sault Ste. Marie Canal and River, Lake Hu- 
ron, St. Clair River and Lake, Detroit River, Lake Erie, Erie Canal, 
Hudson River, New York Bay. 

185. In those sections of the country where irrigation has been 
used the arid region has been converted into the most productive 
regions of agricultural products. Cotton and many tropical fruits 
and plants have been raised in the western sections of our country 
because of it. The United States has been spending several mil- 
lions of dollars annually in building reservoirs and ditches to aid 
the irrigation farmers throughout the dry West. 

186. The New York Central & Hudson River Railroad, the Dela- 
ware, Lackawanna & Western and the Lehigh Vallej' Railroad. 

187. Its enormous wealth, its manufactures and its containing the 
financial center of the western hemisphere. 

188. (a) Massachusetts; (b) New Jersey; (c) Minnesota; (d) 
Ohio; (e) Indiana. 

189. Washington, Idaho, Montana, North Dakota and Minnesota. 

190. (a) 900 miles; (b) 3,250 miles. 

191. (a) The time used by railroads and generally followed 
throughout the United States. The railroads have divided the 
United States into five sections, the middle of each section being a 
meridian of longitude, the time in that section to be the time on the 
selected meridian. The entire Atlantic coast division uses Eastern 
time, based on the 75th meridian ; the Mississippi Valley section 
basing its time on the meridian of 90 degrees, known as Central 
time, and the section of the Rocky Mountains, time based on the 
105th meridian, time known as Mountain time, and the Pacific Coast 
section using the 120th meridian, its time being known as Pacific 
time. Travelers going west in the United States set their watches 
back one hour when passing from one belt into the other, and those 
going east set them forward, (b) Answers will vary. 

192. (a) In New York State; (b) Illinois; (c) Colorado; (d) 
Kentucky. 

193. (a) The Grand Canyon of the Colorado River is in Arizona; 
(&) California; (c) Wyoming; (d) Utah. 

194. New York, Pennsylvania, Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and Mis- 
souri. 

195. Alaska, Hawaiian Islands, Philippines, Porto Rico, Guam, 
Wake, Marcus, Howland, Baker and Samoan Islands. 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 107 

196. (a) Northwestern part of North America; (&) 56 to 72 
degrees north latitude; (c) north temperate and north frigid zones. 

197. It has a moist and somewhat equable climate along its coast, 
with a very heavy rainfall. This is due to the fact that it lies in 
the path of the westerly winds. The climate of the interior is 
marked by contrasts between the summer and winter seasons, the 
former being short and warm and the latter very long and cold. 

198. (a) Rocky Mountains; (b) Yukon River; (c) Bristol Bay, 
Norton Sound, Bering Sea and Strait, Pacific and Arctic Oceans; 
(d) Point Barrow; (e) Aleutian Islands. 

199. Mineral products and fisheries. Gold, coal, copper and iron. 
Salmon and sealskins. 

200. (a) Juneau. (&) Sitka, (c) Juneau, and Skagway. 

OTHER COUNTRIES OF NORTH AMERICA. 

201. (a) The Dominion of Canada. 

(b) Parallel of 49 degrees, north latitude. 

202. (a) In the north temperate and frigid zones; (b) due west; 
(c) Atlantic Ocean on the east, Arctic Ocean on the north and the 
Pacific Ocean to the west. 

203. Slightly larger than the United States and about thirty times 
as large as the United Kingdom. 

204. The coast line is very irregular and much broken up. But 
its importance commercially is greatly lessened because of the rigor 
of its fall and winter seasons, and the blocking of the harbors by 
ice. 

205. Bay of Fundy, Gulf of St. Lawrence, Hudson Strait, Hudson 
Bay, James Bay, on the east and north coasts, and Strait of Juan 
de Fuca on the west coast. 

206. Northeast of Canada, and separated by Davis Strait and 
Baffin Bay. 

207. Has an extensive highland in the west, similar to that in the 
United States ; and a low plateau in the east, and between them a 
broad central lowland. This lowland slopes toward the north, the 
Hudson Bay and the Arctic Ocean. 

208. The St. Lawrence, Albany, Nelson, Saskatchewan, Atha- 
basca and Mackenzie Rivers, and the Yukon. 

209. (a) East of the peninsula of Labrador; (&) north of Nova 
Scotia; (c) north of Canada; (d) in the Gulf of St. Lawrence. 

210. Great Bear, Great Slave, Winepagosis, Winnipeg and Atha- 
basca Lakes. 

211. Pine and other building lumber; wheat and the hardier 
plants of the temperate regions, fruits and vegetables. 

212. Gold, silver and copper are mined chiefly in the western part ; 
coal in both the east and the west; nickel, petroleum, iron ore, as- 
bestos and lead are also found throughout the country. 

213. The north coast is so cold that scarcely any vegetation is 
found there. South of that, the climate is much milder, and there 



108 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

is found a broad belt of principally evergreens. In southern Canada 
the winters are long and extremely cold, and the summers short 
and mild. 

214. The population is one-fifteenth that of the United States. A 
large amount of the immigrants into Canada are now coming from 
the United States. The small population is largely due to the se- 
vere climatic conditions. 

215. The Canadians, the Canadian-French, the French, Scotch and 
Irish and American immigrants, with a large number of Japanese 
on the west coast. 

216. (a) Quebec, Quebec; (b) New Brunswick, Frederickstown ; 
(c) Ontario, Toronto; (d) Manitoba, Winnipeg; (e) Saskatche- 
wan, Regina ; (/) Alberta, Edmonton; (g) British Columbia, Vic- 
toria; (h) Prince Edward Isle, Charlottetown ; (i) Nova Scotia, 
Halifax. 

217. Ottawa. 

218. St. John, New Brunswick, a large seaport; Toronto, an im- 
portant commercial center. Ottawa is the chief lumber center in 
the east ; Winnipeg is the largest city west of Toronto ; Calgary 
and Edmonton are stock-raising and mining centers ; Vancouver is 
the chief commercial city and seaport on the Pacific coast. 

219. Steel manufactures, coal and woolens. 

220. Timber, cheese and wheat. 

221. Great Britain and the United States. 

222. Lumbering, mining, railroading, hunting and trapping, dairy- 
ing, stock-raising, fishing and agriculture. 

223. See geography. 

224. The Grand Trunk Railway and the Canadian Pacific. The 
cities mentioned in the previous answers. 

225. The cold autumns and winter seasons, the blocking of the 
gulf by ice, even in the early summer, the freezing of the river dur- 
ing winter, the shallowness of the stream, the large number of 
rapids in its course and the narrowness of its channel. 

226. Ontario, Manitoba, Saskatchewan, Alberta and British Co- 
lumbia. 

227. Ships are able to pass from Lake Erie into Lake Ontario. 

228. (a) Its mineral wealth; (b) its stock-raising and wheat 
growing; (c) coal. 

229. To Newfoundland, the capital of which is St. John's. 

230. Between New Brunswick and Nova Scotia. On account of 
its tidal bore, and the almost continuous fogs in the region. 

231. Nearly the whole of Greenland is covered by a glacier; very 
little vegetation, except mosses and lichens ; the most important of 
the few wild animals are the musk ox, the reindeer, polar bear and 
arctic fox ; the seal, walrus, fish and whales are the aquatic ani- 
mals; vast numbers of eider ducks and aquatic birds. The popula- 
tion consists very largely of Esquimaux and a few white people 
from Denmark, to which country it belongs. 

232. Upernivik and Godthaab. 

233. The island is covered by mountains and volcanoes, and con- 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 109 

tains a large number of geysers. Earthquakes are frequent. Grass 
and vegetables are found in large quantity. The climate is^ cold, 
though tempered by the warmer ocean winds. Cattle, sheep and 
horse raising and fishing constitute the principal industries of the 
people, who are intelligent and thrifty, and make th 'ir own laws, 
though ruled by a governor sent by Denmark to which country tue 
island also belongs. 

234. (a) Reikjavik. (b) Denmark. 

235. The Rio Grande River. 

236. (a) Gulf of Mexico; (b) Gulf of California and the Pacific 
Ocean. 

237. (a) Most of Mexico is a continuation of the Rocky Moun- 
tain Plateau, bounded by high mountains on either side, and low- 
land along the coast. (&) The Rocky Mountains and the Sierra 
Madre. 

238. There is little difiference between the temperatures in sum- 
mer and winter. But there is a great difiference in temperature of 
places at different elevations. The lowlands are always hot ; the 
plateau temperate and the highland cool, the highest mountains al- 
ways being covered with snow. The seasons are wet and dry sea- 
sons, most of the rain falling during the summer months. The 
northern or higher portion has very little rain. 

239. In the lowlands mahogany, rosewood, logwood, and vanilla 
grow in dense forests ; cotton, rice, tobacco and sugar cane, trop- 
ical fruits, hemp. Coffee, on the lower mountain slopes, and oak, 
pine and temperate trees are found. In the plateau region grains 
and beans form the principal crops. Cattle and sheep as well as 
horses are raised in the plateau region. 

240. Copper, gold, lead, silver, " Mexican onyx," are the most 
important minerals. 

241. Agriculture, cattle and sheep raising, manufacturing are the 
principal industries. 

242. (a) By means of the saddle horse and mule, and rail, (b) 
Mexican Central Railroad. 

243. The population is a mixed one, comprising the whites or the 
descendants of the original Spanish, numbering about one-fifth, 
those of mixed Indian and Spanish blood about half, and the rest 
pure Indians, besides a large number of Americans interested in 
the exploitation of the country. 

244. Hardware, textiles and coal from Great Britain and the 
United States. 

245. The principal exports are metals, hemp (hennequin), lum- 
ber and animals. 

246. Similar to that of the United States, a republic in form, with 
twenty-two states, two territories and a federal district. The exec- 
utive is the President. Each state has a governor at its head. 

247. (a) Mexico City, (b) Vera Cruz and Tampico on the At- 
lantic coast and Guaymas and Acapulco on the Pacific. 

248. Guadalajara and Puebla are important interior railroad cen- 
ters ; Manzanillo and San Luis Potosi. 



110 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

249. The climate has an enervating effect upon the people, who 
are not the thrifty, industrious people found in the temperate re- 
gions ; the lack of money to develop the country ; the lack of rail- 
road and other facilities; and the government itself containing a 
number of persons who have opposed the exploitation ot its wealth 
by foreigners. 

250. Belize, Honduras, Guatemala, Salvador, Nicaragua, Costa 
Rica and Panama. 

251. A continuation of the rocky surface in Mexico and the west- 
ern part of the United States. 

252. Very warm and tropical, with a wet and a dry season. 

253. Is almost entirely covered with forests and grass lands in 
the interior. 

254. The tropical products like coffee, logwood, mahogany, ba- 
nanas, rubber, beans, dye woods and cacao beans are the chief agri- 
cultural products, while gold, silver and copper are the chief min- 
erals. 

255. Coffee, timber, hides, cacao, tobacco. 

256. Great Britain, the United States and Germany. 

257. Agriculture, mining and cattle raising. 

258. See geography or text-book. 

259. Lake Nicaragua, because of its great length in comparison 
with the width of the peninsula, it would be valuable in the build- 
ing of a canal. 

260. Belize and Honduras. 

261. Belize, Belize; Guatemala, New Guatemala; Honduras, Tegu- 
cigalpa ; Salvador, San Salvador ; Nicaragua, Managua ; Costa 
Rica, San Jose; Panama, Panama. 

262. The United States is building a canal across the Panama 
Isthmus, the country of Panama, thus shortening the distance by 
water between the Atlantic and Pacific coasts. 

263. Colon and Panama. 

264. Southeast of the United States, between 10 and 26 degrees 
north latitude. 

265. Between the Atlantic Ocean and the Gulf of Mexico and 
the Caribbean Sea. 

266. Cuba, Haiti, free; Porto Rico to the United States; the Ba- 
hamas, Jamaica, and Trinidad to Great Britain ; Guadeloupe and 
Martinique to France ; Curacoa to the Netherlands. 

2(i7 . Tropical, with the heat tempered by the trade winds. Rainy 
season during our summer months and dry during winter. 

268. Luxuriant tropical growth. Forests of tropical trees, ma- 
hogany, logwood, rosewood, and other cabinet woods, bananas, cof- 
fee, tobacco, sugar cane, spices, cacao beans. 

269. Asphalt from Trinidad ; coal, iron and copper mines in Cuba. 

270. (o) The smaller islands off the northern coast of South 
America and extending to Porto Rico; (&) Cuba, Haiti, Porto 
Rico and Jamaica. 

271. The population is dense, and is of the Spanish and negro 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. Ill 

descent. A few natives of other European nations are found on the 
islands. 

272. (a) The Bahamas, Nassau; Cuba, Havana; Haiti, Port au 
Prince ; Santo Domingo, Santo Domingo ; Jamaica, Kingston ; 
Porto Rico, San Juan; (b) Cuba, Havana and Santiago; Haiti, 
Cape Haiten and Santo Domingo ; Porto Rico, Ponce and San Juan ; 
Jamaica, Kingston. 

273. (fl) East of the CaroHnas ; (b) Great Britain; (r) vege- 
tables. 

SOUTH AMERICA. 

274. (a) In the western and southern hemispheres; (&) south of 
North America and southwest of Europe, (c) On the north is the 
Caribbean Sea, on the east the Atlantic Ocean and on the west is 
the Pacific Ocean. 

275. (a) From 10 degrees north latitude to 55 degrees south 
latitude. (&) From 35 to 80 degrees west longitude; (c) 4,000 
miles; (d) 3,000 miles; (e) about 7,000,000 square miles; (f) tri- 
angle with the broad base at the north. 

276. Torrid, and South Temperate Zones. 

277. The coast line is much more regular than the shore line of 
North America, resulting in very few good harbors. 

278. Point Gallinas on the north. Cape St. Roque on the east. 
Cape Horn at the southern extremity and Cape Parina on the west. 

279. Some of the Lesser Antilles, including Trinidad, Curacoa, 
off the northern coast, a few very small and unimportant islands off 
the east coast at a great distance, the Falkland Islands and Terra 
del Fuego at its southern extremity and Juan Fernandez and the 
Galapagos Islands off the west coast. 

280. Along the western coast. 

281. There are three distinct highlands in South America, the 
highest being the Andes Highland, parallel with the western coast. 
These highlands contain some of the highest mountains in the west- 
ern hemisphere. Separated by the Orinoco Valley from this High- 
land is the Highland of Guiana. The Brazilian Highland is lo- 
cated in the extreme eastern portion, and has an average elevation 
of 3,000 feet. In the middles and between the highlands we have 
long, extensive valleys of great fertility, the Valley of the Amazon, 
the Valley of the Orinoco and the Valley of the Parana- Paraguay 
Rivers. 

282. Only the two smallest states, Uruguay and Paraguay. 

283. Of the Rocky Mountain system. 

284. Plateau of Bolivia in the central west part; the Guiana Pla- 
teau in the extreme north ; the Brazilian Pleateau in the east. 

285. The regions of greatest rainfall in South America are the 
extreme southwestei-n part near Cape Horn, the northwestern part, 
near the Isthmus of Panama, the extreme northeast, and the central 
part in the Amazon Valley and the extreme eastern part, along the 
coast. In the first region named the rainfall is due to the prevailing 
westerlies. In the other regions it is because of the shifting of the 



112 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

trade winds, blowing across tlie ocean toward the ocean and giving 
off their moisture when they strike the cold plateau regions. 

286. The winds in the dry regions reach the western part only 
after they have given up their moisture along the eastern part of 
the Andes Highlands. Therefore only dry winds blow across this 
western region. What winds blov>? in this region? See 22. 

287. Most of the lowlands and valleys are always hot during both 
summer and winter. The temperatures are about the same. It is 
only in the changes in elevation that we find a difference in temper- 
ature. In the extreme south the winters are stormy, chilly and very 
disagreeable. The plateau regions are always cool, and the higher 
regions are very cold the greater part of the year. In the central 
valley in Argentine and Brazil the winters are cool, but not cold, 
and the summers extremely hot. 

288. (a) Wet and dry. ih) To the shifting of the winds in the 
equatorial regions. See 287 for the variation in temperatures. 

289. The western coast being mountain bound, the land slopes 
toward the east, resulting in the drainage being in that direction, 
and southward between the Andes and Brazilian Highlands. 

290. The Amazon in the central part ; the Orinoco in the north ; 
the Parana and Paraguay in the central part and the Sao Fran- 
cisco in the eastern part of Brazil. 

291. The vegetation is rich and luxuriant, the northern part being 
covered with dense tropical forests of mahogany, logwood and other 
dyewood trees. The plains in the north are covered with a dense 
growth of grass during certain seasons, and the southern plains 
are the regions of some of the best grain land in the world. The 
principal agricultural products are coffee, tropical fruits, 
grains, rubber, cacao, lumber and dyewoods, cinchona. See 55, 57 
and 67. 

292. The selvas are located in the equatorial region of South 
America along the Amazon River. They are very dense and heavy 
forests. 

293. In the east we have the treeless savannas and the campos. 

294. The pampas or plains are found in the Parana Valley. The 
llanos in the valley of the Orinoco, covered with grasses during the 
rainy season and desertlike during the dry season. See 57. 

295. The animals found in the selvas are those accustomed to 
living in the trees or on the trees, in the swampy region grounds, 
brightly colored tropical animals and the smallest and most annoy- 
ing animals. The monkeys, the boa constrictor, jaguar, ant eater, 
parrots, manatee, alligator. The llama, alpaca, deer, bears, rhea and 
others are also found there. 

296. (a) The llama, vicuna and chinchilla and alpaca. (&) The 
llama, the cattle, horse, donkey, (c) Cattle, alligator, goat, alpaca, 
vicuna and chinchilla. 

297. (a) The Indians, Spaniards, Portuguese, French, Dutch, 
British, and more recently large numbers of Germans, Italian and 
Japanese immigrants. (&) The Indian tongue, Spanish, Portuguese, 
French, English, Dutch, German and other immigrant languages. 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 113 

(c) Principally republic, but with numerous civil wars interrupting 
the peaceful course of government. 

298. Herding, cattle-raising, mining and agriculture. 

299. (a) Hides and the wool from the animals; (&) gold, silver, 
iron, copper, nitrate of soda, tin; (c) coffee, cacao beans, rubber, 
sugar cane, tobacco, tapioca, grains, beans, wheat, corn, barley, flax- 
seed, cinchona. 

200. The beasts of burden in the mountainous regions, though 
railroads are constantly being constructed across the Andes Moun- 
tains ; and river transportation. 

301. Great Britain, Germany, France, the United States and Hol- 
land. 

302. (a) Coffee, rubber, hides, cacao, minerals, and particularly 
the nitrate of soda, cattle on the hoof, wool, grains and lumber, the 
latter few going mostly to European countries. (&) Machinery and 
other iron products, cotton goods, flour and manufactured goods 
of all kinds. 

303. (o) Brazil, (&) Uruguay, (c) Argentina. 

304. Brazil is larger than the United States, without Alaska. It 
contains more than 3,000,000 square miles, being more than half of 
the continent. 

305. On the north it is bounded by the three Guianas, Venezuela, 
on the west by Colombia, Peru, Bolivia and Paraguay and by Uru- 
guay on the south. 

306. (o) Rio de Janeiro; (&) same; (c) Rio de Janeiro, Bahia, 
Pernambuco, Para. 

307. Rubber, coffee, dyewoods, tobacco and cacao. 

308. Portuguese, Germans, Italians and native Indians. 

309. (o) In the southern part of South America, (b) Chile to 
the west and Uruguay and Paraguay to the north. 

310. Her location in the temperate zone ; the greater proportion 
of her population from Europe being of industrious, thriving kind ; 
the vast area of plain land under cultivation with grains ; the im- 
mense herds of sheep and cattle ; the progressive nature of her popu- 
lation. It has more railroads than any other South American 
country. 

311. Herding, cattle and sheep raising, agriculture, and some lit- 
tle manufacturing. 

312. Wool, producing more than any other country in the world; 
meats, wheat and corn, flaxseed, wood^ for tanning hides. 

313. (a) Buenos Aires, (b) same; (c) Rosario, La Plata, Cor- 
dova. 

314. (a) Between Brazil and Argentina; (&) between Bolivia, 
Argentina and Brazil. 

315. Montevideo is the capital of Uruguay and Asunsion of Para- 
guay. Same cities. 

316. Next to Argentina it is the most progressive among the 
South American countries, for reasons similar to those in the case 
of Argentina. 

317. On the western coast. It is very long, more than half of 



114 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

the length of the continent, and very narrow, between the Andes 
Mountains and the Pacific Ocean. 

318. (a) Nitrate of soda, or saltpeter. (&) Coal, gold, copper. 

319. (a) In the northwestern part of Chile. (&) See 285-286. 

320. (a) Santiago, (b) Valparaiso. 

321. (a) In the central part between Brazil, Paraguay, Chile and 
Peru, (b) In the west central part between Ecuador, Brazil, Bo- 
livia and Chile and the Pacific Ocean, (c) Between Colombia, 
Peru, Brazil and the Pacific Ocean. 

322. (a) Sucre, Bolivia; Lima, Peru; Quito, ^cuador. (b) La 
Paz, Lima and Guayaquil, (c) Cochamba and Potosi; Arequipa 
and Callao; none. 

323. Its location is on a plateau and it has no coast line. 

324. Between Bolivia and Peru. 

325. Silver and tin, copper, mineral oil and guano, are the chief 
mineral products. Grains, fruits, vegetables, cinchona, cacao beans, 
rubber, sugar, cotton, are the principal vegetable products. The 
same animals raised by other countries, the domesticated variety 
are found in these countries. 

326. Because of the backward state of the people, the frequent 
revolutions and the consequent disorders, the lack of railroads to 
convey the ore to smelters, and to the seaport coast, and the lack 
of modern machinery and capital for development. 

327. All three states are in the northern part of South America. 

328. To Great Britain, France and Holland respectively. 

329. (o) Colombia, Bogota ; Venezuela, Caracas ; British Guiana, 
Georgetown; French Guiana, Cayenne; Dutch Guiana, Paramaribo. 
(&) Same cities. 

330. (a) Off the southern extremity of the continent, (b) They 
guard the entrance through the Strait of Magellan. 

331. See text-book. ■' 

332. (a) Along the western and the northeastern coasts; (b) in 
the central part of the continent; (c) Argentina. The llanos; 
various products in the different states. 

333. (a) Argentina; (b) Peru; (c) Argentina; (d) Brazil. 

334. (a) Maracaibo, Curacoa on the north coast ; Pernambuco, 
Bahia, Rio de Janeiro, Buenos Aires and La Plata on the east 
coast; Valparaiso, Callao and Guayaquil on the west coast, (b) The 
Sloman Line. 

EUROPE. 

335. Europe and Asia. 

336. (a) In the northern and eastern hemispheres; (b) west of 
Asia, northwest of north of Africa and east of North America. 

337. Mediterranean Sea, Adriatic Sea, Aegean Sea, the Dardan- 
elles and the Bosporus, the Sea of Marmora, the Black Sea on the 
south, the Ural River on the west, the Arctic Ocean on the north, 
the Atlantic Ocean, North Sea, Bay of Biscay on the west. 

338. (a) Between 30 and 70 degrees north latitude. (b) Be- 
tween 10 west and 60 east longitude, (c) Very irregular; (d) 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 115 

slightly larger than the United States and sixty times as large as 
New York State. 

339. In the North Temperate Zone. 

340. It has the longest coast line of any continent, affording some 
of the finest harbors in the world, making water transportation 
from one country to another very easy. 

341. The western half of Europe is broken up by several moun- 
tain ranges running north and south and others from east to west. 
The eastern part is a vast plain, bounded on the west by the Ural 
Mountains. The northwestern part is also a flat, level surface, a 
continuation of the eastern plain. The mountains do not form one 
continuous chain as in the western hemisphere. 

342. The Kiolen in the Scandinavian Peninsula, the Alps in 
Switzerland, Apennines in Italy, the Pyrenees between Spain and 
France, the Carpathians and the Balkans in the southeastern part, 
the Caucasus between the Caspian and Black Seas, the Ural Moun- 
tains between Russia and Siberia. 

343. It shuts out the cold winds from the north and gives it an 
extremely mild climate. 

344. The climate of the western part has very little change in 
temperature between the seasons. There is a moderate amount of 
rainfall. The^astern plain region has a warm summer and an ex- 
tremely cold winter. The northern section has a mild summer and 
a very cold winter, while the southern region has a mild and equ- 
able climate throughout the year. 

345. There are no barriers to shut out the cold, bleak, arctic 
winds from the north as they go sweeping southward. 

346. Due to the fact that the warm Gulf Stream from the Gulf 
of Mexico washes the west coast of Europe, while the eastern coast 
of North Am erica is washed by the cold Labrador current. 

347. (ajmThe Thames and the Mersey in England, the Volga and 
Dnieper Rivers in Russia, the Rhine and the Elbe in Germany, the 
Seine and the Rhone in France, the Po in Italy, the Danube in Aus- 
tria-Hungary, the Guadalquivir in Spain. 

(&) They drain the regions through which they flow, and more 
important still, they serve as the means of communication through- 
out and between the different countries. 

348. The winds are robbed of their moisture by the Ural Moun- 
tains, so that when they reach the plains they are almost dry. 

349. See 337. 

350. The Peninsulas — Balkan, Grecian, Italian, Spanish, on the 
southern coast ; the Scandinavian on the northwestern coast. 

351. Because of their position in the extreme north, where the 
summers are short and the winters long and very cold, causing the 
harbors to be blocked by ice for the greater part of the year. 

352. (a) The Caucasian, (b) Though Europe is slightly larger 
than less than one-half the size of North America, yet it has al- 
most four times as many people as the former continent. 

353. Great Britain, German Empire, France, Russia, Austria- 
Hungary, Italy, Spain, Norway, Holland and Turkey. 



116 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

354. The surface is so broken up by the many mountain ranges 
as to oppose the formation of any large countries. Further, the 
various nationalities and languages spoken are additional factors 
against the consolidation into one large country like that of our 
own. Where the mountain barriers are missing, as in Russia, we 
have a single large nation ; but where, as in the Scandinavian Pen- 
insula, the two countries are separted by a mountain range, the 
tendency is to form single, individual, free countries, as was done 
a few years ago. 

355. Portugal, Spain, France, Germany, Holland. 

356. Russia. 

357. The limited (constitutional) monarchy. 

358. In the eastern and northwestern parts of Europe, particu- 
larly the eastern half. 

359. Rye, oats, wheat, barley, potatoes, sugar-beets, beans, cab- 
bages, flax and hemp. Grapes, olives, oranges, lemons, figs, alm- 
onds and chestnuts are the principal crop products in the tropical 
south. Mulberry trees are also raised. 

360. (a) One of the most important industries, giving occupa- 
tion to a large number of the population, principally carried on in 
the central belt. (&) Four times as many sheep ar^aised in Eu- 
rope and twice as many cattle, and as many hogs as m the United 
States. 

361. Fishing is a much more important pursuit than it is in our 
country. The northwest coast is the great fishing region, yielding 
herring, cod, mackerel, oysters, while the southwest coast produces 
anchovies, sardines. Sturgeon is an important fish in the south- 
east. 

362. The extensive forests are under the care of the states and 
held principally by the monarchs. As a result only ^fractional 
part is allowed to be cut, and other trees are immediately planted. 
The dead wood is used by the peasants for firewood. Extreme care 
is taken to conserve the forests. 

363. (a) The mining of certain mineral products forms the chief 
reason for the commercial strength of a large number of the most 
important European countries ; as England, Germany and France. 
All the useful minerals are found in abundance, the combined an- 
nual output being almost twice as much as that of our country. 
(b) Coal, iron, copper, zinc, quicksilver, tin, lead, silver, gold, plat- 
inum, salt and petroleum form the bulk of the minerals, besides 
marbles and other building stones. 

364. Due to the presence of the raw products in mountainous re- 
gions in the western half; the nearness to the seaports for trans- 
portation to foreign countries. 

365. Food products, cloth, clothing, iron and steel and machinery, 
leather, woodenware, porcelain, jewelry and nearly every article 
used by civilized man the world over. 

366. (a) Manufactured products, as enumerated in 365. (b) 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 117 

China, Japan, India, South American States, Central America and 
the United States. 

367. (a) Principally of the raw materials and the articles of food, 
such as tea, coffee, meat and their products, cotton, wool, silk. 
(b) Because the food supply is entirelj' disproportionate to the pop- 
ulation. No country in Europe produces sufHcient of all the food- 
stuffs to feed its population except Austria-Hungary. 

368. The rivers, canals and railroads. 

369. The railroads, like those in the United States, are situated 
where the population is densest. The western part of Europe is 
covered by a network of railroads, most of the lines being owned 
by the governments. The service is generally poor. 

370. England, Scotland, Wales and Ireland. 

371. On the east by the North Sea, on the north and the west by 
the Atlantic Ocean, on the south by the ocean and the English 
Channel. 

372. (a) Great Britain; (&) Ireland; (c) the Irish Sea; (d) the 
Hebrides, Orkney, Shetland and Faroe Islands. 

373. Due to the irregularity of its coast line, many bays, and 
wide mouths of rivers are formed, on these being situated some of 
the most important seaports in the world. It has made the English 
people a seafaring and trading nation. 

374. (a) Moray Firth, Firth of Forth, The Wash, the Mouth of 
the Thames; (b) Lynn Bay; (c) Bristol Channel, Cardigan Bay, 
Morecambe Bay, Solway Firth, Firths of Clyde and Lome, and Gulf 
of Hebrides. 

375. The Pennine Chain in the northern part of England, the 
Cheviot Hills between England and Scotland, the Grampians in the 
northeastern part of Scotland, and the Cambrian Mountains be- 
tween England and Wales. 

376. The Thames, the Severn, Mersey and Humber Rivers in 
England, and the Clyde and Forth Rivers in Scotland. 

377. (a)*London on the Thames River; (b) samic, Liverpool on 
the Mersey, Hull on the Humber, Bristol on the Severn, Southamp- 
ton on the ^uthern coast, Plymouth in the southeastern coast. 

378. (a) Edinburgh on the Forth; (&) Glasgow and Aberdeen. 

379. Sheffield for its steel wares ; Nottingham and Leicester for 
the lacejs; Manchester, the world's greatest cotton manufacturing 
center ; Xeeds, woolen goods ; Birmingham for its iron and steel 
machinery and goods ; Newcastle-on-Tyne and Cardiff for ship- 
building and iron manufacturing and pottery; Glasgow for ship- 
building, linens, and Belfast for linens. 

380. Stockraising, mining, manufacturing of almost every kind of 
goods used all over the civilized world, but particularly iron and 
steel, cotton and woolen goods ; shipbuilding, railroading, transpor- 
tation by sea; fishing, agriculture (but not enough to sustain the 
entiije population). 

381. (a) Grain, hay, vegetables and fruits, (b) The population 



118 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

is so largely disproportionate to the amount of food supplied by- 
Great Britain itself, that it is compelled to import food products 
of all kinds. Only a small portion of the land is under cultivation 
and comparatively few are engaged in agricultural pursuits. 

382. The presence of vast beds of iron and coal and mines of lead, 
tin and copper, have made it a manufacturing country. In addi- 
tion to this the enormous fleets of English merchantmen on the 
seas, the large number of colonies supplying the raw materials, have 
helped in making this the factory of the world. 

383. As the first trading nation. She has a foreign commerce 
twice as large as that of any other nation. 

384. Manufactured articles. Scarcely any raw materials and coal. 

385. (a) Dublin, (&) Belfast, Queenstown, Cork. 

386. Linens and poplins. The grains, vegetables and fruits and 
dairy products that they raise are sent to Great Britain. 

387. The people are the most industrious and progressive ; the 
separation of the islands from the continent has prevented the con- 
tinental nations from invading the islands ; the coast and their sur- 
roundings have made them a seafaring people ; the presence of raw 
materials on the island and the large fleet of transports bringing 
her the raw materials, have made her the great manufacturing na- 
tion of the world ; the success as colonizers and the presence of 
colonies all over the world to supply her with raw materials. The 
British Isles are in the center of the land globe. 

388. (a) Russia, (b) France, (c) Austria-Hungary, (d) Den- 
mark, the Baltic and North Seas. 

389. The northern half is the continuation of the great plains of 
Russia, part of it being sandy covered. Along the Rhine is a val- 
ley remarkable for its fertility and its beauty. The southern half 
is plateau region, a continuation of the Alpine plateau. 

390. (a) Elbe, Oder, Rhine, Weser, Main, Vistula, Warthe. 
(b) By means of canals and railroads, so as to form a perfect net- 
work for transportation. 

391. Manufacturing, agriculture, cattle and sheep rSising, com- 
merce, railroading, shipping and shipbuilding. 

392. (a) Rye, sugar beets, potatoes and fruits, grai*s; (b) iron, 
coal, copper, lead, zinc, silver, silica, phosphates for fertilizers, clay 
for porcelain and salt; (c) cattle, hogs, sheep, and their products, 
hides, leathers. 

393. Because of the density of its population, Germany imports 
a large part of her food products, principally from the United States, 
and in return sends her a large part of her manufactures. Ger- 
many has a larger foreign trade than has the United States. 

394. (a) In the southern part of the Jutland peninsula, (b) It 
affords a continuous passage by water from the Baltic Sea to the 
North Sea, without being compelled to go through the Cattegat and 
the Skager Rack. 

395. (a) Berlin, (b) Hamburg, Bremen, (c) Cologne, Frankfort, 
Dusseldorf. Essen, Stuttgart. Nuremberg, Munich, Magdeburg, 
Hanover, Dresden, Breslau, Chemnitz. 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 119 

396. (a) Holland is largely built up from the soil and silt car- 
ried down by the Rhine River. It is a flood plain. The land is so 
low that it must be protected against the sea by dikes. The Dutch 
are continually extending their land into the sea, reclaiming the 
under sea coast by means of piles and dikes. (&) Walls of earth 
built of earth and rock to prevent the overflow of the sea. (What 
have we in the United States to correspond to the dikes?) 

397. Agriculture, dairying, fishing, manufacturing to a small ex- 
tent, shipbuilding, pottery and brickmaking, linen manufacturing. 

398. Dairy products, particularly cheeses, vegetables, flower bulbs, 
flax, linens, sugar, starch, no minerals of any importance. 

399. Its imports are chiefly from its possessions in the East In- 
dies and the western hemisphere. The exports consist of the sur- 
plus dairy products, butter and cheese, flax and linen goods, and 
cotton goods, and in addition the imports from its possessions, 
chocolate, spices, cofifee. 

400. (a) Amsterdam and The Hague; (b) Rotterdam; (c) Am- 
sterdam, Haarlem, Leyden. 

401. Chiefly by means of canals which have been built as drainage 
canals for the waters from the sea. Railroad lines extend in every 
direction, but are not of such importance as in our country. 

402. It controls the mouth of the Rhine River, which rises in the 
southern part of the German Empire, and its commanding position 
on the Nortlj Sea. 

403. Its commanding position between the North and Baltic Seas. 

404. Iceland ^nd Greenland, the Faroe Islands, and St. Thomas 
and St. Croix in the West Indies. 

405. Copenhagen. 

406. (a) Christiania, (b) Stockholm. 

407. See 351. 

408. Russia and the Balkan States are to its east; Germany to 
the north, the Balkan States and Turkey to the south, and on the 
east the Adriatic Sea, Italy and Switzerland. 

409. The- Danube crosses and drains the plains of Hungary and 
together with the Theiss and Drave Rivers and the numerous 
branches of the Danube form the means of communication in the 
country. 

410. (a) Agriculture, mining, weaving, manufacturing, lumbering, 
wine-making are the important occupations. 

(b) Grains, hemp, flax, grapes, olives, silkworms, lumber, iron, 
coal, rock salt, cloth, steel goods, Bohemian glass, crockery and 
wine are the most important products. 

411. Food products. It is the only European country raising 
enough for export. 

412. The Teutonic, or German, the Slavonic, including the Bo- 
hemians, Poles, Ruthenians and Croatians, the Magyars in Hungary, 
the Roumanians and the Italians. 

413. (o) Vienna, and Budapest is the capital of Hungary. (&) 
Trieste, (c) Prague. 



120 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

414. It is surrounded by the most important European nations. 
Almost all the important rivers in western Europe rise within her 
borders. 

415. The French, Italians and Germans. 

416. (a) It has the highest and most rugged surface of any coun- 
try, lying entirely within the Alpine region. The valleys are only 
between high ranges of mountains and are short in extent. (&) The 
Swiss Alps and the Jura Mountains, (c) Lakes Geneva, Lucerne. 
(d) Mt. Blanc. 

417. (a) Herding and stock raising, manufacturing and dairying 
and some agriculture, urapes, grain, vegetables, cheese and con- 
densed milk, textiles, laces, watches, straw works, carved woods 
and some brass wares are the chief articles of manufacture. 

(fc) Dairy products and manufactured goods, (c) Grains and 
other foodstuffs. 

418. (a) Berne, (&) Zurich, Geneva, Basel, St. Gall. 

419. (a) Brussels, (b) Antwerp, (c) Ghent and Liege. 

420. (a) Paris, (b) Marseilles, Havre, Bordeaux, (c) Lyons, 
Lille, St. Etienne, Nantes. 

421. The northern part of France is low, level surface covered 
with prairies, producing half as much wheat as in the United 
States. Vegetables and sugar beets are grown there in abundance. 
The grape is grown in the valleys and plains in the southern and 
central parts ; grapes, and mulberry trees are raised, as well as 
olives. The mountainous regions are located in the east and south- 
east, but these produce only a small quantity of coal and iron. 

422. (a) Wines, carpets, silks, steel goods, candies, porcelains 
and chinaware and fancy articles ; laces and wearing apparel. 

(b) Raw materials, metals, petroleum and food stuffs. 

(c) United States, its colonial possessions, China and other Ori- 
ental countries. 

423. (a) The English Channel. 

(b) A very large portion of western and northern Africa, Mada- 
gascar, French Indo-China, French Guiana, numerous small islands 
in the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans and in the East and West Indies. 

424. The Rhone drains the eastern and southeastern sections of 
the country ; the Garonne, the southwestern ; the Loire, the north- 
western, and the Seine the northern and northeastern sections ; the 
rivers drain the entire country and furnish it with means of internal 
communication besides the railroads. 

425. The Iberian Peninsula. 

426. The greater portion of the surface is a high arid plateau, 
with lowlands along the coasts and in along the rivers. The re- 
sult is that the soil is dry and arid, producing few agricultural 
products, the raising of these being confined to the mountain slopes 
and the lowlands. Irrigation is carried on extensively wherever 
possible. 

427. Herding to a small extent ; agriculture ; producing grapes, 
olives, tropical fruits, cork, vegetables ; fishing, the sardine and the 
tunny fish being the catch ; mining of large quantities of quicksilver, 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 121 

copper, lead and iron ; manufacturing of wines, olive oil, textiles, 
paper, soap and metal goods. Spain's commerce is mostly a do- 
mestic commerce, yet she ranks fifth among the European nations 
in shipping. 

428. Morocco, the Canary Islands, and some possessions in the 
western part of Africa. Portugal owns the Azores, Madeira and 
Cape Verde Islands, small regions in Asia and large parts of Africa. 

429. (a) Spain, Madrid; Portugal, Lisbon; (b) Barcelona and 
Lisbon; (c) Seville, Malaga and Valencia; Oporto. 

430. The climate is exceptionally warm for its latitude. The 
cold winds of the north are shut out by the high Alps, and the 
warmer winds from the south blow over its entire country. The 
autumn and winter seasons are rainy, while the warmer seasons are 
very dry. 

431. The Apennine Mountains; Mt. Cenis, Mt. Vesuvius and Mt. 
Etna in Sicily. 

432. (a) Rome; (b) Venice, Naples and Genoa; (c) Florence, 
Bologna, Milan, Palermo, Leghorn, Turin. 

433. (a) Agriculture, fishing, sulphur-mining, quarrying. 

(b) Wines, marbles, oranges, lemons and citrons, sulphur, silk, 
coral, glass and mosaics. 

434. (a) Athens, (b) Similar to those of Italy. (<r) Sponges 
and oils. 

435. Constantinople, in the southeastern part of Europe, on the 
Dardanelles. It commands the eastern part of the Mediterranean 
Sea and the entrance into the Black Sea, and thus controls Asia 
Minor. 

436. It is a very mixed one, comprising the Ottoman Turks, 
Greeks, Slavs, Gypsies, Jews, Greeks and Armenians. 

437. Bulgaria, Sofia ; Roumania, Bucharest ; Servia, Belgrade ; 
Montenegro, Cretinje. 

438. Cattle, wheat, corn, wine and sheep. 

439. Due to the rocky surface and their being on the road from 
Asia to Europe, and thus open to attacks by the various invading 
armies from the latter continent. They have been subject to every 
dominating country in the eastern and southern parts of Europe 
at some time or another, and have always had to fight for their in- 
dependence. Consequently fighting is the most important of their 
occupations. 

440. The Don, Dnieper, Vistula, Volga, Duna and Dwina as the 
means of internal communication throughout the country. Canals 
connect these and furnish a complete network of waterways. 

441. Vegetable products are wheat, flax, hemp, oats, barley, rye, 
sugar, lumber and resin from the evergreen trees ; animals and ani- 
mal products are cattle, horses, camels, sheep, hogs, meats, hides and 
leathers ; minerals and mineral products are gold, platinum, coal, 
iron, petroleum. 

442. Agriculture throughout the greater portion, fishine, lumber- 
ing and hunting in the north ; commerce in the south ; mining in 
the eastern section of the Urals, and manufacturing in the large 



122 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

cities ; mining in the sontheastern regions, and herding and cattle 
raising on the vast plains. 

443. Its population is a mixed one, including the Slavs, Lapps 
and Finns in the north, the Jews, the Poles and the Cossacks in the 
southeast. 

444. (fl) St. Petersburg, (b) Odessa on the Black Sea is the 
chief southern port, and Riga on the Baltic is the principal north- 
ern seaport, (f) St. Petersburg is a manufacturing city and rail- 
road center; Warsaw a trade city in Poland; Kief and Kharkof in 
the southeastern trade centers. Moscow, the ex-capital, is now an 
important manufacturing city. 

445. It has very little sea coast, and that is blocked by ice the 
greater part of the year. The coast of the Black Sea is relatively 
unimportant because of the position of Turkey. It is Russia's aim 
to procure some seaport that will be open throughout the twelve 
months of the year. 

ASIA. 

446. (a) Ural River and Mountains, Caspian and Black Seas, 
Caucasus Mountains, the Dardenelles, Sea of Marmora and the Bos- 
porus, (b) Suez Canal, Red Sea and Gulf of Aden, Strait of Bab- 
el-Mandeb. 

447. (a) North America east of Asia; (&) South America south- 
east of Asia; (c) Australia, south. 

448. (a) In the torrid, north temperate and north frigid zones. 
(b) From about 2 degrees to 72 degrees north latitude, (c) From 
20 to about 180 degrees east longitude. 

449. The Sea of Okhotsk, Gulf of Tartary, Japan Sea, Korea 
Strait, Yellow Sea, China Sea, South China Sea, on the east coast, 
the Strait of Malacca, Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and Gulf of 
Aden along the south coast, the Red Sea, the Suez Canal, the Med- 
iterranean Sea and the three bodies of water separating European 
from Asiatic Turkey into the Black Sea. 

450. (o) It contains 17,000,000 square miles, and is consequently 
almost twice as large as North America, six times the size of Eu- 
rope, and about six tunes that of the United States. (&) An- 
swers will vary. 

451. (a) The central and larger part of the continent is a high- 
land, consisting of plateaus shut in by high mountains. The Arctic 
plains slope from the highland to the Arctic Ocean, with but a 
slight elevation ; to the south and the east are lowlands along the 
coast lines. In the west are the plains and the rolling lowlands, 
known as steppes, with an elevation below sea level around the 
Caspian Sea. 

(b) The Stanovoi in the northeast; the Yablonoi, Altai, Khin 
Ghan, Thian Shan, Kuen Lun, Himalaya and Hindu Kush in the 
central part; the Ural on the western border. 

452. (a) Most of the longer rivers rise in the central highland 
region. The slopes of the continent cause them to flow into the 
three oceans. 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 123 

(b) The Ob, Lena and Yenesei in the north, flowing into the 
Arctic Ocean ; the Amur, Hoang, Yangtze and Mekong in the east, 
flowing into the indentations along the east coast ; the Salwen, Brah- 
maputra and Ganges, the Indus, Tigris and Euphrates, flowing 
into the indenting bodies of water along the southern coast. 

453. (a) Much longer than the European rivers ; (b) less im- 
portant commercially; (c) of slight importance, compared with 
those of Europe. Due to the kinds of people, the aridity of the 
central portions, and the steepness of the intervening land regions, 
the slopes and shallowness. 

(d) The Amur is the most important commercial river. 

454. Peninsula of Kamchatka, Korea on the east; Malay, India, 
Arabia, on the south ; Asia Minor on the west. 

455. (a) Plateaus of Mongolia, Pamir, Tibet, the Dekkan, Iran, 
Arabia and Asia Minor. 

(b) Plains of Indo-China, China, Manchuria, Arctic Plains, Khir- 
giz Steppes, India, Mesopotamia. 

(c) Lake Baikal, in Siberia; Aral Sea, in the Steppes region; 
Lake Balkash, in the central portion. 

456. Has every kind of climate, from the very warm, tropical 
climate in the south to the severe cold in the northern regions and 
on the high plateau land. It shows extremes in temperature from 
season to season and according to location and elevation. 

457. A varied vegetation. In the frozen north there is but a 
stunted vegetation. Grassy plains, dense forests of oak, beech, pine, 
larch and cedar, the important cereal grains and fruits and vege- 
tables are found in the temperate regions, together with tea and the 
silk mulberry. The warm tropical countries produce spices, fruits, 
rice, sugar, cotton, tobacco, tea, the poppy from which opium is 
produced. The teak, palm, ebony, sandalwood, bamboo and banyan 
trees grow in the dense southern jungles. 

458. See 69. 

459. All the precious and important minerals are found on the 
continent, though the mining industry is still in a state of semi- 
development. Gold and silver from the Altai Mountains and Si- 
beria ; coal and iron, all over ; quicksilver from China and Tibet ; 
salt, precious stones, and copper from many regions make up the 
mineral wealth. 

460. (a) Nine-sixteenths of the population of the world are found 
on this continent, (b) See 72. (c) There are more than nine 
hundred millions of people on the continent. 

461. Agriculture, cattle raising, herding, hunting, are the prin- 
cipal occupations, though manufacturing is carried on to some ex- 
tent in Japan, China and India. Mining is in a very much unde- 
veloped state, only the crudest methods being used. 

462. (a) Commerce is very slight, owing to lack of means of 
transportation. (5)_The beasts of burden, the saihng vessels, the 
canals, the few railroads and steam vessels being the modern means 
of transportation. 



124 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

463. Confucianism, Buddhism, Brahmanism, Mohammedanism, 
Judaism and the Greek form of Christianity. 

464. The summers are very short and warm, so that grains will 
ripen as far north as the Arctic Circle. The winters are very cold, 
even in the far south, due partly to the increased elevation. Grassy 
plains are found everywhere, affording valuable pasturage land. 

465. The country is sparsely settled, and few immigrants enter 
the country. The larger number of immigrants are political exiles. 
A few tribes of wandering natives are also found there. The lack 
of transportation facilities and the long cold season are additional 
factors. 

466. Principally by means of the rivers, and a line of single-track 
railroad from Russia to Vladivostok. 

467. (a) Russian Turkestan, Khirgiz Steppe, Transcaucasia, Bok- 
hara, Khiva. 

(b) St. Petersburg in Russia; Vladivostok, the seaport on the 
east coast; Irkutsk, Omsk and Tomsk, important trading cities 
along the Siberian Railroad, Tashkend in Turkestan, noted for its 
manufactures of silk and leather goods; Baku, Batum and Tiflis in 
Transcaucasia, the first two being the centers of the oil industry 
and the last the largest city in Asiatic Russia ; and Bokhara, noted 
for its rugs. 

468. Russia. 

469. Half of the people are Turks, the remainder comprise the 
Arabs, Jews, Armenians and Greeks. 

470. (a) Sheep and goats, rugs, and carpets, shawls, figs and 
dates, cotton, tobacco, opium and raw silk. 

(b) All of their products are exported. 

(c) Cotton goods, machinery and manufactured products, chief- 
ly because agriculture and herding are the two leading industries 
and manufacturing is of so shght importance in the country. 

471. Because of their non-progressiveness, their form of govern- 
ment, the persecution of the Christian sects by the Mohammedans, 
the lack of modern methods and machinery. 

472. (a) Constantinople in European Turkey, (b) Smyrna, the 
chief seaport; P-agdad as a port for the Persian trade; Beirut the 
port for Damascus, the most important manufacturing center. Jeru- 
salem and Mecca noted for their historical connections. 

473. A desert forms the greater part of the surface of Arabia, 
almost a mile above sea level, with many valleys in the mountainous 
regions. Very warm and dry, due to its location in the region of 
the trades and its elevation. 

474. (a) Where irrigation is carried on, in the valleys and in the 
oasis districts, the products are dates, indigo, coffee, barley, myrrh 
and gum arable, (b) See 473. The vegetable products are such as 
require little moisture. 

475. The population consists mainly of the Bedouin or desert 
Arabs, dwelling in the desert country, while the mixed races in- 
habit the valleys. The desert Arabs are divided into nomadic 
tribes, under the chieftainship of the Sheik, acknowledging alle- 



ANSWERS rN GEOGRAPHY. 125 

gianee to no one except their Sheiks. There is no central govern- 
ment. A tribute is paid annually to Turkey. 

476. Oman is a state situated at the southeastern extremity of 
the Arabian peninsula, under the protection of Great Britain. The 
capital is the seaport town, Maskat, from which are shipped pearls, 
dates and the tropical fruits grown in that country. 

477. Its position is important as affording an outlet for Russia 
on the Indian Ocean (Arabian Sea) and an open road from the 
Russian provinces in Asia to India. 

478. (a) The surface is largely a hot desert tableland, and salt 
swamps. 

(&) Fruits, flowers, grains, opium, cotton, date palm, lumber, 
rice, sheep, camels, cattle, rugs and pearls. 

(c) Rugs and carpets, dates, opium and pearls. 

479. (a) Teheran; (b) Tabriz, Bushire, Ispahan. 

480. Kabul, Herat and Khandahar. 

481. The country is under the rule of a Khan, under the control 
of the Indian government. The people are of the same stock as the 
Afghans. The raising of cattle, goats, sheep and horses is the lead- 
ing industry. 

482. India occupies the southern part of the continent. China 
borders it on the north, Indo-China on the east, the Bay of Bengal 
and the Arabian Sea are to the south, and Afghanistan and Baluch- 
istan border it on the west. 

483. To the north are the high Himalaya Mountains and the par- 
allel mountain ranges in the east. The high plateau of the Dekkan 
is in the south, while between it and the Himalayas are lowlands. 
The rivers flow through deep and broad valleys. 

484. (a) Irawadi, Ganges, Brahmaputra and Indus. (b) The 
Himalaya, Eastern Ghats, Western Ghats, (c) The rivers flow 
south, the first three flowing into the Bay of Bengal, while the last 
one flows into the Arabian Sea. 

485. Almost two-thirds as large as the United States and twenty 
times as large as Great Britain. 

486. (a) Of the same Caucasian race as the English, but of the 
Aryan branch, (b) India contains about nine times as many peo- 
ple as Great Britain, (c) The religions represented in India are 
Buddhism, Brahmanism, Mohammedanism and Christianity, while 
Great Britain has only the Christian religion. 

487. Agriculture, mining, manufacturing. 

488. (a) The methods of agriculture are of the most ancient 
type, the implements being very rude and hardly able to till suf- 
ficient ground to raise the crops required for the enormous popu- 
lation that India has. In bad years, famine sweeps the land, and 
several thousands perish for lack of food. The densest population 
is found in the northern lowlands and those portions of the Plateau 
of the Dekkan where irrigation is possible. 

(b) Opium, silk, coffee, tea, cotton, rice, oilseeds, jute, wheat, 
opium, tea and hides. 

489. About thirty-five thousand miles of railroad have been built, 



126 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

affording the principal means of transportation, besides the buffaloes, 
camels and elephants that form a very important means of trans- 
portation. The rivers are not navigable, with the exception of the 
Ganges. 

490. (a) Calcutta is the capital and chief seaport, (b) Bombay, 
the principal Indian cotton seaport; Madras and Haidarbad, im- 
portant trade centers, and for the manufacture of cotton goods ; 
Delhi and Lucknow for their manufactures. 

491. (o) An island south of the Indian Peninsula, (b) To Great 
Britain, (c) Tea and cocoanuts. (d) Colombo. 

492. Upper and Lower Burma to Great Britain ; Straits Settle- 
ments to Great Britain ; Anam, Tonkin, Cambodia, Cochin China 
to France ; Siam an independent kingdom. 

493. (a) Very mountainous. 

(&) Lumber, spices, tin, sugar and gums. 

(c) Bangkok, Siam; Rangoon and Mandalay, Burma; Singapore 
in the Straits Settlements ; Hanoi in Tonkin. 

494. In the eastern part. 

495. (a) With the exception of a broad belt along the eastern 
coast, China is a vast plateau with high mountain ranges breaking 
this up into several plateaus. The land slopes toward the north 
and east. 

(b) Himalaya on the south; Kuen Lun, Altyn Tagh, Thian Shan, 
in the central part; Altai in the northwest; '. hin Gan in the north- 
east. 

(c) A very dry climate except along the coast, cold in the winter 
and warm in the summer season. The monsoon winds blow out- 
ward steadily during the winter season, and toward the land during 
the summer season. Typhoons are very frequent in the early spring. 

496. (a) The Hoang, Yangtse, Amur, all flowing eastward. 

(b) It rises at an elevation of several thousand feet and the 
grade is so steep that it very frequently overflows its banks. In 
addition, it changes its channel, and carries along with it a very 
heavy sediment of fine yellow loam which blocks up the river and 
causes the channel to shift. It is known as " China's Sorrow." 

497. The Grand Canal, the rivers, the railroads that have been 
built by European nations. Goods are also transported on the backs 
of porters. Caravans in the desert regions. 

498. (a) The people are Mongolians, and have remained prac- 
tically stationary during the past several centuries, without making 
any progress in civilization. Buddhism and Confucianism with its 
ancestor worship form the principal religious beliefs. Their every- 
day conduct, dress and manners are governed by ancient laws. 

499. (a) Wheat and millet, rice, silk and tea, copper, coal and 
iron, are the leading products. 

(b) The Chinese are suspicious, in addition to their worship of 
old things, and, hence, are opposed to foreigners and the latest and 
most modern machinery and methods of mining. The people are 
principally handworkers and look with distrust upon machines for 
the manufacture of their goods. 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 127 

(c) Great Britain, Japan, the United States and Germany. 

(d) Cotton cloth, opium and manufactured goods are chief im- 
ports. Silk, tea, teak, ivories, raw cotton, lacquer wares form the 
bulk of their exports. 

500. Tibet, Chinese Turkestan, China, Mongolia, Manchuria, Sun- 
garia. 

501. (a) Peking; (b) Tientsin, Canton and Shanghai are the 
chief ports carrying on trade with America ; Hong Kong and Wei- 
haiwei, British ports; Kiauchau, a German port; Kwangchau, 
French, and Macao, which belongs to Portugal. 

(c) Lassa, the capital of Tibet; Mukden is the capital of Man- 
churia, Harbin an important trade center, and Port Arthur an im- 
portant seaport now controlled by Japan. 

502. Manchuria is a fine farming region. Grains, tobacco, lum- 
ber, cattle and horses are important products. A number of valu- 
able minerals, including coal and iron, are found there. It was for- 
merly under the control of Russia and at present Japan exercises 
a dominant influence, though still an integral part of the Chinese 
Empire. 

503. See 501 (&). 

504. (a) Japan. 

(b) Like the Chinese, whom they hate, the Koreans were an ex- 
clusive people until recent years. Agriculture, herding and mining 
are the principal occupations, with the chief products being wheat, 
rice, beans and barley, gold, iron, coal and copper. Pack horses 
and porters are the important means of communication. 

505. (a) Of a number of islands, forming a chain from 50 to 22 
degrees north latitude. 

(b) Yezo, Hondo, the Kurile Islands, part of Sakhalin, Shikoku 
and Kiushu and Formosa. 

506. Very mountainous, with a large number of volcanoes among 
the mountain ranges. 

507. (a) Rice, silks, lumber, lacquer and camphor gums, hogs and 
poultry, pottery, embroidered goods, machinery and electrical ap- 
paratus, silver, coal, copper and iron. 

(b) Agriculture, manufacturing, raising of hogs and poultry, 
mining, manufacturing, shipbuilding, railroading and fishing. 

(c) Copper, silk, cotton yarn, tea and coal. 

(d) Food products and raw materials for manufacture, manu- 
factured goods for purposes of copy. 

(e) South America and North America. 

508. (a) To the United States. 

(b) East of Indo-China, between latitudes 5 and 18 degrees north 
latitude. There are almost four thousand islands. 

509. (a) Copper, gold, iron, coal, silver, lead, bamboo, teak, ebony 
and palms, tobacco, sugar, fruits, hemp, rice, cocoanuts. 

(fo) Their exports, all their products, are sent principally to the 
United States. 

510. (a) Manila, on Luzon; (&) Iloilo, and Cebu. 

511. (a) Java, Sumatra, Borneo, Celebes, Moluccas. 



128 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(&) Strait of Malacca between Sumatra and the Straits Settle- 
ments; Java Sea between Java and Borneo; Strait of Makassar be- 
tween Borneo and the Celebes; Sulu Sea between the Philippines 
and Borneo ; China Sea between Borneo and Indo-China. 

512. (a) The tropical climate throughout the year affects their 
products, so that they yield spices, cane sugar, coffee, cinchona, tea, 
rice, India rubber, timber, gutta percha and tobacco, products dis- 
tinctive of the tropical countries. 

(b) Lead, coal, gold and tin. 

513. (a) Java to Holland; Borneo, part to Holland and the rest 
to Great Britain; Celebes and Moluccas to Holland. 

(b) Most of the people are Malays with an admixture of Chinese 
and a few Arabs. The ruling class is comprised of the Europeans 
sent to rule and trade. 

AFRICA. 

514. (a) In the eastern and in both northern and southern hemi- 
spheres, (b) From 30 south to 35 degrees north latitude; and 
from 20 west to 50 degrees east longitude. Torrid, south and north 
temperate zones, (d) South of Europe, southwest of Asia and 
northwest of Australia. 

515. New York City. 

516. (a) The Suez Canal, Red Sea, Gulf of Aden, Indian Ocean, 
Mozambique Channel, on the east; the Atlantic Ocean to the south 
and west. Gulf of Guinea to the west, the Mediterranean Sea to 
the north. 

(b) It is much more regular than the coast line of any other con- 
tinent in the eastern hemisphere. 

517. (a) The whole eastern and southern half of the continent is 
a high plateau ; along the west coast for about two-thirds of the 
distance the coast is fixed by a continuous chain of highland. The 
central part in the north is lowland, the only other lowlands being 
along the coastlines and in the river valleys. 

(b) The Nile River flows north; the Zambezi and Limpopo Riv- 
ers flow eastward; the Orange and Congo flow westward, and the 
Niger flows northward and southward. 

518. (a) Cape of Good Hope, (b) Cape Bon, (c) Cape Guard- 
afui, (d) Cape Verde. 

519. Madagascar at the southeastern extremity, to France; Cape 
Verde, Madeira and Azores, to Portugal, west of Africa, and the 
Canary Islands west of Africa, to Spain. 

520. It is the hottest continent, and owing to its position and its 
elevation contains the largest deserts. The highland, even in the 
torrid zone, has a temperate climate, and abundant rainfall. The 
central regions have an almost continuous rainfall throughout the 
year. The southern section has a comparatively small amount of 
rain, some places being entirely dry, with exceedingly dry atmo- 
sphere. 

521. (a) Equatorial Africa is covered with a dense vegetation, 
yielding the rubber tree. Grains, sugar, coffee, cotton and tropical 
fruits, particularly the date, are the chief vegetable products of the 
continent. (&) The largest and fiercest animals and the most va- 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 129 

ried in colors are found here. See 69. (c) Copper, lead, gold, dia- 
monds, iron are the most important minerals. 

522. The moisture in the northeast trade winds is condensed by 
the mountains of southeastern Europe and Africa so that they are 
dry by the time they reach the Sahara region. The moist winds 
from the Mediterranean and from the southeast also lose their 
moisture before they reach this region, so that none but dry winds 
blow over the Sahara. In addition, its latitude and elevation tend 
to make the atmosphere a warm and dry one. 

523. (a) The western slope, (b) See 517. 

524. Lakes Tanganyika, Nyasa, Albert Nyanza, Victoria Nyanza, 
Lakes Rudolf and Tsana in the eastern part; Lake Tchad in the 
central part. 

525. (a) In the north; (b) in the south. 

526. (a) The negroes; (b) the British and Dutch with the na- 
tive Kaffirs; (c) the Europeans and the native Berbers, Arabs and 
Jews. 

(d) The whites are found in the regions where the rainfall is 
moderate and seasonal, while the negroes are found in the contin- 
uously-rainy central part. 

527. (a) During the spring season of each year the Nile River 
overflows its banks and deposits a very thick layer of fine, fertile 
sediment. In addition, the dam at Assouan furnishes water for ir- 
rigation purposes in certain parts of the lower Nile valley. These 
make the Nile valley one of the most fertile regions in the world. 
Rice, corn, cotton, wheat and tropical fruits are raised in abundance. 

(b) Along the narrow valley of the Nile River and in its delta. 

528. (a) Agriculture, stock raising, goat raising, herding and 
manufacturing by hand are the chief occupations. 

(&) Cotton, cotton seed, sugar and rugs. 

(c) Coal, hardware, cotton goods and timber. 

(d) Great Britain. 

(e) The caravan, the few miles of railroad and the Suez Canal. 
The rivers are not navigable to any great extent, because of the 
cataracts and falls. 

529. (a) Cairo, (b) Alexandria. 

530. (a) Tripoli, Algeria, Morocco and Tunis. (&) Because of 
the inhabitants, the Berbers. 

531. (a) The eastern part is very dry throughout the greatest 
part of the year. In the western part there are very heavy seasonal 
rains. The climate is otherwise very mild and dry. 

(&) Tropical fruits and grains; mules, horses, camels, goats and 
sheep ; sponges along the coast ; woolen and silk cloths, rugs and 
carpets and corals. 

(c) The Berbers, the principal race, Arabs, Moors, Jews and 
negroes, with a large number of Europeans in Algeria and Tunis. 

532. (a) Morocco, Morocco and Fez; Algeria, Algiers; Tunis, 
Tunis; Tripoli, Tripoli; (&) same as the capitals, (c) Ivory, os- 
trich feathers, sponges, wheat, coral, olive oil, hides, rugs and car- 
pets; (d) manufactu*-ed products. 



130 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

533. The Sahara is the region of the greatest desert in the world. 
Throughout there are many large oases where date palms, olive 
trees and grains are raised in large quantities. The population con- 
sists of native nomadic tribes, and the caravan is the chief means 
of communication and transportation. Salt is the chief mineral 
product, and this is bartered with the tribes in central Africa. 

534. French Guinea, Konakri, France ; Sierra Leone, Freetown, 
Great Britain ; Nigeria, Asaba, Ashanti, Kumassi, to Great Britain ; 
Kamerun, Kamerun, to Germany ; French Congo, Libreville, to 
France ; Kongo Free State, Brussels, to Belgium ; Abyssinia, Adis 
Abeba, independent ; British Somaliland, and British East Africa to 
Great Britain; Italian Somaliland to Italy; German East Africa to 
Germany. 

535. (a) Rubber, ivory, varnish, oils from the palm tree, varnish 
gums, cabinet woods, coffee and some cotton. 

(b) To Great Britain, United States, Germany, France and Italy. 

536. (a) The surface of the southern part is a very high, dry 
plateau, with lowland only along the coasts. 

(b) The forests of cypress, evergreens and olive grow on the 
slopes of this plateau, and in the lower regions are raised cotton, 
coffee, sugar cane and wheat, while in the upper and drier regions, 
where the slight growth of thick, coarse grass is found, there are 
herds of cattle, ostriches, goats and sheep. 

537. (a) Herding on the plateau regions, mining in the district 
between the Orange and Vaal Rivers and in the southernmost dis- 
trict ; and agriculture. 

(&) Diamonds, gold, copper. 

(c) It is the section of the richest diamond mines in the world. 

538. (a) (&) Cape Colony, Cape Town; Orange River Colony, 
Bloemfontein ; Transvaal, Pretoria ; Natal, Pietermaritzburg ; Brit- 
ish South Africa (the British possessions in South Africa have re- 
cently been united into the United States of Africa with Cape Town 
as their capital) ; German Southwest Africa; Portuguese East Af- 
rica ; British Central Africa. 

(c) The capitals and Johannesburg, the center of the gold-mining 
industry ; Durban, the port of Natal ; Port Elizabeth, an important 
commercial center, and Kimberley, the center of the diamond in- 
dustry. 

539. (a) Tropic of Capricorn, (b) The Torrid and South Tem- 
perate Zones, (c) Pacific and Indian Oceans. 

540. Very regular, making the shape almost circular. The sur- 
face is flat, excepting for the ridge of mountains bordering it on 
the east coast. The western half of the island is a low tableland. 

541. (a) Lying in the region of the southeast trades, the moun- 
tains along the eastern and southeastern coasts rob the winds of the 
moisture, so that the interior is left without rainfall. The north 
coast receives rains in their spring and summer, but only on the 
coast. During their winter season no rain falls. Why? The cen- 
tral part is therefore a vast desert. The temperature is generally 
mild, with a very hot interior section during the summer. 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 131 

(b) Forests of eucalyptus, pines, cedars and cabinet wood trees 
are found where rain falls. A thorny shrub and coarse grass grow 
in the central dry regions. See 64 for the animals. 

542. The Murray and Darling Rivers in the eastern regions re- 
ceive their flow from the eastern highlands when the rain falls, be- 
coming shallower as they advance. In the other regions where 
rain falls the rivers are short and navigable for about six months 
in the year. No rivers of any importance in the interior. 

543. (a) Gold, silver, copper, tin and coal. 

(b) Wool, mutton, sheep and cattle on the hoof, gold, cabinet 
woods. 

(c) Manufactured goods, cloth, machinery form the principal 
items of imports. 

(d) Great Britain. 

544. Australia is the most sparsely peopled continent, the greater 
number of the people living in the regions receiving the rainfall 
The west is practically unexplored and contains no inhabitants. 
The population consists principally of the British emigrants and 
their descendants, with a slight mixture of Chinese, Malays and 
Hindus, who are the laboring classes, with but a very small num- 
ber of the original native inhabitants. 

545. Victoria, Melbourne; New South Wales, Sydney; Queens- 
land, Brisbane; South Australia, Adelaide; Western Australia. 
Perth. 

546. (a) New Zealand is southeast of Australia. (&) Tasmania 
is south of the southeastern part. 

547. Tasmania's rockj' surface and indented coast line, with its 
numerous surrounding islands, have given her the name of " Switz- 
erland of the South." Climate is mild, the products are practically 
the same as those of Australia. Copper, tin, silver and gold form 
the largest part of her mineral output, while fresh and preserved 
fruits are the chief articles of export. The capital is Hobart. 

548. (a) Forests on the mountains and slopes, plains in the low- 
lands; (b) wool, meats, cattle products, gold, gums, dairy products 
are the chief exports, principally to Great Britain. 

(c) The original Malay Maoris, and the descendants of the orig- 
inal immigrants. 

(d) Wellington; (e) Auckland and Dunedin. 

549. The Samoan, Fiji, Hawaiian Groups, New Caledonia, New 
Hebrides, Solomon, Friendly Islands. 

_ 550. (a) Copra, sugar, fruits, lumber and cabinet woods, nuts, 
rice and coffee. 

(b) Malaysian race. 

551. (a) In the Pacific Ocean west of the United States. (&) To 
the United States. 

(c) All the islands are mountainous and contain volcanoes. 

(d) The climate is warm and mild, equable, with a large amount 
of rainfall on the northeast slopes. Why? 

552. (a) Fruits, cocoanuts, sugar, coffee, rice, banana and wool. 
(&) The United States. 



132 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

553. (a) Agriculture. 

(&) The natives who number about one-fifth are called Kanakas, 
the remainder being composed of the Japanese, Chinese, Portuguese 
and Americans. 

554. (a) Honolulu. (&) Hilo. 

GENERAL REVIEW. 

555. (a) The Mississippi River; (b) Ohio River; (c) Missouri 
River; (d) Sabine River; (e) Potomac River; (/) Connecticut 
River; (g) Ohio River; (h) Columbia River. 

556. (o) Great Britain; (&) France; (c) Turkey; (d) German 
Empire; (e) Great Britain; (f) Russia; (g) Holland; (h) Great 
Britain. 

557. (o) Siberia; (b) Austria-Hungary; (c) Mexico; (d) Rus- 
sia; (e) Italy; (f) France; (g) United States; (h) Dominion of 
Canada; (i) German Empire; (/) Turkish Empire (Turkey in 
Asia); (k) Chinese Empire; (/) Australia; (m) Great Britain. 

558. (o) Belgium, on an indentation on the North Sea; (b) Ger- 
many, on the AUer River; (c) Italy, on the Mediterranean Sea; 
(d) Scotland, on the Clyde River; (e) Germany, on the Elbe Riv- 
er; (/) France, at the mouth of the Seine River; (g) an island 
right off the southeast coast of China; (/i) England, at the mouth 
of the Mersey; (i) Holland, mouth of the Meuse River; (/) En- 
gland, southern coast, English Channel; (k) Japan, east coast of 
the Island of Hondo, on the Pacific. 

559. (a) Arabian Peninsula; (&) Australia; (c) northern part 
of North America; (d) southernmost part of Africa; (e) the 
southeastern part of Asia and the Pacific Islands. 

560. (a) Brazil, Argentina and Uruguay. (fc) Venezuela and 
Colombia, (c) Colombia, Ecuador, Peru and Chile, (d) Paraguay 
and Bolivia. 

561. (o) North Dakota, Missouri River; (b) Connecticut, Con- 
necticut River; (c) Arkansas, Arkansas River; (d) Kentucky, 
Ohio River; (e) Minnesota, Mississippi River; (f) Tennessee, 
Cumberland River; (g) Nebraska, junction of the Platte and Mis- 
souri Rivers; (h) New York, Hudson River; (i) Kansas, Kansas 
River; (/) West Virginia, Ohio River. 

562. (a) In the Pacific Ocean just west of Alaska, (b) West 
of the northern part of Africa, (c) North of the British Isles. 
(d) In the South Pacific Ocean, among the islands of Oceania, (e) 
In the yEgean Sea, southeast of Greece, (f) East of New York. 

563. (a) Eastern part of Africa; (b) Siberia; (c) New York 
State; (d) Italy; (e) Dominion of Canada; (/) Utah, United 
States; (g) Russia; (h) Maine; (i) Nicaragua; (^') Sweden. 

564. (a) To see the beautiful scenery of the Alps Mountains. 
(b) To see the Nile and its cataracts, the pyramids, the sphinx and 
the other vast ruins and remains of the early Egyptians, (c) On 
account of the atmosphere and the equable climate and the beauties 
of its location, and to see Mt. Vesuvius, (d) Niagara Falls, Yo- 
semite Valley and Yellowstone National Park, Great Salt Lake, 



ANSWERS IN GEOGRAPHY. 133 

the Petrified Forest in Arizona, the Grand Canyon of the Colorado, 
the Adirondack and Rocky Mountains, the Mammoth Cave in Ken- 
tucky, the Mississippi River and its windings, the Salton Sea, the 
places of historical connection in the East and the West, the Great 
Lakes, Galveston and its massive stone wall, St. Augustine and 
Santa Fe, besides many other places. 

565. The drainage. See 208. 

566. Answers will vary. See text-book. 

567. Answers will vary. 

568. The Columbia and the Sacramento ; the Rio Grande and the 
Mississippi ; the Nelson. 

569. (a) Six days; (&) one day; (c) two days ; (d) eight hours ; 
(e) four days and six hours. 

570. See South America, 274-334. 

571. See 370-387. 

572. (a) British and German Empires, (b) France and Switz- 
erland, (c) Spain. See Europe. 

573. See 446-508. 

574. See 514-539. 

575. (a) Waterloo, in Belgium, scene of the famous battle of 
Waterloo, 1815. (b) Paris, capital of France. (c) Edinburgh, 
capital of Scotland, famous for its historical associations, (d) Ath- 
ens, capital of Greece and famous for its historical associations. 
See Greek History, (e) Nile River in Egypt. See 527. (/) Gi- 
braltar, southernmost point in Spain, belongs to Great Britain, the 
most strongly fortified place in the world, commands the entrance 
into the Mediterranean Sea. 

576. Gulf of Mexico, Florida Strait, Atlantic Ocean, St. George's 
Channel, Irish Sea and the Mersey River. 

577. See text-book. 

578. Answers will vary. 

579. See 138, 139; 143-149. 

580. (a) Massachusetts, battle of Bunker Hill, in the Revolu- 
tionary War (see questions in history), (b) Massachusetts, first 
battle of the Revolutionary War fought there, (c) Virginia, scene 
of the surrender of Cornwallis's army, (d) Pennsylvania, scene of 
the battle of the same name on July 1, 2 and 3, 1863, the turning 
point of the Civil War. (e) Utah, city founded by the Mormons. 

581. (a) Cotton cloths and machinery; (b) coffee and rubber. 

582. (a) East of Asia, in the Pacific Ocean; (b) west of the 
United States, in the Pacific Ocean; (c) in the West Indies, south- 
east of Florida ; (d) south of Italv, in the Mediterranean Sea. 

583. See 71-72. 

584. (a) Pompeii in Italy; (b) St. Petersburg, capital of Russia; 
(c) West Point on the Hudson, New York. 

585. See 446-507. 



CHAPTER IV. ^ 
QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 

NOTATION AND NUMERATION. 

1. (o) What is arithmetic? (b) What is meant by 
arithmetic as a science? (c) as an art? (d) Explain why 
the latter is more important. 

2. (a) What is a unit? (b) Name the units used in 
measuring cloth ; in weighing coal ; in measuring land ; 
in estimating the cost of an article. 

3. What is a number? 

4. Define (a) notation; (b) numeration. 

5. Name the different ways in which numbers may be 
expressed. 

6. Express 1, 5, 397, 1,964 in the different notations, 

7. Describe the decimal system of notation. 

8. Name the different periods. 

9. Upon what does the value of a figure (called the 
local value) depend? 

10. Write in words the following numbers : 237 ; 8,469 ; 
184,392; 8,000,009; 143,892,949. 

11. Describe the Roman system of notation. 

12. Read and express in the Arabic notation the fol- 
lowing: LIII, DC, DCX, CXL, XLIV, MDCCCXC, 
MCMIX. 

13. Write the following entirely in words : Our coun- 
try mined 228,598,006 tons of coal during one year. 
Great Britain mined 226,569,489 tons ; Germany, 125,569,- 
600 tons less than the amount produced by Great Britain. 

14. Rewrite only the numbers in the following in 
Arabic figures : The expenses of the United States gov- 
ernment during the year eighteen hundred ninety-seven 
were three hundred thirty-two millions, seven hundred 
eighty-six thousand, three hundred eighty-six dollars. A 

134 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 135 

few years later they rose to the amount of three hundred 
twenty-five miUion, four hundred sixty-five thousand, nine 
hundred fifty-seven dollars more than that a few years 
before. They are now between four and five hundred 
million dollars annually. 

FUNDAMENTAL RULES. 

15. Name the four processes in arithmetic and write 
their symbols. 

16. (a) Define addition, (b) What are the addends? 
(c) What is the sum? 

17. Add the following numbers: 520, 603, 4506, 7045, 
8709, 45009, 40625, 75407, 125983, 345, 234567, 4378109, 
769809, 345678901, 565456, 4530, 87600. 

18. Write the following in Arabic figures and add both 
up and down and across : 

One thousand forty-two 

Thirty-nine thousand five hundred 

Forty-six thousand two hundred forty-five 

Nine hundred eighty-six 

Five hundred forty thousand two hundred 

19. Write the following in Arabic figures and add both 
up and down and across in two minutes : 

Forty-five thousand nine hundred forty-five 
Seventy-eight thousand five hundred 
Ninety-nine thousand five hundred forty-three 
Seventy-six thousand 

Fifty-seven thousand nine hundred ninety-nine 
Eighty-eight thousand eight hundred eighty-eight 

20. The number of bushels of grain grown in the United 
States in the year 1905 was as follows : Corn, 2,105,102,- 
516 bushels; wheat, 756,269,573 bushels; oats, 800,125,- 
989 bushels; barley, 58,925,833 bushels; rye, 23,995,927 
bushels ; buckwheat, 9,566,966 bushels. What is the to- 
tal number of bushels of grain raised? 

21. Add the numbers in 13, and put down their sum. 

22. What is (a) subtraction? (b) the minuend; (c) 
the subtrahend? (d) the difference? 

23. Show how subtraction can be verified. 



136 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

24. Perform the following subtractions, verifying in 
each case (do at the rate of two a minute) : 

(a) 21,372—5,985. 

(b) 14,968,375—429,843. 

(c) 1,296,721—849,321. 

(d) $29.84— $18.91. 

(e) 1,296,721—849,321. 

25. Briefly describe the method of subtraction used by 
bookkeepers. 

26. A man's income was $1,565 a month for two suc- 
cessive months, and his expenses were $965. How much 
had he left? 

27. Deposits in the bank amount to $6,530, and checks 
are drawn against them to the amount of $733, $592, 
$848. What is the balance? 

28. Define (a) multiplication; (b) multiplier; (c) mul- 
tiplicand; (d) product. Illustrate. 

29. What is the relation between multiplication and 
addition ? 

30. What is the product of 

(a) 72,062 by 84? 

(b) 703,270 by 93? 

(c) 67 by 1,563? 

(d) 894,037 by 3,085? 

31. If a man receives a salary of $350 per month, how 
much should he have saved at the end of a year, after 
deducting $38 a month for board and $145 for clothing 
and other expenses? 

32. A grocer bought 21 barrels of flour at the rate of 
$5 per barrel ; he sold 16 barrels at $7 per barrel, and the 
rest at $3 per barrel. How much did he make or lose by 
the transaction? 

33. (a) Show how to multiply by 10, 100, 1,000, 10,000, 
100,000, and state the rule. (&) Give a short method for 
multiplying any number by numbers ending in 5. 

34. Write down at once the products of 985X10; 
8,764X100; 8,497X1,000; 36,429X6,000; 3.754X110; 3,754 
X480; 459X25. 

35. (a) Define division ; (b) the divisor ; (r) the divi- 
dend ; {d) quotient ; (e) Illustrate. 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 137 

36. Show the many ways in which division may be ex- 
pressed. 

37. Explain the difference between long and short di- 
vision. 

38. How can division be verified? 

39. Explain what is meant by factorial division. 

40. Perform the following operations: (Do each in 
one minute.) 

(a) 558-^18. 
(&) 375)48,960. 

41. Divide: 

(a) 62,346 by 25. 

(b) 375,552 by 5,216. 

(c) 2,445,224 by 812. 

42. Show how to divide by 10, or any multiple of 10. 

43. Divide 4,885,970 by 6,000. 

44. Allowing 200 lbs. to a barrel, how many barrels 
will 68,000 lbs. of pork make? 

45. How many bales of cotton each weighing 450 lbs. 
can be made out of a pile weighing 36,000 lbs.? 

REVIEW. 

46. Add 84,124,483 Add both across and up and down. 

438,432 
2,179,136 
158,912 
173,188 
498,251 
927,341 
41,273 

47. Add both across and up and down. Test for speed. 

769,869 
722,419 
661.830 
950,675 
376,953 
418,263 
662,483 
121,276 
Find out by how much 46 is larger than 47. 



138 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

48. A man's salary is $3,176 a year. Spending $7 a day, 
how much can he save in that time? 

49. In a city the sum of $14,790 is spent for tobacco 
daily ; how many libraries will this support, at the rate of 
$870 for each library? 

50. A man purchased 467 acres of land, at $16 per acre, 
and sold the entire plot for $9,340. What did he receive 
per acre, and how much did he gain or lose by his sale? 

51. A horse dealer bought 563 horses at $65 apiece ; he 
sold them so as to make $1,1^^5 on the transaction. What 
did he receive per horse? 

52. Which are the more valuable, 863 tables at $40 each, 
or 356 bookcases at $65 each? By how much? 

53. A owns 1,368 acres of land, which is six times as 
much as the land owned by B. B owns twice as much 
as C. How much land do both B and C own ; how much 
do they all own? 

54. The smaller of two numbers is contained 14 times 
in 252 ; the smaller number in the larger 57 times ; what 
are the numbers? 

55. A drover bought a number of oxen for $18,130, and 
after selling 84 of them at $51 each, the rest stood him in 
$43 apiece. How many did he purchase? 

56. The area of England is 50,922 sq. miles, of Wales 
7,398 sq. miles, of Scotland 29,819 sq. miles, and of Ire- 
land 32,531 sq. miles. How many times as large as the 
comibined areas is the area of the United States of 3,686,- 
785 sq. miles? 

57. What is the difference between 50,500 divided by 
250, and 13 times 17? 

58. A sale was made by which 155 acres of land were 
sold at $34 per acre in exchange for 21 horses at $65 
each, and 15 mules at $18 apiece. What was the balance 
still due? 

59. A is worth $1,265 ; B is worth 4 times as much as 
A, and $183 ; C is worth 3 times as much as A and B 
less $2,348. How much are B and C worth respectively, 
and how much are they all worth? 

60. What is the average price of 5 horses, worth re- 
spectively $180, $271, $304, $245 and $375? 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 139 

PROPERTIES OF NUMBERS. 

61. What is (a) a prime number? (b) a composite num- 
ber? (c) When are numbers mutually prime to each 
other? 

62. Illustrate the difference between concrete and ab- 
stract numbers. 

63. Define factors. 

64. Define (a) divisor ; (b) common divisor ; (c) great- 
est common divisor. Illustrate. 

65. Find the factors of 10, 36, 54, 150, 819. 

Q6. Show how to find the greatest common divisor 
(G. C. D.) of 72, and 144; 576 and 960. 

67. Find the G. C. D. of 

(a) 42 and 63 ; 

(b) 105 and 135; 
(0 75, 125 and 250; 

(d) 60, 84, 108 and 132 ; 

(e) 2,040 and 4,080 ; 
(/) 576 and 960. 

68. Make a list of the prime numbers up to 100. 

69. Tell when a number is exactly divisible by 2, 3, 
4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 11. 

70. What is meant by (a) a multiple ; (b) a common 
multiple; (c) the least common multiple? (L. C. M.) 

71. Find the L. C. M. of 

(a) 10 and 30 ; 

(b) 9, 12 and 50; 

(c) 144, 288 and 1,728; 

(d) 77 and 110; 

(e) 14, 63 and 135 ; 
(/) 72, 132 and 111. 

COMMON FRACTIONS. 

72. What is (a) a fraction ; (b) a decimal fraction ; (c) 
a common fraction? 

73. Explain what is meant by the (a) denominator, 
(b) numerate, (c) terms of a fraction. 

74. Show how (a) proper fraction differs from (b) an 
improper fraction. 



140 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

75. What is the difference between (a) an integer and 
(b) a mixed number? 

76. Express in words the following fractions: ^, ^i 

77. What is meant by cancellation? 

78. Perform the cancellation in the following examples 
and write down the results : %, ^''%2x14j ^''*''^'*%6x9x2ox1S- 

79. Show why cancellation does not affect the value of 
the fraction. 

80. What is (a) reduction ; (b) reduction to lower 
terms; (c) to higher terms? 

81. Show why reduction does not afifect the value of the 
fraction. 

82. What is the effect of (a) multiplying the numerator 
of a fraction ; (b) multiplying the denominator of the 
fraction ? 

83. (a) Of dividing the numerator of a fraction? (b) 
dividing the denominator? 

84. Show how to reduce ^ to higher terms. 

85. Reduce to higher terms : 

(a) % to 14ths, 21sts, 28ths, 56ths. 

(b) %G to 128ths, 32nds, 80ths, 160ths. 

(c) i%7 to 119ths, 51sts, 170ths. 

86. Reduce the following fractions as indicated: 

(a) 34 and Ys to 20ths. 

(b) %, %o and %4 to 140ths. 

(c) y3, j4, Ye to 90ths, 180ths. 

87. Reduce to a common denominator : 
(a) 3/7 and 2/14. 

(&) % and 3/16. 
(c) 4/9 and Yz. 

88. Show how to reduce ^^70 to lowest terms. 

89. Reduce to lowest terms, 

(&) 
(0 
{d) 

(e) 55X50. 



2«y308. 



(/) 



14^%728. 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 141 

90. Explain the method of reducing- whole or mixed 
numbers to improper fractions, 

91. Reduce to improper fractions : 

(a) 12 to 9ths. 

(b) Sys to 15ths. 

(0 io%8. 

(d) ll%n. 

92. Give the rule for reducing improper fractions to 
whole or mixed numbers. 

93. Reduce to whole or mixed numbers : 

(a) 24/,. 

(b) ioo%oo. 

94. Add 5^/2 and loy^ and explain the process. 

95. Perform the operations indicated: 

(a) K+H. 

(&) 1^4-J^. 

(r) 12/3+7>^+19i^. 

(d) iy33 + l%6+213/343. 

(e) 72^+346%o. 

96. How much did a boy receive when he received 
$lf^ from one person and $2^ from another and $3^ 
from a third? 

97. A bill called for the payment of the following 
amounts: $18^, $45%8, $150^ and $275. What did the 
total amount to? 

98. Add $450 

67%4. 
374%o 

99. Show how %5 can be subtracted from IYiq. 

100. Subtract: 

(a) %Q from ^. 

(b) %5 from 1%. 

(c) $314 from USYs. 

(d) 124— 36%5. 

(e) 342— 1245/16. 

101. A grocer sold 2334 lbs. of butter from a tub con- 
taining 56^/2 lbs. How many lbs. were left? 



142 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

102. A man sold 78% acres ; how much land was left 
if the original lot contained 165%o acres? 

103. A lady having $100 paid $814 for shoes, $15>^ for 
a dress hat, $46^ for a cloak. How much change did she 
have left? 

104. Show how to multiply a fraction by (a) a whole 
number; (b) a fraction. 

105. What is the general rule for the multiplication of 
fractions? 

106. Perform the Avork in the following: 

(a) */i2X%. 

(b) r5X%X%6. 
(0 %5 of 333/33^. 

(d) 3j4Xms. 

(e) 2o/49Xi%8X63/,o. 

(/■) % of 21/35X4/9 of 1%2- 

107. Find the cost of 7% tons of coal at $11% per ton. 

108. What is the cost of 227 pounds of sugar at 5% 
cents per pound? 

109. How many square feet in the ceiling of a room 
10% feet long, and 18^ feet wide? 

110. A man withdraws ^ of his deposits from his bank, 
and later Ys of the remainder, (a) What part is drawn out 
the second time, and (b) what part of the whole deposit 
is left? 

111. A owned % of a business and sold j/s of his share 
to B. What part of the business does A still own? 

112. How many pounds of tin and copper respectively 
are needed for a bell that is to weigh 3,950 lbs. if the tin 
is to be }i of the entire weight? 

113. What will be the earnings of 145 men in 15^ days 
if each man earns $2% per day? 

114. State the rule for the division of fractions, and il- 
lustrate. 

115. Perform the work in the following: 

(a) 3%6 divided by 15. 

(b) 23/5—4. 

(c) 5J4 divided by %. 

(d) 7-f-^. 

(e) 8y2-^iy2. 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 143 

116. How many cloaks will 135 yards of cloth make if 
each cloak requires 4J/^ yards? 

117. If a man spends $2^^ per month for newspapers 
and periodicals in what time will he spend, at the same 
rate, $13>^? 

118. $ji will buy one yard of cloth; how much will 
$9/io buy? 

119. How many tons of hay will be bought for $125^ 
at the rate of $7}i per ton? 

120. By what number must i%o be multiplied to pro- 
duce 15^? 

121. (a) What is a compound fraction? (b) Give an 
example of a complex fraction and define. 

Indicate the work and find the result of the following: 

122. (a) ^ of 54X1^26- 
(&) 

ii 

4 
(C)3/S0f||- 

123. 

(a) ^+MX3+^ 

(b) M+7><X2+1>^ 



124. 



(a) 
(0 



33>^ 

25 

371^ 

29%i 



325 

125. Explain how to find what part one number is of 
another. 

126. (a) What part of 14 is 8? 

(&) What part of 722 is %i? 
(c) 15 is what part of 22>4? 
(flf) 24>4 is what part of 37^? 



144 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

127. (a) 100 is what part of 20? 
(b) 20 is what part of 100? 

128. When coal costs at the rate of $95 for 15 tons, 
what will ^ of a ton cost? 

129. If candy costs at the rate of 62^^ cents per lb. 
what part of a lb. will 25 cents buy? 

130. Illustrate by a concrete problem how to find a 
number when a part of it is given. 

131. (a) What is the number when % of it equals 16? 
(b) 24 is %5 of what number? 

(^) %6 of a number equals 144. What is the 

number? 
(d) When %5 of a number equals 150 what is 

the number? 

132. 4%g is % of 4/5 of what number? 

133. 9,500 men are left of an army after % of it have 
been lost in a battle. How large was the army at first? 

134. $^%5 is Ys less than how much? 



135. 


'^%Q is ^ more than what number? 




DECIMALS. 


136. 


(a) What is a decimal or decimal fraction? (b) 


Give the names of the different decimal orders. 


137. 


Read and write in words the following decimals : 




(a) .25. 




(b) 3.375. 




(c) 73.796. 




(d) 257.46573/2. 




(e) 8.9872. 


138. 


Write decimally the following common fractions : 




(a) %o. 




(b) fioo. 




(0 '^Ywoo. 




(d) 5fio. 




(e) 3375/^,,,. 




(/) 8237/,,oooo. 


139. 


Reduce to common fractions in lowest terms or to 


mixed 


numbers : _ 




(a) .485. -^ 




(b) 2.17. 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 145 





(c) .92. 










(d) .875. 










(e) .7575. 










(/) 10.575. 










(g) 1.001. 










(h) S2y2. 








140. 


Convert into decimal fractions, 


of three orders at 


the most, the following: 










(«) ^. 










(b) yi5. 










(C) ^l%75. 










(d) 345/50. 










(e) 2%. 










(/) ^%6. 








141. 


Add the following 










(a) 2.467 




(&) 


3.459 




.859 






.987 




.950 






2.468 




1.348 






8.750 




141.987 






149.009 


142. 


, Subtract: 










(a) 15.843 


(b) 


148.95 


(c) 2,486.725 




.9367 




99.89 


145.3875 



(d) Subtract 142 (a) from 142 (b). 

143. Show how decimals may be multiplied. Deduce 
the rule from your work. 

144. Multiply: 

(a) 27.4 by 3.86. 

(b) 1.25 by 37. 

(c) 3,845 by .29. 

(d) .Sy3 by 45. 

(e) .32 by 1.3>^. 

(f) 486 by 7.21^. 

145. One field produces 750.5 bushels of potatoes ; how 
many bushels will another field .625 as large as the first 
produce? 

146. What will be the cost of 73.25 yards of cloth at 
$9,375 per yard? 

147. (a) Explain how to multiply a decimal fraction 
by a multiple of ten. (b) Multiply 6.73 by 50. 



146 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(c) .96 by 4,800. 

(d) 9,250 by 67.25. 

148. What is the effect of removing the decimal point 
one or more places to the left? 

149. Divide : (a) 2,759.5 by .43. 

(b) 46.98 by .2. 

(c) 45.7 by .125. 

(d) 23,756.40 by .75. 
le) .821^ by .2>^. 

150. Show how to divide by some multiple of ten. Di- 
vide: 

(a) 144 by 70. 

(b) 5,640 by 200. 

(c) 37,000 by 450. 

(d) 982,600 by 260. 

151. One rod contains 16^^ feet; how many rods in 
732.75 feet? 

152. A stove costs $18.75 ; how many stoves can be 
purchased for $506.25. 

153. How many tons of fertilizer can be bought for 
$2,948,575 at $120.35 per ton? 

154. $127,358 pays for 5,000 acres of land; what was 
the cost per acre? 

REVIEW OF FRACTIONS AND DECIMALS. 

155. A farm was bought at $42^ per acre; Ys of it was 
sold at $54^ per acre ; ^ of the remainder at $653/^ per 
acre, and what was still left at $75.75 per acre. Did the 
man gain or lose and how much? 

156. A man had three fields ; in one of them he put 
y^ of his flock; in a second % of the remainder; in the 
last 180. How many had he in the flock? 

157. i%9 of a load of wheat was sold; 192 bushels 
still remained. How many bushels in the load at the 
beginning? 

158. What should a man receive for working 3J4 
months when he was to receive $11 per half month? 

159. What part of a piece of work that requires 8^ 
days for its completion can be done in 534 days? 

160. Two men can do a piece of work together in 40 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 147 

hours ; one of them all alone can do it in 60 hours ; in hov; 
many hours can the other do it alone? 

161. If a horse costs 2^ times as much as a wagon and 
together they cost $570, what is the cost of each? 

162. If ^ of % of lj/5 times the number is 284^, what is 
the number? 

163. One laborer working alone finishes a field in 8 
days ; with help he does it in 5 days ; in what time can 
the second man do it alone? 

164. For every $3 that B receives A gets 4. Together 
they gain $9,520. What is the share of each? 

165. A butcher buys 1,687>^ lbs. of beef at 12>4 cents 
per lb. He sells it so as to make $33.75 profit. What is 
the average selling price per lb.? 

166. $121% will buy 9^ tons of coal; what will $175 
buy? 

167. 8 lb. 12 oz. of butter are sold for $1^. What is 
the selling price per lb.? 

168. A iDankrupt settled with his creditors at the rate 
of 65 cents on the dollar ; what did he owe to a creditor 
who received $2,665? 

169. On 12 barrels of flour a grocer made a profit of 
$4>4 by selling the lot for $106.50. What did he pay 
for the flour per barrel? 

170. 125 A. are purchased at $275.75 per acre. If these 
are divided into city lots, each A. containing 17^%25 lots, 
what will be the gain if each lot is sold at $45? 

171. A man owes a debt of $495. He saves $4.95 per 
week? In what time will he be able to pay the debt? 

172. In the primary department of a school there are 
1,092 children ; the grammar department contains only 
%o of the total enrollment. How many children enrolled 
in the school? 

173. If a man earns $15.75 per week, when working at 
the rate of 10 hours per day, how much should he receive 
per week if he works only at the rate of 8 hours per 
day? 

174. To dig a certain cellar took 5 men 14^ days ; how 
many men could have done the work in 12 days. 

175. A load of 168 bu. of wheat each selling at $2^ 



148 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

is again sold at 90 cents a peck. Gain or loss, and how 
much ? 

176. ^ of a quantity of silk is bought at $1.45 per 
yard; ^ at $1.08 per yard; the remainder at $.83 per 
yard. How many yards were there in all if the bill 
amounted to $6,073.20? 

177. A son earns ys as much as the father earns ; to- 
gether they earn $103. What is the amount earned by 
each? 

178. How long will it take to empty a tank by means 
of two pipes if one pipe can do it in 15% hours, and the 
other in 164^ hours? 

179. A ten dollar bill is given in payment for 23 lbs. 
and 9 oz. of butter at the rate of 16 cents per lb. What is 
the amount of change received? 

DENOMINATE NUMBERS. 

180. What are (a) denominate numbers ; (b) compound 
numbers? 

181. (a) Explain what is meant by reduction ascend- 
ing; (b) reduction descending. 

182. Reduce to lower denominations : 

(a) 34 yards to feet, 

(b) 11 pecks to pints. 

(c) 2 sq. rds. to sq. yds. ; to sq. feet. 

(d) 34 rds. to yds. ; to feet. 

183. (a) 95>4 cu. yds. to cu. ft. 

(b) 18 bu. 2 pks. to pks. and pts. 

(c) 12 A. to sq. rds. 

(d) 4 sq. rds. 2 sq. ft. to sq. ft. 

(e) 5 sq. miles 140 A. to A. ; to sq. rds. 

184. (a) Ys mi. to ft. 

(b) % bbl. to lower denominations. 

(c) % sq. mi. to lower denominations. 
{d) ^ ton to lower denominations. 

185. Reduce to higher denominations : 
(a) 1,440 in. to ft. ; to yds. ; to rds. 
(&) 569 oz. to lbs. 

(c) 423 pt. to gallons, etc. 
{d) 57,294 lbs. to higher terms. 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 



149 



(e) 7,464 seconds to higher denominations. 
(/) 1,500 sq. in. to sq. ft. and sq. in. 

186. (a) Reduce 266^ rd. to the fraction of a mile. 
(b) Change 54 in. to the fraction of a rod. 

187. (a) What part of a dollar is 5/s, mill? 

(b) What part of a Troy oz. is %2 grain? 

(c) Change ^ gill to the fraction of a gallon. 

(d) Change ^ rod to the fraction of a mile. 

(e) Reduce }i lb. to the fraction of a ton. 

188. (a) What fractional part of a week are 3 days 5 

hours ? 

(b) What part of a cord is 25^/5 cu. ft. of wood? 

(c) What part of a line 5 miles 2 furlong 14 rods 
long is 2 miles 1 furlong 2 rods? 

189. Add 57 mi. 68 rds. 3 yds. 

24 208 2 

54 372 4 

4 104 5 

190. A dairyman sells the following quantities of milk : 
10 gal. 2 qts. 1 pt., 16 gal. 3 qt., 12 gal. 3 qt., and 15 
gal. 1 qt. 1 pt. How much was sold? 

191. What is the total weight of four loads weighing 
respectively 238 lbs. 8 oz., 163% lbs., 315 lbs. 5 oz. and 
75^ lbs.? 

192. The following are raised on four fields : 45 bu., 
3 pk. 2 qt., 51 bu. 3 pk. 5 qt., 50 bu., 1 pk. 3 qt., and 48 
bu. 2 pk. 5 qt. What was the total amount produced? 

193. What is the difference in weight between two 
quantities weighing respectively 47 lbs. 5 oz. and 29 lbs. 
13 oz.? 

194. If 58% yards are taken away from 147^ yards 
what will be the remainder? 

195. Subtract 175 A. 9 sq. rds. from 320 A. 56 sq. rds. 

196. Two pieces of silk are bought ; one measures 57 
yds. 15 in., the second is smaller by 11% yards. What is 
the length of the shorter? 

197. Multiply: 

(a) 4 lbs. 11 oz. by 12. 
(&) 8 ft. 1 in. by 9. 



150 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(c) 18 sq. yds. 4 sq. ft. by 16. 

(d) 49 ft. 6 in. by 373^. 

198. If the daily session of a school is 5 hours 45 
minutes, how many school hours in a term of 19 weeks 
of 5 days each? 

199. What will be the total weight of 97 loads of hay, 
each load weighing 1 ton 48 lbs. 8 oz. ? 

200. A small barrel contains 5 gal. 2 qt. 1 pt. of gaso- 
line; what is the total quantity of oil in 35 bbls. ? 

201. Divide: 

(a) 370 ft. 6 in. by 14. 

(b) 341 lbs. 7 oz. by 9. 

(c) 18 days 18 hrs. by 15. 

(d) 25 yrs. 10 mos. by 2 yrs. 1 mo. 

(e) 13 yds. 12 in. by 2>^ yds. 

202. 18 bins contain 456 bushels, 3 pecks of oats; how 
much does each bin contain? 

203. How many spoons each weighing 2 oz. 10 dwt. 
can be made out of 5 lb. 5 oz. silver? 

204. How many revolutions does a car wheel 15 ft. 
6 in. in circummference make in 3 miles 25 rods? 

LONGITUDE AND TIME. 

205. Define (a) longitude; (b) What is the greatest 
difference in longitude that two places may have? (c) 
the least? 

206. What is the greatest difference in time that two 
places may have? (6) the least difference? 

207. How many degrees of longitude are equivalent 
to one hour's time? Explain. 

208. Show how to find (a) the difference in time be- 
tween two places; (b) the difference in longitude, the 
times being given. 

209. The difference in time between Richmond, Va., 
and Newport, R. I., is 24 minutes. What is the difference 
in longitude? 

210. Trenton, N. J., is nearly 400 miles east of Colum- 
bus, Ohio. When it is noon at Columbus what is the 
time at Trenton, the equivalent of a degree of longitude 
being (in that latitude) about 46 miles. 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 151 

211. What is the difference (a) in time; (b) in longi- 
tude between Berlin and New Haven, Conn., the former 
being in longitude 13° 24' E., and the latter 72° 55' 
2-1" W. ? 

212. What is the difference in days between January 
28, 1876, and June of the same year? 

213. How many days must a man wait for a bill to be 
paid, the bill being made out on May 1, and payable on 
the 3rd of December of the same year? 

214. How old was Washington, the date of his birth 
being February 22, 1732, and the date of his death, Dec. 
14, 1799? 

BILLS. 

215. What is (a) a bill? (b) Define the terms "cred- 
itor" (cr.) and "debtor" (dr.). (c) What is meant by 
the terms of a bill? 

216. Explain (a) net ; (b) discount ; (c) 60 days ; (d) 4 
off; (e) C. O. D. 

Make out bills for the following. Receipt each bill. 

217. Idy2 yds. cloth @ $1.50; 2 yds. silk @ 50 cts.; 
Iiy2 yds. canvas @ 26 cts.; V/2 yds. braid @ 23 cts. 

218. 2>^ lbs. fish @ 22 cents; ld}i lbs. meat @ 20 
cents ; 4^ lbs. roast beef @ 24 cents ; 18 lbs. steak @ 21 
cents. 

219. 8,500 envelopes @ $3.50 per M (per 1,000) ; 91 
boxes writing paper @ $2.25 per doz. ; Yz doz. pencils @ 
35 cts. per doz. ; 83 doz. penholders @ 5 cts. ; 81 bottles 
of ink @ $3,50 per gross. 

PERCENTAGE. 

220. (a) Explain the term per cent ; (b) write the per 
cent sign, and tell what it means. 

221. Write in two other ways the following: 

(a) 9%. 

(b) 38 per cent. 

(c) 40 hundredths. 

(d) 48%. 

(e) 32>4%. 
if) 473/^%. 



152 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

222. How many per cent in 1 ; in 8 ; in lOy^ ; in 6% ; 
in 23/5 ; in 3% ? 

223. Show how to reduce fractions to per cent equiva- 
lents. 

224. Illustrate how per cent can be reduced to decimal 
and common fractions. 

225. Define the terms (a) base; (b) rate; (c) per- 
centage. 

226. (a) What is 12% of $75? 

(b) 46% of 54 miles? 

(c) 9% of $585? 

(d) 12>4% of $872? 

227. What were the average expenses of a young man 
who was able to save only 35% of his income of $1,850 
per year? 

228. 151^% of a hogshead of cider leaked out. How 
many gallons were lost? 

229. If 12>4% of a load of 1,925 lbs. went to waste, 
how many lbs, were wasted? 

230. (a) 10 is what per cent of $15 ; of $30 ; of $100 ? 

(b) 7 is what per cent of 28; 56; 224? 

(c) 130 is what per cent of 2,600 ; 7,800? 

231. What is the rate of increase in a consignment of 
goods the price of which is raised from $1,500 to $1,750? 

232. What per cent is that df the value of the horse if 
the buggy costs $110 out of a combined value of $475? 

233. (a) 125 is 12>^% of what number? 

(b) 37^ is 10% of what number? 

(c) 1,550 is 38^% of what number? 

(d) 421^ is 42^% of what number? 
(<?) 1352^ is 34% of what number? 

234. (a) 88 is 12% less than what number? 

(b) 198 is 1% less than how much? 

(c) $33^ is 25% less than what amount? 

(d) % is 16^% less than how much? 

235. A man paid a school tax of $50 on a 1% valuation 
of his property. What is the value of his property? 

236. By saving 31^4% of his earnings, John has saved 
$600. How much does his income amount to? 

237. A general lost 16^% of his army as follows: 315 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 153 

killed; 100 prisoners and 80 deserted. How large was 
his army? 

238. If the mortality of a city is 450 per month, and 
the death rate is 1^% per annum, what is the population 
of that city ? 

239. 7,452 soldiers are left in a garrison which had lost 
28% of its men in a siege; how many men did the gar- 
rison hold before the siege? 

240. A man saves $2,100, 40% less than his income. 
What is his income? 

241. By drawing a check for $4,848 on his bank a man 
overdrew his deposits by 25%. What were his deposits? 

242. Ys is 10% less than what number? 

243. A captain owns 25% of a ship; this is ^ less than 
the principal owner's part. What part does the principal 
owner own? 

244. The attendance of a school is 370, 92>4% of the 
pupils being present ; what is the total register of the 
schools? 

245. 4,545 men are what are left of a division after 
10% have been killed and wounded. What was the orig- 
inal force? 

246. A ranch owner lost 15% of his herd by disease; 
10% were stolen ; 279 were left. How many were orig- 
inally in the herd? 

247. The growth of population in a city in five years is 
20% ; the present population is 8,400. What was the 
population five years ago? 

APPLICATIONS OF PERCENTAGE. 

248. What is {a) commission; (&) brokerage? 

249. What is the amount of commission at 3^% on a 
sale of $958? 

250. What are the commission and the proceeds of a 
bill amounting to $12,450, with a commission of 5^% ? 

251. A broker charged $19 for disposing of $5,700 worth 
of stock. What per cent was his brokerage? 

252. When the brokerage amounts to $67J^ for the 
sale of bonds, the brokerage being at the rate of 4^^%, 



154 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

what was the amount of the bond sold, and how much 
was returned to the seller? 

253. If ^ of a barrel of pork is sold for what the whole 
barrel cost, what is the per cent profit? 

254. What per cent does a man make who sells 2^4 
quarts of milk for the price of a gallon? 

255. Explain what is meant by (a) insurance; (&) 
policy ; (c) premium. 

256. At 50 cents on $100, what is the premium on 
$5,750? 

257. What is the cost of insuring $6,175.50 at 3>^%? 

258. What sum must be insured at 2% to cover the 
property and premium, the property being valued at 
$27,244? 

259. What are (a) duties; (b) a tariff; (c) specific du- 
ties; (d) ad valorem duties? 

260. What is the duty, ad valorem, on 2,400 yards of 
carpet, valued at $1.80 per yard, the duty being 33^%? 

261. What is the ad valorem duty, at 40% on 150 chests 
of tea, each chest containing 67 pounds and invoiced at 
90 cents a pound, the tare being 9 pounds of tea? 

262. What is the duty at $1.25 per yard on 70 pieces 
of silk, each containing 40 yards ? 

263. Which is the better discount, 40% on a bill of 
$346.40 or % and 15%, and by how much? 

264. A book sells for $5. At a discount of 40 % and 
5% which is the better and by how much? The former 
or a discount of 45% ? 

265. From a bill of $1,785.66 a discount of 16^% and 
10% was made. What was the amount of the discount? 

266. What does the engine valued at $300 cost when 
it is sold at discounts of 20% and 10% ? 

267. Which is the better for the buyer, and by how 
much, discount of 20 and 10%, or a single discount of 
30%, from a bill of goods, amounting to $9,875.50? 

268. A table marked at $60 is sold at a discount of 
ye and 10%. What does the table sell for? 

INTEREST AND APPLICATION, 

269. What is (a) interest; (b) how is interest reckoned? 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 155 

270. Explain the terms (a) principal, (b) rate, (c) 
amount. 

271. How does simple interest differ from compound 
interest? 

272. Find the interest on : 

(a) $340, for 2 years @ 7%. 

(b) $750.50, for 2 years @ 3>^%. 

(c) $395.75, for 1 year 3 months @ 6%. 

(d) $250, for 3 years @ 4>4%. 
(^) $250.40, for 3 years @ 5%. 
(V) $240, for 11 years @ 6%. 

(^) $460, for 1 year 3 months 15 days @ 8%. 
(h) $82.90, for 2 years 15 days @ 3>^%. 
(i) $150, from Jan. 15 to June 30 @ 6%. 
(;■) $700, from April 8 to Oct. 5 @ 7%. 

273. Explain the 6% method of finding interest. 
Solve the following problems (by the 6% method pref- 
erably) : 

274. What is the interest on $31.75 at 6% for 16 
months? 

275. Find the interest on $49.30 for 6 months 2 days 
at 6%. 

276. What will the interest be on $51.19 for 4 months 
3 days at 7% ? 

277. What is the interest of $142.83 for 7 months 18 
days at 5%? 

278. What is the interest on $563.16 for 4 months at 
the rate of 2% per month? 

279. What is (a) a promissory note ; (b) negotiable 
note; (c) non-negotiable note? 

280. Explain the terms (a) face of note; (b) amount 
of note; (c) maturity, (d) What is usury? 

281. What is meant by (a) payee; (b) payer or maker? 

282. Explain (a) bank discount ; (b) proceeds. 

The following problems should be solved by the 6% 
method : 

283. Find the discount on a note for $5,000 for 100 days 
at 5%. 

284. Find the amount of $1,260.73 for 120 days at 6%. 



156 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

285. If $600 yield $9.50 interest in 3 months, what is 
the rate per cent? 

286. At what rate will a note for $1,500 pay me $50 
interest semi-annually? 

287. At what rate' will $1,000 amount to $1,200 in 3 
years? 4 months? 

288. A boy at the age of 14 received a legacy of $5,000 
which at 21 amounted to $7,800. What was the rate of 
(simple) interest? 

289. What is the amount of $800 for 3 years at 6%, 
compounded annually? 

290. What is the interest of $1,100 for 2 years at 7% 
compounded annually? 

291. What are the interest and amount of $1,305 for 5 
years at 5%, compounded annually? 

292. (a) What is discount? (b) What is the rate of 
discount? (c) gross amount? (d) net amount? 

293. What is the difference between commercial and 
true discount? 

294. Explain what is meant by present worth. 

295. What is the present worth of $500 due in 1 year 
at 8% ? 

296. Find the present worth of a bill of $4,480 due in 
2 years, the interest being 6%. 

297. Explain what is meant by (a) capital ; (b) stock ; 
(f ) bonds ; (d) a corporation. 

298. What is meant by (a) par; (b) market value; (c) 
premium; (d) discount; (e) assessment? 

299. Define (a) gross earnings ; (b) net earnings ; (c) 
dividend. 

Note: In the following problems, par is always $100, 
unless otherwise stated. 

300. Find the premium at 9% on 40 shares of railroad 
stock. 

301. What is the discount at 15% on 150 shares of bank 
stock ? 

302. Find the dividend on 285 shares of stock, the 
dividend being declared at 1^% quarterly. 

303. What is the amount of the assessment at 10% on 
429 shares of stock? 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 157 

304. The gross earnings of a corporation whose capital 
stock is $100,000 are $34,500; its expenses are $13,500, 
the surplus fund is to be increased by $1,000. What 
will be the semi-annual dividend that can be decl^^red? 

305. What is the per cent premium paid on 50 shares 
of stock when the amount of the premium is $750? 

306. The discount on 50 shares of Union Pacific stock 
is $625. At how much below par does the stock sell? 
What is the market value of the stock? 

307. The net earnings of a corporation whose capital 
stock is $480,000 are $35,000 ; what is the annual dividend 
that can be declared after $5,000 is added from the net 
earnings to the surplus? 

308. How many U. S. 2's, at 5% above par can be 
bought for $4,200? 

309. What is (a) exchange ; (h) a draft or bill of ex- 
change ; (c) domestic bill ; (d) foreign draft ; (e) drawee ; 
(/) payee? 

310. Make out a draft. 

311. A merchant in Galveston bought a draft of $2,000 
on New York at sight. If the premium is 3^^% what is 
the draft worth? 

312. What is the cost of a draft of $3,560, at 2% dis- 
count? 

313. How much is a draft worth drawn on St. Louis 
for 6 months, interest 4%, amount $4,250? 

RATIO AND PROPORTION. 

314. Explain the term (a) ratio ; (b) proportion ; (c) 
simple ratio ; (d) compound ratio ; (e) inverse ratio ; (f) 
antecedent ; (g) consequent ; (h) means ; (t) extremes. 

315. State the rule for proportion. 

316. Find the missing term in the following propor- 
tions : 



(a) 


72 


18: 


:62 


— . 




(&) 


16 


96: 


: — 


.72! 




(0 


60: 


— : 


:40 


13M. 


(d) 


— 


:25: 


■ y4 


■Va- 




(e) 


4 rods 


:11 


ft. : : 


18 men : — . 


if) 


48 ft. : 6 ft. : 


: — 


$12. 



158 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

317. If 8 yards of broadcloth cost $6.40 what is the cost 
of 20 yards? 

318. A fox is 100 rods before a hound, but the hound 
runs 20 rods to every 18 that the fox runs. What distance 
must the hound cover before he can catch up with the 
fox? 

319. In what time will a cistern holding 3,600 gallons 
of water be filled, the supply pipe filling it at the rate of 
45 gallons per hour, while the discharge pipe draws out 
33 gallons per hour? 

320. What is %6 of a business worth, if %2 of it is 
valued at $16,250i^ ? 

321. Six men working 2 full days can cover 28 acres 
of land ; in what time will 7 men cover 42 acres of land 
at the same rate? 

322. Thirty pounds of cotton are required to make 3 
pieces of muslin, 4 yards in a piece, and ^ yards wide. 
What will be the amount of cotton needed to make 50 
pieces, each piece to contain 35 yards and % yard wide? 

323. The transportation charges to four men are equal 
to $2,500. The first man carries 40 barrels, 80 miles ; the 
second, 170 barrels, 40 miles; the third, 200 barrels, 75 
miles ; and the fourth 100 barrels, 250 miles. Wliat should 
each receive? 

324. A partnership is formed by two men putting in 
respectively $1,200 and $1,500; $500 is lost at the end of 
the first year's business. What is each man's share of the 
loss? What is each one's share of the business at the 
end of the year? 

325. A, B and C form a partnership, gaining therein 
$12,000. A put in $8,000 for )^ year, and then added 
$2,000 for another 6 months; B put in $16,000 for a 
period of 3 months and then reduced his capital by half, 
and the other half remaining for 5 months longer ; C's 
share of $13,500 remained in for 7 months. What should 
each one receive as his share of the profits? 

326. What should be each man's share of the losses of 
$18,500, A furnishing of the capital $15,000 ; B, $12,000, 
and C $10,000 ? 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 159 

INVOLUTION AND EVOLUTION. 

327. What is (a) involution; (b) evolution; (c) root? 

328. Show hov/ to raise 3 to the 4th power (3*). 

329. Perform the following: 

(a) 53; (b) 4004; (c) 36; (^) 30^; (e) 1322; (/^) 2142. 
(g) s^; (h) 3/^4. 

330. Multiply (a) 2^ by 2^ 

(b) 34 by 32 

331. Extract the square root of the following numbers : 
(a) 14:4: ; (b) 1,296; (c) 1,681; (d) 625; (e) 178,929; (/) 
4,096. 

MENSURATION. 

332. Explain (with drawings) what is meant by (a) a 
triangle; (b) quadrilateral; (c) square; (d) perimeter; 
(e) diagonal ; (/) hypotenuse ; (g) a circle ; (h) radius ; 
(i) diameter. 

333. What are (a) the base; (&) altitude; (c) perpen- 
dicular; (d) solid? 

334. Define (o) area; (&) cubical contents. 

335. (a) State the rule for finding the perimeter of any 
surface, (b) What is the relation between the hypote- 
nuse and the other sides of a right triangle? 

336. How is the area of a triangle determined? 

337. What is the rule for finding the area of any paral- 
lelogram? 

338. Show how the circumference of a circle is found. 

339. What is the rule for finding the area of a circle? 

340. The area of a circle being known, state how to find 
(a) the diameter, (b) the radius. 

341. (a) How long are the sides of the equilateral 
triangle whose perimeters are as follows: 128 ft. 9 in.; 
124 yds. ; 9 ft. 6 in. (b) Find out the length of the side 
of a square whose perimeters are: 114 ft. 4 in.; 69 yds. 
2 ft. ; 236 rds. 8 ft. 

342. (a) Explain the difference between a two-foot 
square and two square feet, (b) Which is larger, and by 
how much, 9 sq. ft. or a 9 foot square ? 

343. What is the diameter of a circle whose circumfer- 
ence is 141.372 ft.? 



160 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

344. A tree was broken 24 feet from its root; and 
struck the ground 18 feet from the ba'se. How high was 
the tree? 

345. What is the amount of fencing required to enclose 
a square farm which contains 107 A. 41 sq. rds.? 

346. What is the diagonal distance of a square room 
whose sides are 40 feet? 

347. A line 140 feet long is stretched from a tree 84 
feet high to the opposite bank of the river. What is the 
width of the river? 

348. Find the area of a square field whose side is 120 
rods. 

349. The hypotenuse of a right-triangle is 90 yards and 
the perpendicular distance is 72 yards. What is the base? 

350. One side of a rectangular field is 40 rods ; the dis- 
tance between its opposite corners is 50 rods. What is 
the length of the other side? 

351. What is the area of a triangle whose base is 37 
feet and altitude 17 feet 6 inches? 

352. Two engines go in opposite directions, one 360 
miles south, and the other 270 miles east; how far apart 
are they? 

353. If one side of a rectangular field containing 80 
acres is 160 rods, what is the length of the other side? 

354. What is the area of a circle whose diameter is 80 
yards ? 

355. A square field contains 102 A. 80 sq. rods. What 
is the length of a side? 

356. The diameter of a cistern is 15 feet. What is the 
length of the circumference? 

357. A triangular field whose base is 50 yards and alti- 
tude 40 yards is sold at a profit of $2.75 a sq. rd. What is 
the amount of profit? 

358. 14,161 trees are planted in a square field, 1 foot 
of space being allowed between the trees. What was the 
length of a side? How many trees were planted on a 
side? What is the area of the field? 

359. An army of 56,644 men are formed in a square. 
How many soldiers on the outside square? 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. Idlf 

360. What is a (a) prism ; (b) triangular prism ; (c) 
cylinder? 

361. Show how to find the surface of a cylinder or a 
prism. 

362. What is the lateral surface of a prism whose al- 
titude is 22 feet, and base a pentagon each side of which 
is 6 feet? 

363. A triangular prism is 9^ feet high ; the sides of its 
base are 5, 6, 8 feet respectively. What is the surface of 
the prism? 

364. What is the convex surface of a cylinder 16 feet 
in circumference and 40 feet long? 

365. Show how to find the contents of a prism or a 
cylinder. 

366. What is the solidity of a prism whose base is 6 
feet square, and whose altitude is 15 feet? 

367. Required the cubical contents of a triangular 
prism whose height is 25 feet and the area of whose base 
is equal to 460 sq. ft.? 

368. What is the solidity of a cylinder, the diameter be- 
ing 6 feet and height 20 feet? 

369. What is (a) a pyramid; (b) cone? (c) Explain 
the process of finding the contents of a cone or a 
pyramid. 

370. Required the contents of a pyramid, the base of 
which is a perfect square 12 feet long, and the altitude 
30 feet? 

371. What are the contents of a cone the area of whose 
base is 1,863 sq. ft., and its altitude 33 1/^ feet? 

372. What is a sphere or globe? 

373. Give the rule for finding (o) the surface of a 
sphere; (b) the solidity. 

374. (a) What is the surface of the earth, the diameter 
in round numbers being 8,000 miles? (b) What is its 
solidity when the surface is 2,010,624,000,000 square 
miles? 

375. What is the solidity of a 10-in. sphere? 

376. What is the volume of a sphere whose radius is 
2 feet? 



162 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

377. Find the solid contents of a cylinder, the diameter 
of which is 10 inches and the altitude 18 inches. 

378. How many times as large as a cone with the same 
dimensions is the cylinder in 377? 

379. Find the area of an isosceles triangle whose sides 
are 75 feet and the altitude 45 feet. 

380. What is the solidity of a cone the altitude of 
which is 16 feet and the circumference of the base 3 feet? 

381. The diameters of two circles are to each other as 2 
is to 3 ; the smaller one contains 20 sq. in. ; how many 
square inches in the larger? 

382. Give the equivalents in the metric system of (a) 
the yard ; (b) pint ; (c) acre ; (d) mile ; (e) pound. 

383. Name the principal units in (a) measure of 
length; (b) measure of surface; (c) measure of volume; 
(d) measure of capacity ; (e) weight. 

384. What is (a) a liter; (&) a gram; (c) stere ; (d) 
kilo? 

385. How many kilos of oil would a tank contain, the 
dimensions being 5 meters by 4 meters by 3 meters, the 
weight of the oil being 92% of the weight of the water? 
(A liter of water weighs a kilogram — 1,000 grams.) 

386. A bottle filled with water weighs 1.170 kilos. The 
weight of the bottle is 420 grams. What is the capacity 
of the bottle in liters? 

387. Find the profit on a pile of wood 20 meters long, 
4 meters wide, 8 meters high, bought at 12 francs per 
stere, and sold at 4 francs per 100 kilos, the weight of the 
wood being .42 as much as the weight of water. 

388. Find the weight of 17 liters of water in pounds. 

389. A vat is 4.5 meters long and 18 centimeters deep. 
It will hold 605.88 lbs. of water. What is its width in 
decimeters? 

390. Bought 560 bushels of grain at $1.70 per hektoliter, 
and sold it at 90 cents per bushel. What was my total 
gain and my gain per cent? 

391. If a pound of butter is worth 5 quarts of milk, how 
many liters of milk should a kilogram of butter be worth? 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 163 

392. State how many cubic inches in (a) gallon ; (b) 
a bushel. 

393. How many gallons of water in a tank 3 feet by 5 
feet by 4 feet? 

394. How many bushels can go into a bin measuring 
4>^ feet by 8 feet by 10% feet? 

395. How many bushels will go into a vat that can 
hold 2,048 gallons? 



164 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



TEST QUESTIONS FROM ENTRANCE EXAMINA- 
TION PAPERS OF VARIOUS COLLEGES. 

1. Find the greatest common divisor of 315, 504, 411. 

2. Find the square root of 2 to the nearest ten-thou- 
sandth. 

3. A wall which was to be 36 feet high was raised 9 feet 
in 6 days by 16 men ; how many men will be needed to 
finish the work in 4 days? 

4. A tradesman marks his goods at 25 per cent above 
the cost, and deducts 12 per cent of the amount of any 
customer's bill, for cash. What per cent does he make? 

5. A tunnel is 2 miles 21 chains 13.2 yards long. Find 
its length in meters. [1 mile=1.61 kilometers.] 

6. Simplify 

%X92/, 

7. Find the value in cubic decimeters of ^^3 of 87 cu. 
meters, 62 cu. decimeters, 300 cu. centimeters. 

8. If 27 men, working 10 hours a day, do a piece of work 
in 14 days, how many hours a day must 12 men work, 
to do the same amount in 45 days? 

9. How many meters in 25 feet? 

10. Arrange in order of magnitude, ^%5, ^%5, 0.89. 
IL Add (^X/5X%), yi5, Va, and %o. 



(el-'O 



12. Divide I -^^—y^ J by % 



711- 



13. Find the fourth term of a proportion of which the 
first, second, and third terms are, respectively, 3.81, 0.056, 
1.67. 

14. Reduce 133 sq. rd. 8 sq. ft. to a decimal of an acre. 

15. In a board 4 meters long and 0.4 meters wide, how 
many square decimeters? 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 165 

34/ 

16. Divide (^ of %6 of %) by -^, and add the quo- 
tient to M— Ko. /lo 

17. Find the L. C M. and the G. C. D. of 6, 8, 20, and 
36. 

18. Find, to three decimal places, the number which 
has to 0.649 the same ratio which 58 has to 634. 

19. A man bought a piece of ground containing 0.316 
A. at 53 cents a square foot ; what did he pay for the 
piece? 

20. A grocer buys sugar at 18 cents a kilo, and sells it 
at 1 cent per 50 grams ; how much per cent does he gain? 

21. Define a fraction. Give the rule for the addition of 
fractions, and the reason for each step of the operation. 

22. Reduce 126 grams to ounces, 63^ yd. to meters. 

23. From ^4 of a gallon take lj4 oi a. pint. What dif- 
ference, if any, between the subtraction of compound 
numbers and that of simple ones? Between the subtrac- 
tion of fractions and that of integers? 

24. If 30 lb. of cotton will make 3 pieces of muslin 42 
yd. long and % yd. wide, how many pounds will it take 
to make 50 pieces, each containing 35 yd., l}i yd. wide? 

25. A, B, and C formed a partnership, and cleared $12,- 
000. A put in $8,000 for 4 mo., and then added $2,000 for 
6 mo. ; B put in $16,000 for 3 mo., and then withdrawing 
half his capital, continued the remainder 5 mo. longer; 
C put in $13,500 for 7 mo. How divide the profit? 

26. Find the sum of 314, 6%, 8%5, 65%, reduce the 
fractional part to a decimal and extract the square root 
of the result. 

27. $1,200 includes a sum to be invested and a commis- 
sion of 5% of the sum invested; what is the sum in- 
vested? 

28. Find the sum and product of %, ^3, y%. 

29. What is the difference between the true and bank 
discount of $250, due 10 months hence, at 7% ? 

30. Subtract thirty million twenty-six thousand three 
from 45,007,021. Find what number must be added to the 
difference to make one hundred million, and write the 
answer in words. 



166 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

31. Multiply 48.275 by 3.14159. 

32. I buy an article by avoirdupois weight and sell it at 
the same price per pound by Troy weight. Do I gain or 
lose and how many per cent? 

33. A note for $575 bearing interest at 5^/^% was given 
Sept. 1, 1891, for one year. What is the present worth 
of that note Jan. 26, 1892? 

34. The diameter of ai cylinder vessel is 42 centi- 
meters and its depth is 6^ decimeters ; how many liters 
of water will it hold and how many kilos will this water 
weigh ? 

35. Jan. 1 I deliver to a commission merchant 5,000 lbs. 
of butter to be sold on commission, and he advances me 
$500 on it. Jan. 18 he sells the butter at 25 cents a pound 
on 30 days' time and advances me $100 more. The rate of 
his commission is 1%. How much does he still owe me 
and when is it equitably due? 

36. Find the cost of a draft on Chicago for $1,000 at 60 
days' sight, money being worth 5% and exchange 1J4% 
premium. 

37. Constantinople is in longitude 28° 59' E. and Phila- 
delphia 75° 10' W. When it is 4 a. m. in Philadelphia 
what time is it at Constantinople? 

38. Define (a) concrete or denominate number ; (b) min- 
uend ; (c) factor ; (d) discount. Give an example of each. 

39. By how much does the cube of fifty-three hun- 
dredths exceed one millionth? 

40. What would it cost to dig a cellar 80 ft. X 35 ft. 
X 8ft. at $.84 per cubic yard ? 

41. Reduce 7 miles to kilometers. 

42. If the shadow of a post 6 ft. high is 4 ft. 6 in. long, 
what is the height of a tree whose shadow at the same 
time is 125 ft. long? (Solve by analysis.) 

43. Paid $50 for a cask of molasses containing 120 gal- 
lons. One-fifth of the molasses leaked out ; for how much 
must the remainder be sold per gallon to gain 10% on 
the purchase? 

44. The expenses of a charity concert were 40% of the 
receipts. The poor received $250. What were the ex- 
penses? 



QUESTIONS IN ARITHMETIC. 167 

45. What was the rate per cent of a tax of $52.88 on 
property assessed at $3,525.50? 

46. What is the premium on a building- valued at $3,000, 
insured for two-thirds of its value, at 2>4% ? 

47. A man borrows $9,675 at 6%, April 15, 1892, and 
buys flour at $6.25 a barrel. He sells the flour May 24, 
1892, at $7.84 a barrel and pays the borrowed money, in- 
cluding interest. How much does he gain? 

48. What are the present worth and the true discount 
of $500 payable in 6 months, 15 days, at 6% ? 

49. Find the length of a diagonal of a square whose 
side is 19 ft. (Give the answer to two decimal places.) 

50. How many bushels will a bin contain that is 9 ft. 
long, 4 ft. wide, 6 ft. deep ? 

51. Reduce ^ of ^ of ^^^ to a decimal, carrying out the 
operation to four places. 

52. If two men, working 8 hours, can carry 12,000 bricks 
to the height of 50 feet, how many bricks can one man, 
working 10 hours, carry to the height of 30 feet? 

53. I buy goods to the amount of $4,978.70, payable in 
4 months, with interest at 5%, and give my note with- 
out interest. What must be the face of the note? 

54. A man lost ^, ^, and ^ of his money, and then 
had $2,600 left; what sum had he originally, and how 
much per cent had he lost? 

55. Sold a fire engine for $7,050, and lost 6% on its 
cost; for how much ought I to have sold it to gain 12%? 

56. What sum of money put at interest 6 yr. 5 mo, 11 
days, at 7%, will gain $3,159.14? 

57. For what sum must a note be drawn at 60 days to 
net $1,200 when discounted at 5%? 

58. Extract the square root of 3,286.9835 to the fourth 
decimal place. 

59. A pension of $140 per year is four years in arrears. 
Find the amount now due at 5% compound interest. 

60. A owns %i of a farm worth $15,422, and sells Yz 
of his share. Find the value of what he has left. 

61. The valuation of property in a small town is $50,- 
000, and the expenses are $2,500. What is the rate? 
What is A's tax, his property being valued at $6,800? 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 



NOTATION AND NUMERATION. 



1. (a) Arithmetic is the science and art of numbers, (b) The 
science of numbers treats of the properties of numbers, (c) As an 
art it treats of the numbers in their relations, combinations and uses. 
(d) It is the practical work. 

2. (a) A unit is one. The term is used for a certain definite part 
of a quantity to determine the number of times that given part is 
used in the making up of the given quantity, (b) The yard; the 
pound or ton ; the acre, the square mile ; the cent or the dollar. 

3. A number is a unit or a collection of units. 

4. (o) Notation is the art of writing or expressing numbers by 
means of figures or letters. (&) Numeration is the art of naming 
or reading numbers that have been expressed by letters or figures. 

5. By words, figures, and letters. 

6. One, 1, I; five, 5, V; three hundred ninety-seven, 397, 
CCCXCVII ; one thousand nine hundred sixty-four, 1,964, MD- 
CCCCLXIV. 

7. The system in which figures are used, the values of the figures 
depending upon their relative positions, each place being ten times 
as great as the position immediately to the right of it. This is also 
known as the Arabic system, because it was taken from India and 
introduced into Europe by the Arabians about two thousand years 
ago. The symbols, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 0, are called the Arabic 
numerals. 

8. Units, tens, hundreds ; thousands — units, tens, hundreds ; mil- 
lions — units, tens, hundreds ; billions — units, tens, hundreds. 

9. Upon its position m the periods. The figure 6 has a value of 
tens in 67, and of 6 hundreds in 679, etc. 

10. Two hundred thirty-seven; eight thousand four hundred six- 
ty-nine; one hundred eighty-four thousand three hundred ninety- 
two ; eight millions nine ; one hundred forty-three million eight hun- 
dred ninety-two thousand nine hundred forty-nine. 

11. The Roman system uses seven capital letter symbols to repre- 
sent the following values: I, 1 ; V, 5 ; X, 10; L, SO; C, 100; D, 500; 
M, 1,000. The repetition of any letter repeats its value; a letter 
placed after another of greater value is to be added to the 
value of it, and a letter placed before another of greater value signi- 
fies that it is to be subtracted from the latter; as, D, 500; DC, 600; 
L, 50; XL, 40. Any letter placed between two letters of greater 

168 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 169 

value belongs to the latter sj^mbol. A dash or a line placed over a 
letter increases its value a thousand times. 

12. 53, 600, 610, 140, 44, 1890, 1909. 

13. Oip" aounfl-y mined two hundred twenty-eight million five 
hundred ninety-eight thousand six tons, etc.; two hundred twenty- 
six million, five hundred sixty-nine thousand, four hundred eighty- 
nine ; one hundred twenty-five million five hundred sixty-nine thou- 
sand six hundred tons, etc. 

14. 1897; $332,786,386; $325,465,957; $400,000,000 and $500,000.- 
000. 

FUNDAMENTAL RULES. 

15. Addition, +; subtraction, — ; multiplication, X; division, -f-. 

16. (a) Addition is the process of finding the sum of two or 
more numbers. (&) The addends are the numbers that are to be 
added, (c) The result of the addition. 

17. 352,027,824. 

18. 627,973. 

19. 446,875. 

20. 3,753,986,804 bushels. 

21. 556,167,384 tons. 

22. (fl) The process of finding the difference between two num- 
bers; or, finding how much greater one number is than another. 
(&) The number from which the smaller number is to be subtracted. 
(c) The number to be subtracted, (d) The remainder or differ- 
ence is the number by which one number is greater than the other. 

23. Add the remainder and either the minuend or the subtrahend. 
The sum is to be equal to the other number. 

24. (a) 15,387; (b) 14,438,532; (c) $240.89; (d) $10.93; (e) 
447,400. 

25. To subtract 568 from 799. 1 must be added to the 8 in the 
subtrahend to make the 9 in the minuend, therefore, put down 1 ; 
3 must be added to 6 in the subtrahend to make the 9 (in the ten's 
place) to make the 9, therefore put down the 3 ; 2 must be added to 
the 5 to make the 7 in the minuend (hundred's place), therefore 
put down the two. It is the method of adding to the subtrahend to 
make the minuend; the numbers added are the difference. 

26. $1,200. 

27. $4,357. 

28. (o) The process of taking one number a certain number of 
times, (b) The number which is multiplied, (c) The "number by 
which we multiply, (d) The result is called the product, 

476— (&) 
25-(c) 



11,900— (d) 

29. Multiplication is a shortened way of adding the same number 
a definite number of times. 

30. (a) 6,053,208. 
(b) 65,404,110. 



170 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(c) 104,721. 

(d) 2,758,104,175. 

31. $2,084. 

32. $22 gain. ' » « 

33. (a) Add as many O's to the right of the multiplicand as there 
are O's in the multiplier. (&) Multiply by ten and then take one- 
half of the product. Multiply this product by as many times as 5 
is contained in the multiplier; as, 326X35. 

326X10=3,260. 
HX 3,260= 1,630. 
5 into 35=7. 
7X1,630=11,410. 

34. 9,850; 876,400; 8,497,000; 217,574,000; 412,940; 1,801,920; 
11,475. 

35. (a) The process of finding out how many times one number 
is contained in another number, (b) The number by which we di- 
vide, (c) The number to be divided, (d) The result of the di- 
vision. Divisor 12)348=dividend 

29=quotient 

36. (a) 15)31,545 (b) 31,545-1-15 (c) 3i54^i5 

37. Short division always has a divisor less than 13; long division 
has the divisor greater than 12. 

38. By multiplying the quotient by the divisor. The product 
should equal the dividend. 

39. Division by one or more factors of the dividend. 

40. (a) 31. 

(b) 13021%75. 
(C) 273168/377. 

41. (a) 2,49321/05. 
(b) 72. 

(C) 3,011292/812. 

42. 4,854-^2,400. 2,400) 4,854=4,800-54 24|00) 48|54 

2 - 5y2400. 25^^400- 

43. 814i9%oo. 

44. 340 bbls. 

45. 80 bales. 

46. 88,541,016. 

47. 4.683,759 ; by 83,857,257. 

48. $621. 

49. I7 libraries. 

50. $20; $1,868 gain. 

51. $67. 

52. The tables by $11,380. 

53. 342 A.; 1,710 A. 

54. 18 and 1,026. 

55. 406 oxen. 

56. 30>^+ times. 

57. 19. 

58. $3,635. 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 171 

59. B, $5,243; C, $17,176; A. B, C, $23,684. 

60. $275. 

PROPERTIES OF NUMBERS. 

61. (a) A number not exactly divisible by any other number but 
itself and 1. (b) A number that is exactly divisible by another 
number other than itself and 1. (c) When they have no common 
divisor but 1. 

62. (a) One that does not refer to any particular thing. (&) One 
connected with a particular thing; as, 8 men. 

63. The numbers that when multiplied together give that number 
are called the factors of that number; as, 3X3X2 are the factors of 
18. 

64. (a) Any number that will divide another number is a divisor 
of that number, (b) A common divisor of two or more numbers 
will exactly divide all those numbers, (c) The largest number that 
will divide two or more numbers without leaving a remainder is 
called the greatest common divisor (G. C. D.) of the numbers. 

65. 2X5; 2X2X5; 3X2X3; 2x2X3X3. 

2X3X7; 3X3X3X2; 2X2X31; 3X5X2X5; 2x2x5x13; 
3X3X13X7. 

66. 72=?x?x?x3x3 
144= ?x^x^x2x?x?x 

The factors crossed out are common to both numbers ; their prod- 
uct, 72, is the G. C. D. 
2 

72^ 144 Divide the larger number by the smaller ; if the quotient 
is a whole number the divisor is the G. C. D. When there is a re- 
mainder use that remainder as a divisor and the previous divisor 
as the dividend ; and continue that until a divisor is secured that will 
exactly divide the previous divisor used as a dividend. The last 
divisor so obtained is the G. C. D. 





576)960(1 




576 




384)576(1 




384 




G. C. D.=192)384(2 




384 


(a) 21. 




(6) 15. 




(c) 25. 




id) 12. 




(e) 2,040. 




(f) 192. 




1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 


11, 13, 17, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61 



67. 



68. 
67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97. 

69. By 2 when the last figure is an even number. 
By 3 if the sum of the digits is divisible by 3. 
By 4 if the last two right hand figures are divisible by 4. 



172 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

By 5 if the last digit is 5 or 0. 

By 6 if it is even and the sum of the digits is divisible by 3. 

By 8 when the number represented by the last three figures is 

so divisible. 
By 9 when the sum of all its digits is so divisible. 
By 10 when the number ends in 0. 
By 11 if the difference between the sums of its even-place 

digits and odd-place digits is so divisible. 

70. (a) Any number which is exactly divisible by another num- 
ber is a multiple of that number, (b) A common multiple of two 
or more numbers is exactly divisible by those numbers, (c) The 
least common multiple (L. C. M.) is the smallest common multiple 
of the numbers. 

71. (a) 2 ) 10-30 

5) 5-15 



1- 3 L. C. M.=:2X5X1X3=30. 

(b) 3 )9-12-50 
2)3- 4-50 



3- 2-25 L. C. M.=3X2X3X2 

X2S=900. 
(c) 1,728; (d) 770; (e) 1,890; (/) 8,712. 

COMMON FRACTIONS. 

72. (a) One or more of the equal parts into which a unit is di- 
vided, (b) When the denominator is not expressed and is 10 or 
a multiple of 10 by itself, (c) One in which the denominator is 
always expressed. 

73. (o) That part of the fraction that shows into how many equal 
parts the units have been divided. (&) The number above the hori- 
zontal line that shows how many of these equal parts are being used. 

7=numerator 
9=denominator 
(c) The numerator and the denominator. 

74. (a) When the numerator is a number less than the denomi- 
natoi'. (b) When the numerator is a number equal to or greater 
than the denominator ; % and i%0 or i%2. 

75. ^a) An integer is a whole number, (b) A mixed number 
consists of an integer and a fraction, as 5%. 

76. One-half ; one-third ; four-fifths ; five-sixteenths ; thirty-two 
seventy-fifths ; thirty-four one hundred seventy-fifths ; three hundred 
forty-five one-thousandths ; seven hundred twenty-five thousandths. 

77. Cancellation is the division of the numerator and the denomi- 
nator by the same number or equal factors. 

78. 1/4 ; Vs; i/i2o. 

If we divide the original fraction by the equal factor 12 we shall 
get the fraction %, equal iit value to the ^^-^e- 
80. (a) A change in the form of the fraction but not in its value. 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 173 

(b) Where the terms have been divided by the same factor (as in 
cancellation) we have reduction to lower terms, (c) Reduction to 
higher terms consists in mukiplying the terms by the same number. 

81. On the principle that dividing or multiplying both terms of 
the fraction does not alter the fraction's value. 

i§._§. 3xl6_ 48 

^^ 80 ~5 5x16 80 

82. (a) Increases the value of the fraction. (b) Divides the 
fraction by the multiplier. 

83. (a) Divides the value of the fraction; (&) Multiplies the 
fraction. 

84. % to be reduced to 64ths. Divide the denominator 8 into the 
denominator of the required fraction ; this gives 8. Multiply the 
numerator of the given fraction by the 8, thus getting 24. This is 
the numerator of the required fraction, -%4. 

85. (a) 1914; 15/21; 20^8; 40/56. 

(b) 49123; 19b; 2%o; %o. 

(C) mi9; 39k; 109170. 

86. (a) i%o; %o. 

(b) 109140; "^0^40; 30/140. 

(c) 00/90; ^%o; ^%o; 129I80; 14^80 ; i%o. 

87. (a) 914; %4. 

(b) 19I6; 3/ie. 

(c) %;%. 

88. Find the G. C. D. of 65 and 70, which is 5. Divide both 
terms by 5, giving i%4. 

89. (a) ^. 

(b) His. 

(c) %o. 

(d) H. 

(e) mo. 

(f) %. 

90. Reduce 12'i;'7 to an improper fraction. In one unit there are % ; 
12 units equal 8^(; add the ^, and we get s%. 

91. (0) 108/9. 
(&) 5%5. 

(c) is^is. 

(d) 1229111. 

92. Divide the numerator of the improper fraction by the denom- 
inator. 

93. (a) 3%. 

(b) 10. 

(c) 7. 

94. Add 5j^ to IQi.^. Reduce to least common denominators ; add 
numerators and place over the common denominator ; add the whole 
numbers. 

5H=% 
15 % 



174 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



95. 


(a) 1^2. 
(&) 2i%4. 

(c) 39/2. 

(d) 3332^43. 

(e) 4197^0. 








96. 


$73/5. 








97. 


$489%. 








98. 


$554ii%20. 








99. 


As in addition of fractions 


;, excepting that the numerator and 


whole 


; numbers are 


to be subtracted. 








l%o- 


:2iio 








7/1.5= 


mo 








1 


%o 


100 


'. (a) Vw. 

(b) 1%5. 

(c) $157/20. 

(d) 878/15. 

(e) 21711/16. 








101 


. 3234 lbs. 








102 


. 87%o A. 








103 


. $29%. 








104 


. (a) 3;^X9=^ 


5x9^^2^^ 


r=3% 






(&) %XW25-- 


1 2 


=%. 






^x^^' 








1 5 








(C) 3^6X1% 


= ix- 


li=:l 


%8. 



1 

(d) l5^X37/^6 = -f-x||=8%x2=8%6=55^6. 
2 

105. Multiply the numerators for a new numerator ; multiply all 
the denominators for a new denominator. Reduce all mixed num- 
Ijers to improper fractions, and cancel where possible. If the prod- 
uct is an improper fraction reduce to whole or mixed number. 

106. (a) Tie. 

(&) 1/12. 

(c) 259/igoo. 

(d) I6V2. 

(e) % 

(f) 3/28. 

107. $871/4. 

108. $13.05. 

109. 2011/4 sq. ft. 

110. H; Ya. 

111. %. 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 175 

112. 790 lbs. tin; 3,160 lbs. copper. 

113. $6,180%. 

114. Invert the divisor fraction and proceed as in multiplication. 
Where the divisor is an integer, multiply the dividend fraction by 
the reciprocal of the divisor. (% is the reciprocal of 5.) 

3 

(a) i%6-^5=^X-|-=%6. 
1 

3 1 

(&) 1%6-^M = ^X-|-=%=1H. 
2 1 

1 

4 

(d) 15^-5/8=-|-x4-=''^5=24%. 

115. (0) %08. 

(c) 21. 

(d) 11^5. 

(e) 5%. 

116. 30 cloaks. 

117. 5% mos. 

118. li/s yds. 

119. 1721/58 tons. 

120. 16%. 

121. (a) A compound fraction is a fraction of a fraction; as, 54 
of %. (&) A fraction containing either an integer or a fraction or 
a mixed number as its numerator or denominator; as, }i 

2%. 

122. (a) %o. 

(&) ye. 

123. 425/2022. 

124. (o) 5^. 
(&) %. - 
(O Hi. 

125. 10 is what part of 15? 1 is Vxs of 15; 10 is I9i5 of 15 or %. 
By comparison we see that 15 the denominator as the resulting 
fraction has the word of in front of it in the problem ; hence, the 
number which follows immediately the word of becomes the de- 
nominator, and the other number, the numerator of the resulting 
fraction. 



176 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



126. (a) 4^ 




(c) %. 












(&) 1%. 




(d) 147^26. 










127. (fl) 5. 


















(&) %. 


















128. $4%. 


















129. % lb, or slightly more than 6 ounces. 










130. 24 is % of what 


number? Since 


24= 


:% of 


■ the 


; number, % 


of the number equals Ys of 24: 


=8; % 


or the whole number 


equals 5 


times M of 24=% of 24= 


=40. 
















131. (a) 28. 


















(b) 45. 


















(0 256. 


















(d) 562^. 


















132. 113^4 


















133. 33,250 men. 


















134. $li%8. 


















135. 6/i3. 




















DECIMALS. 












136. (a) See 72 b. 


G 

CI) 






en 

43 


CO 

c 

tn 






c 
o 




;-4 






•S 


3 
O 




CO 


s 




4-> 








J3 




C 


■§ 




c 




C/3 


CO 

3 


IM 




_o 


M-H 




"o 


05 


J3 


O 


o 




•^ 


o 


e 1^ 


a 


J3 


p3 


"S 


CO 


CO 


e 


CO 


thousa 
hundre 
tens 
units 


•X3 


tenths 
hundre 


in 

3 
O 


O 

C 




o 

■g 


M-l' 
O 

CO 

C 

<L1 


•a 

G 
3 
J3 



(&) 4 



1 



1 



137. (o) Twenty-five hundredths. 

(&) Three and three hundred seventy-five thousandths. 

(c) Seventy-three and seven hundred ninety-six thousandths. 

(d) Two hundred fifty-seven and four thousand six hundred fif- 
ty-seven and one-half ten thousandths. 

{e) Eight and nine thousand eight hundred seventy-two ten thou- 
sandths. 

138. (a) .3 139. (a) .485=485^ooo=^%oo. 
(&) .04 ^ (&) 21^100. 

(c) .385 (c) 2%g. 

(rf) 5.4 (d) %. 

{e) 3.375 - (O 3"%oo. 

(/) 82.00037 - (/) 1023/40. 

(^) IMooo. 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 177 

140. (a) .875 
(&) .266%. 

(C) .611/27. 

(d) 3.9 
(^) 2.42%. 
(/) .937/2. 

141. (a) 147.611 
(b) 164.673 

142. (a) 14.9063 

(b) 49.06 

(c) 2,341.3375 

(d) 34.1537 

143. .375X2.5 Multiply as you would with integers. Mark off, 
beginning at the right and counting toward the left, as many places 
as there are in both multiplicand and multiplier. Add O's where 
necessary. 

144. (a) 105.764 

(b) 46.25 

(c) 1,111.05 
id) 15. 

{e) .4224 
(f) 3,522.5 

145. 469.0625 bu. 

146. $686.71875 

147. (o) Multiply first by the 10 factor and then by the remain- 
ing factors. 

(b) 336.5 

(c) 4,608. 

(d) 622,062.5 

148. Dividing it by 10 or some power of 10. 

149. (a) 43) 275,950.00 (6,41 7.44%3 

(b) 234.9 

(c) 365.6 

(d) 31,6751/5. 

(e) 33. 

150. Divide by the 10 factor or power of ten factor, and then by 
the remaining factors (opposite process of, see 147). 

(a) 2.05% 

(b) 28.2 

(c) 82.222% 

(d) 3,779%3 

151. 44.409 rods. 

152. 27 stoves. 

153. 24.5 tons. 

154. $25.47 per A. 

155. $7,999.76. 

156. 1,050. 

157. 608 bu. 

158. $79.20. 

159. 23^5. 



178 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

160. 120 hrs. 

161. Buggy, $240; horse, $330. 

162. 168. 

163. mi das. 

164. A, $4,080; B, $5,440. 

165. WAc. 

166. 14 T. 

167. 20c. 

168. $4,100. 

169. $8.50. 

170. $63,541.25. 

171. 1 year, 48 weeks. 

172. 1,680 pupils. 

173. $12.60. 

174. 6 men. 

175. $142.80 gain. 

176. 5,422H yds. 

177. Father, $64^ ; S, $38?^. 

178. 8%i hrs. 

179. $6.23. 

DENOMINATE NUMBERS. 

180. (a) Any number used with any weight or measure ; as, 6 
lbs., $7. (&) Any denominate number in which two or more units 
of the same table or measure are expressed ; as, 3 ft., 2 in. 

181. (a) The changing to lower denominations, (b) Changing 
to larger measures or weights. 

TABLES OF WEIGHTS AND MEASURES. 

Federal Money. 

10 mills -------- =:1 cent (ct.) 

10 cents -------- =1 dime (d.) 

10 dimes -------- =1 dollar ($) 

10 dollars -------- =1 eagle (E.) 

Long Measure. 

12 inches (in.) ----- =1 foot (ft.) 

3 feet -------- =1 yard (yd.) 

5y2 yards ------ =1 rod (rd.) 

16^ feet ------- =1 rod 

40 rods ------- =1 furlong (fur.) 

8 furlongs ------ =1 rnile (mi.) 

320 rods ------- =1 rnile (mi.) 

1,760 yards ------- =1 rnile 

5,280 feet - - - =1 mile 



Square Measure, 
sq. ir 

y squill c icci - 

20% square yards 



144 square inches (sq. in.) - - =1 square foot (sq. ft.) 
9 square feet ------ =1 square yard (sq. yd.) 

- - - =1 square rod (sq. rd.) 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 



179 



160 square rods ----- =1 acre (A.) 

640 acres, or 1 section - - - =1 square mile (sq. mi.) 

Cubic Measure. 
1728 cubic inches (cu. in.) - - i=l cubic foot (cu. ft.) 
27 cubic feet ------ =1 cubic yard (cu. yd.) 

Liquid Measure. 

4 gills (gi.) ------- =1 pint (pt.) 

2 pints --------- =1 quart (qt.) 

4 quarts -- =1 gallon (gal.) 

Dry Measure. 
2 pints (pt.) ------- =:1 quart (qt.) 

8 quarts -------- =1 peck (pk.) 

4 pecks -------- =1 bushel (bu.) 

Avoirdupois Weight. 
16 ounces (oz.) ----- =1 pound (lb.) 

100 pounds ------- =1 hundredweight (cwt.) 

2000 pounds =1 ton (T.) 

Time Measure. 
60 seconds (sec.) ----- =1 minute (min.) 

60 minutes -------=1 hour (hr.) 

24 hours -------- =1 day 

7 days -------- —1 week (wk.) 

365 days (or 52 weeks, 1 day) =1 common year (yr.) 

366 days -------- =il leap year 

ICK) years -- =1 century (cen.) 

Miscellaneous Tables. 

12 things -=1 dozen (doz.) 

12 dozen -------- :=l gross 

12 gross -------- =zl great gross (gt. gross) 

20 things -------- =1 score 

24 sheets of paper ==1 quire (qu.) 

20 quires --=1 ream (rm.) 

182. (a) 102 ft. 

(b) 176 pts. 

(c) 60y2 sq. yds. 

(d) 187 yds., 561 ft. 

183. (a) 2,5781^ cu. ft. 
(&) 74 pks. ; 1,184 pts. 

(c) 1,920 sq. rds. 

(d) 1,091 sq. ft. 

(e) 3,340 A.; 534,400 sq. rds. 

184. (a) 1,056 ft. 

(&) 23 gal., 2 qts., 1 pt. 

(c) 284 A., 71 sq. rds., 3 sq. yds., 3 sq. ft, 36 sq. in. 

id) 1,250 lbs. or 12 cwt, SO lbs. 



180 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



185. 


(aj 120 ft; 40 yds.; 7%i rds. 




(b) 25 lbs., 9 oz. 




(c) 1 bbl., 21 gal., 1 qt., 1 pt. 




(cf) 28 T., 12 cwt. 94 lbs. 




(e) 2 hrs., 4 min., 24 sec. 




(/) 1 sq. yd., 1 sq. ft., 60 sq. in. 


186. 


(«) % mi. 




(&) 3/ii rd. 


187. 


(fl) $%ooo. 




(b) l,il52. 




(c) 3^60. 




(d) 1/280. 




(e) %6000- 


188. 


(a) 1^24. 




(b) i/g. 




(C) 31^7. 


189. 


141 mi., 114 rds., 3 yds. 


190. 


55 gal., 2 qts. 


191. 


793 lbs., 5 oz. 


192. 


196 bu., 2 pks., 7 qts. 


193. 


17 lbs., 8 oz. 


194. 


8911^6 yds. 


195. 


145 A., 47 sq. rds. 


196. 


46 yds., 31 in. 


197. 


(a) 56 lbs., 4 oz. 




(b) 24 yds., 9 in. 




(c) 295 sq. yds., 1 sq. ft. 




(d) 618 yds., 2 ft, 3 in. 


198. 


546^ hrs. 


199. 


99 T., 704 lbs., 8 oz. 


200. 


6 bbls., 7 gal., 3 qts., 1 pt. 


201. 


(a) 26 ft., 54/^ in. 




(&) 37 lbs., 15 oz. 




(c) 1 da., 6 hrs. 




(d) 25 lbs., % oz. 




(e) 12%. 


202. 


25 bu., 1 pk., 4 qts. 



203. 26 spoons. 

204. 63i%i revolutions. 

LONGITUDE AND TIME. 

205. (a) The distance east or west of a given meridian, usually 
reckoned from the Prime Meridian of Greenwich, England. (&) 
180°; (c) 0°. 

206. (o) 12 hrs. (b) Fractional part of a second. 

207. There are 360° in any circle drawn around the earth from 
east to west, and since it takes 24 hours for the earth to make a 
complete rotation on its axis, it is seen that the earth rotates a dis- 
tance of 15° in 1 hour; 15' or J4° in 1 minute of time. 

208. (a) If the two places are both in the same longitude, i e.. 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 181 

E. or W., subtract and find their difference in degrees, etc. Divide 
by 15° to get the difference in time. When the places are in dif- 
ferent longitudes, add their longitudes and proceed as above. The 
place that is farther east will have the later hour, (b) Where the 
times are both A. M. or P. M. subtract and then multiply the dif- 
ference in time by 15° to the hour. \¥hen one time is A. M. and the 
other P. M. add their differences from noon, 12. Multiply the time 
by 15° to the hour as above. 

209. 6°. 

210. 12.34.47 P. M. 

211. (a) 5 hrs., 45 min., 16 sec; (b) 86°, 19', 24" long. 

212. 5 mos., 25 das. 

213. 216 das. 

214. 67 yrs., 9 mos., 22 das. 

BILLS. 

215. (a) A written statement, arranged in a certain way, to show 
the quantity of goods bought, their price, and the total cost of their 
purchases, (b) The person or firm selling the goods; the debtor 
is the purchaser, (c) The time during which to pay the bill and 
the discount allowed on the bill. 

216. (a) Net means that no discount on the price is allowed. 
(b) Discount is a fixed percentage of the cost that is allowed to be 
deducted from the cost, (c) 60 das. means that the purchaser has 
60 days' time during which to pay the bill, (d) 4 off means that 
the purchaser is entitled to a discount of 4%; (e) C. O. D., that 
the amount of the bill is to be paid on delivery of the goods. 

217. $24.59. 

218. $8.12. 

219. $192.46. 

PERCENTAGE. 

220. (o) "By" or "on the hundred"; e. g., a man loses 5 per 
cent, he loses 5 one hundredths. (&) 7 per cent, 7 hundredths, 7%, 
yioo, .07. 

221. (o) %oo; .09. 

(b) 38/100 ; .38. 

(c) 49ioo; .40. 
^8/]oo; .48. 

^^- 321^ 




A7SA. 

222. 100%; 800%; 1,050%; 625%; 260%; 312^%. 

223. Reduce the fractions to those having a denominator 100; 
then write their equivalents in per cents. 

224. Write the equivalent of the per cent in the form of a com- 
mon fraction with the denominator 100; reduce to the lowest terms, 
and perform the reduction, as in 138 and 140. 



182 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

225. (a) The number of which some per cent is to be found 
(b) The number of hundredths to be taken, (c) The result found 
by taking the product of the base by the rate. 

$500. base 

.OS rate 

$40.00 percentage 

226. (c) $9. 

ib) 24.84 mi. 

(c) $52.65. 

(d) $109. 

227. $77.08. 

228. 9.765 gals. 

229. 2405^ lbs. 

230. (a) 1 is %5 of $15; $10=i9i5 of $1S=?^=66%%. 33j^%; 

10%. 

(b) 257o, 12^%, 3%2%. 
(O 5%, 1^%. 

231. 16^%. 

232. 30i%3%. 

233. (a) 1,000. 
(&) 375. 

(c) 4,000. 

(d) 100. 

(e) 399%2. 

234. (a) 100. 
(&) 200. 

(c) $50. 

(d) 1. 

235. $5,000. 

236. $1,920. 

237. 3,000 men. 

238. 360,000. 

239. 10,350 men. 

240. $3,500. 

241. $3,878.40. 

242. %. 

243. %o. 

244. 400. 

245. 5,050 men. 

246. 372 sheep. 

247. 7,000. 

APPLICATIONS OF PERCENTAGE. 

248. (a) The amount received by a person for buying or selling 
for another, (b) The commission charged by a broker is called 
brokerage, and is generally % oi 1% oi the par value of the stocks 
or bonds bought or sold. 

249. $31.14. 

250. $684.75 ; $11,765.25. 

251. Vifo. 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 183 

252. $1,500; $1,432.50. 

253. 50%. 

254. 60%. 

255. (a) Insurance is a guarantee by one party to pay a certain 
sum of money to another in case of loss or damage by fire, death, 
etc. (&) The policy is the written contract given to the insured. 
(c) The sum paid for the insurance. 

256. $28.75. 

257. $197.62. 

258. $27,800. 

259. (o) Taxes laid on goods imported into the country, (b) The 
list of these duties is called the tariff, (c) A duty imposed accord- 
ing to the weight or bulk of the goods without reference to their 
value, (d) One assessed on the value of the goods. 

260. $1,440. 

261. $3,132. 

262. $3,500. 

263. $12.99. 

264. $2.75 (45%) by 10c. 

265. $446.42. 

266. $216. 

267. $197.51 ( a deduction of 30%). 

268. $45. 

INTEREST AND APPLICATION. 

269. (c) Money paid for the use of money, (b) It is reckoned 
as a certain per cent of the money borrowed. 

270. (a) The sum of money borrowed, (b) The per cent of in- 
terest to be paid, (c} The principal plus the interest. 

271. Simple interest is the interest on the principal only, while 
compound interest is the interest on the amount. 

272. (a) $47.60. 

(b) $52,535. 

(c) $29.68. 

(d) $33.75. 

(e) $3.13. 

(f) $13.20. 

(g) $475.33. 
(h) $5.91. 
(0 $4.07. 
(/) $24.16. 

273. The interest at 6% on $1.00 for 1 year equals $.06; for one 
month, $.005; for 6 days, $.001, and for one day, $.000%; hence, 
in computing interest by this method each month is considered as 
having 30 days, and the year 360 days. 

To find the interest on $624 for 2 yrs., 7 mos., 15 das., at 6%. 
Interest on $1.00 for 2 yrs.=$0.12 
7 mos.= .035 
15 das.= .0025 
For 2 yrs., 7 mos., 15 das.=:$0.157S 



184 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

On $624=624X$.lS75=i$98.28 
When the interest is 9%. 
%X$98.28^$147.42. 

274. $2.54. 

275. $1,676. 

276. $1,224. 

277. $4,523. 

278. $45,053. 

279. (a) A note (or promissory note) is a written promise to 
pay a given sum of money at a given date with or without interest. 

(b) One that can be sold or assigned to another, (c) One that 
cannot be given, sold or assigned to another. 

280. (a) The sum of money to be paid, (b) The face plus the 
interest, (c) The day on which the note is to be paid, (d) More 
than the legal rate of interest in that state. 

281. (a) The person to whom the note is to be paid, (b) The 
person who signs the note. 

282. (a) The interest taken in advance by a bank on a loan made 
by it. (b) The face of the note less the discount. 

283. $69.44. 

284. $1,285.94. 

285. 6y3%. 

286. 63/3%- 

287. 6%. 

288. 8%. 

289. $952.81. 

290. $159.39. 

291. $360.55; $1,665.55. 

292. (a) Discount (trade discount) is a deduction or allowance 
made on the cost of any goods, (b) The per cent of discount. 

(c) The total or gross amount less the discount is called (d) the 
net amount. 

293. Commercial discount is 6% of $100, or $6.00. True dis- 
count equals 100% plus 6%=106%i=:$100. The principal or present 
worth equals $94.34, the true discount being $5.66. 

294. The sum which when put out at interest will amount to the 
given amount at the end of the specified time. 

295. $462.96. 

296. $4,000. 

297. (a) The money invested by one or more persons in a busi- 
ness, (b) This stock is divided into a number of equal parts, each 
part being called a share, the value of each share usually being 
$100. (c) A bond is a note issued by a corporation in payment 
for a loan, specifying the amount, the rate of interest, security and 
the date of maturity, (d) A corporation is a company which has 
a charter issued by a state to conduct business as an individual. 

298. (a) Par value is the face value of the stock, the amount 
written in the share, (b) The amount for which the stock will sell 
in the open market, (c) Stock with a market or selling value above 
par is said to be at a premium, (d) When below par it is said to 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 185 

be at a discount, (e) An assessment is the amount that each share 
pays in case of a deficit. 

299. (a) The total earnings are called the gross earnings, (b) 
The gross earnings less the expenditures, (c) A specified amount 
of money paid to each share of stock or out of the earnings. 

300. $360. 

301. $2,250. 

302. $1,710. 

303. $4,290, 

304. 207«. 

305. 15%. 

306. 12y2% ; 87H%. 

307. 6K%. 

308. 40 shares. 

309. (a) A system of the payment of money by means of drafts 
or orders on a banking house in the city where the money is pay- 
able, (b) A written order on one party for the payment of a speci- 
fied sum of money to a second party, (c) One in which all the 
parties are residents in the same country, (d) Where the drawee 
and payee are residents of a foreign country, (e) The person mak- 
ing the draft, (f) The one directed to pay the amount of money 
is the drawee ; the one to whom tke money is to be paid is called 
the payee. 

310. 
No. 38,679. 

FIRST NATIONAL BANK OF ILLINOIS. 

Chicago, 111., July 8, 1910. 
Pay to the order of John Lane $59509ioo. 

Five Hundred Ninety-five ^9ioo Dollars. 

To the Park National Bank, A. X. M., 

New York City. Cashier. 

311. $2,070. 

312. $3,488.80. 

313. $4,187.19. 

RATIO A.ND PROPORTION. 

314. (a) The relation of one quantity to another of the same kind 
is called the ratio of the first to the second. (&) The expression 
of the equality of two or more ratios, (c) Where there is only one 
relation of ratio, (d) The product of two or more ratios, (e) One 
divided by a ratio, (f) The first term of the ratio, (g) The sec- 
ond term of the ratio. (Ji) The middle terms in a proportion, (i) 
The end terms in a proportion. 

315. The product of the means equals the product of the extremes. 

316. (a) 15H. 

(b) 12. 

(c) 20. 

(d) 75. 

(e) 3 men. 
(/) $96. 



186 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

317. $16.00. 

318. 460 rds. 

319. 300 hrs. 

320. $5,223.38. 

321. 31^ das. 

322. 750 lbs. 

323. A, $160; B, $340; C, $750; D, $1,250. 

324. A, $222%; B, 27779; A, %'my^; B, $1,222%. 

325. A, $4,021.86; B, $3,846.99; C, $4,131.15. 

326. A, $7,500; B, $6,000; C, $5,000. 

INVOLUTION AND EVOLUTION. 

327. (a) The process of computing the power of a number. (6) 
The process of finding the root of a given number, (c) One of 
the equal factors of that number. 

328. 3* means that 3 is to be raised to the fourth power; that is, 
3 is to be taken as the factor 4 times, and multiplied by itself as 
many times as the exponent of the power (4) indicates. 

3X3X3X3=81. 

329. (a) 125. 330. (a) 128. 
{h) 25,600,000,000. (&) 729. 
(c) 64. 331. (fl) 12. 
(rf) 24,400,000. (&) 36. 
(^) 17,424. (c) 41. 
(/) 51/16. (d) 25. 
(g) 32,768. ~ ie) 423. 
(/») 1501/16. (/) 64. 

MENSURATION. 

332. (a) A plane figure bounded by three sides. (&) A plane 
figure or flat surface bounded by four sides, (c) A quadrilateral 
with four equal sides and four right angles, {d) The sum of the 
distance around the plane figure. (^) A line connecting any two 
opposite angles in a plane figure. (/) The side in a right triangle 
opposite the right angle, (g) A plane figure, every point of which 
is equally distant from a point within called the center, (/i) The 
straight line drawn from the center to any point on the bounding 
line or circumference, (i) Any straight line drawn from one point 
on the circumference to another through the center; it is twice the 
length of the radius. 

333. (a) The side on which the plane figure rests, (fc) The per- 
pendicular distance from the base to the highest point in the plane 
figure, (c) Any line drawn to another so as to make a right angle 
is a perpendicular to that line, (d) Anything that has the three 
dimensions, length, breadth and thickness. 

334. (a) The number of units of surface found in any given sur- 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 



187 




Tyr"a»T\id 



Cone CjUnder 






Triangulair FViam' Qua.dnaT<4ular fVljm Pentogona) Vrism 

NUMbLR5REFLR TO QUE:6TI0N3 AND /il^WCR^j 



188 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

face, (b) The capacity of the solid or the number of cubic units 
in any given solid. 

335. (a) Add together the lengths of the sides. (6) The square 
of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other 
two sides. 

336. By taking one-half the product of the base by the altitude. 

337. Multiply the base by the altitude. 

338. By multiplying the diameter of the circle by 3.1416 or 3^ 
to get the approximate length of the circumference. 

339. Square the diameter and multiply by .7854 or square the 
radius and multiply by 3.1416. 

340. (a) Divide the area by .7854. The quotient v^rill be the 
square of the diameter. Take the square root of that, (b) Divide 
the diameter by 2, to get the radius. Or, divide the area of the cir- 
cle by 3.1416, the resulting quotient being the square of the radius. 
The square root of that will give the radius, and that multiplied by 
2 will give the diameter. 

341. (o) 42 ft, 11 in. 

41 yds., 1 ft. 
30 ft., 6 in. 
(&) 28 ft, 7 in. 

17 yds., 1 ft, 3 in. 
59 rds., 2 ft. 

342. (a) The area of a two-foot square equals 4 sq. ft., while 
the area of two square feet is 2 sq. ft., one-half as much as in the 
former. 

(b) 9-ft. square, by 72 sq. ft. 

343. 45 ft. 

344. 54 ft. 

345. 524 rds. 

346. 56.56+ ft. 

347. 112 ft. 

348. 90 A. 

349. 54 yds. 

350. 30 rds. 

351. 323% sq. ft 

352. 450 mi. 

353. 80 rds. 

354. 5,026.56 sq. yds. 
355 is missing. 

356. 47.124 ft. 

357. $90.91. 

358. 119 trees; 111 ft; 1,547 sq. yds., 1 sq. ft 

358. 420 rds. 

359. 238 men; 952 men. 

360. (a) A solid or a volume whose upper and lower base are 
equal and parallel polygons, and whose sides are parallelograms. 
(&) One whose bases are triangles, (c) One whose bases are cir- 
cles. 



ANSWERS IN ARITHMETIC. 189 

361. Multiply the perimeter of the base by the altitude of the 
prism, and add the surface of both bases. 

362. 660 sq. ft. 

363. 571.5+ sq. ft. 

364. 640 sq. ft. 

365. Multiply the area of the base bv the altitude. 

366. 540 cu. ft. 

367. 11,500 cu. ft. 

368. 565.488 cu. ft. 

369. (a) A soHd whose base is a polygon and whose sides are 
triangles, (b) A pyramid whose base is a circle, (c) Multiply 
the area of the base by one-third of the altitude. 

370. 1,440 cu. ft. 

371. 20,700 cu. ft. 

372. A solid, every point on its surface being equally distant 
from the center. 

373. (a) Multiply the square of the diameter by 3.1416. (b) 
Multiply the surface by one-third of the radius. 

374. (a) 2,010,624,000,000 sq. mi. 
(&) 5,361,664,000,000,000 cu. mi. 

375. 523.6 cu. in. 

376. 33.5104 cu. ft. 

377. 1,413.72 cu. in. 

378. 3 times. See rule. 

379. 11,309.76 sq. ft. 

380. 3.812 cu. ft. 

381. 45 sq. in. 

THE METRIC SYSTEM. 

382. (a) The meter, about 39.)^ in. (b) The liter, about 1.057 
liquid qts. (c) The hectare, 2.471 A. (d) Kilometer, .6215 (^) 
mi. (e) Kilogram, 2.2046 lbs. 

383. (a) Centimeter, decimeter, meter, hektometer, kilometer; 
(b) square milimeter, square meter, square kilometer; (c) cubic 
centimeter, cubic meter; (d) centiliter, liter, hektoliter; (e) centi- 
gram, gram, kilogram, tonneau. 

384. (a) The liter is equal to a cubic decimeter, and equals 1.057 
liquid qts. (&) A gram is the weight of a cubic centimeter of dis- 
tilled water and equals about 15.4 grains. (c) A cubic meter, 
(d) One thousand grams equal a kilogram, weighing about 2% lbs. 

385. 55,200 kilos. 391. 10.43 liters. 

386. 54 liters. 392. (a) 231 cu. in. 

387. 3,072 francs. (&) 2,150.4 cu. in. 

388. 37.48 lbs. 393. 448.83 gal. 

389. 3.39 dm. 394. 2,487.9 bu. 

390. $162.52; 50%. 395. 220 bu. 



CHAPTER V. 
QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 

THE PARTS OF SPEECH. 

1. (o) What is meant by a "part of speech"? (b) 
Name the parts of speech, (c) Upon what does the part 
of speech depend for classification? (d) Illustrate. 

2. Which are (a) the principal parts of speech? (b) 
the modifiers? (c) the connectives? (d) the independent 
part of speech ? 

THE NOUN. 

3. (a) Define noun, (b) Name the two classes of 
nouns. 

4. (a) What is a proper noun? (b) How does it differ 
from a common noun? Illustrate each. 

5. How can a proper noun always be recognized? 

6. Name the particular different classes of common 
nouns. Define each and illustrate. 

7. Classify the following nouns : sun, John, lake, news- 
paper, Leonidas, goodness, army, meeting, Azores, her- 
oine, council, committee, flock, creature, dancing, The 
Strand, running, striking, motion. 

8. Name the modifications or inflections of nouns. 

9. (a) What is meant by person? (b) Define (1) first 
person, (2) second person, (3) third person. Illustrate 
each. 

10. (a) What is number? (b) Define (1) singular 
number, (2) plural number. Give a sentence illustrating 
each. 

11. State five rules for forming plural numbers of 
nouns, illustrating each with an example. 

12. Form the plurals of: calf, wharf, cliff, roof, beef, 

190 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 191 

pony, valley, play, Henry, piano, hero, cargo, zero, child, 
brother, goose, penny, index, datum, beau, thesis, phe- 
nomenon, Mr. Clark, father-in-law, court-martial, sheep, 
head (of cattle), shot, handful, fellow-servant. 

13. (a) Give five nouns that are used only in the sing- 
ular, (b) Give five that are used only in the plural num- 
ber. 

14. Classify as to number the following: annals, shad, 
news, wages, teeth, formula, yoke, crises, dice. 

15. What is the number of a collective noun? 

16. (a) Define gender, (b) What is (1) the masculine 
gender? (2) feminine gender (3) neuter gender? (4) 
common gender? Illustrate each. 

17. How are sexes in words distinguished? Give ex- 
amples. 

18. (a) Write the following nouns in the feminine gen- 
der: bachelor, brother, abbot, man, boy, drake, hart, 
nephew, earl, stag, uncle, father, master, lad, lord, king, 
duke, hero, testator, baron, (b) Write the masculine 
gender of the following: actress, lioness, governess, wife, 
sultana, cateress, belle, Charlotte, Madame, mare, maiden, 
nun. 

19. Classify the following as to gender : sun, iron, sleep, 
fear, moon, ship, earth, hope, day, child, dog, fish, chicken, 
mosquito, time, death, lead, paper. 

20. (o) What is case? (b) Distinguish (1) nomina- 
tive, (2) possessive and (3) objective cases. 

21. Give the rules for forming the possessives of (a) 
singular nouns, (b) plural nouns. 

22. Write both singular and plural possessives of: man, 
woman, deer, thief, Mrs. Painter, conscience, princess, 
Moses, American, hero, colony. 

23. How is the possessive of compound nouns formed? 

24. Write the possessive form of: (a) the factory of 
Wheeler and Wilson (joint possession) ; (b) the armies 
of Grant and Lee; (c) the crews of Harvard and Prince- 
ton; (d) the tours of Raymond and Whitcomb (joint 
possession), (separate possession) (e) the history of 
Green, Freeman or Macaulay. 



192 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

25. What is meant by the declension of nouns? What 
facts will a complete declension give? 

26. Decline man, friend, prince. King Henry. 

27. What is meant by parsing? 

28. Parse the nouns in the following sentences: 
(a) Henry read Kate's book, (b) He climbed the 
Matterhorn. (c) Washington and Napoleon were great 
generals, (d) The committee has given you a vote of 
thanks, (e) The audience admired the lawyers' speeches. 
(f) His bravery was well known. 

29. (a) Define a noun in apposition, (b) Illustrate. 

THE PRONOUN, 

30. (a) Define pronoun, (b) Name the classes of pro- 
nouns, 

31. What is (a) a personal pronoun, (b) a demonstra- 
tive pronoun, (c) a relative pronoun, (d) an interroga- 
tive pronoun? Illustrate each, 

32. Give examples of (a) a simple and (b) a compound 
personal pronoun. 

33. (a) What inflections have pronouns? (b) What is 
the inflection of a pronoun called? 

34. How can the gender of personal pronouns in the 
first and second persons be determined? 

35. What are the uses of relative pronouns? 

36. What is an antecedent? Give an example, 

37. Give the declension of I, thou, she, 

38. In what respect can not compound personal pro- 
nouns be declined? 

39. Decline the relative and interrogative pronouns 
who, which, what and that, 

40. What kinds of nouns are the antecedents of the 
above pronouns? 

41. Write the nominative plurals of I, thou, he, who, 
that, myself, 

42. Correct the form of her's, your's, it's, who's, hisself, 
theirselves. 

43. Parse the pronouns in italics in the following sen- 
tences: (a) /, that speak to yon, am he. (b) Show me 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR, 193 

the happy man whose life exhibits such qualities, and him 
we will salute as gentleman. 

THE ADJECTIVE. 

44. (a) What is an adjective? (b) Name and define the 
classes of adjectives, illustrating each. 

45. Classify the following adjectives : beautiful, French, 
innocent, inner, coal-black, many, tallest, fifteen, Roman, 
quadruple, you, fabulous, magnificent, this, these, those, 
that, yonder, a, an, the. 

46. Define comparison of adjectives. 

47. Define (a) positive degree, (b) comparative de- 
gree, (c) superlative degree. 

48. (a) How are adjectives regularly compared? (b) 
What is meant by irregular comparison? 

49. Name ten important adjectives irregularly com- 
pared. 

50. Name (a) two adjectives wanting the positive, (b) 
five requiring the comparative, and (c) three that have 
more than one superlative. 

51. Select the degrees of the following adjectives: 
greener, serene, more, further, next, latest, middle, midst. 

52. Compare good, clear, rear, bad, old, complete. 

53. Parse the adjectives in the following sentences: 
If we climb the steep path up yonder rocky hill, we 
shall pass several Hindu temples. 

THE VERB. 

54. (o) What is a verb? (b) Into what classes are 
verbs divided according to (1) their form, (2) their use? 

55. What is (a) a regular verb, (b) an irregular verb, 
(c) a redundant verb, (d) a defective verb? (e) What 
other names are sometimes given to regular, irregular 
and redundant verbs? 

56. Show the difference between a transitive verb and 
an intransitive verb. 

57. (a) What is voice? (&) What is (1) the active, 
(2) the passive voice? 

58. In what voice are (a) intransitive, (&) transitive 
verbs ? 



194 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK 

59. How is the active voice changed into the passive 
voice? 

60. Change the following into the active or passive 
voice as required: (a) Bakers sell bread, (b) The chil- 
dren study their lessons, (c) The steeple was struck by 
lightning, (d) He was welcomed by the king. 

61. What is a copulative verb? 

62. (a) What is meant by mode or mood in verb? (b) 
What is (1) the indicative, (2) the imperative, (3) the 
subjunctive, (4) potential, (5) the infinitive mode? Give 
an example of each. 

63. (a) What is tense? (b) How is tense denoted? 

64. What is an auxiliary verb? 

65. What is (a) present tense, (b) the past (preterite) 
tense, (c) the future tense? 

66. What is meant by (a) the present perfect tense, 
(b) the past perfect tense, (c) the future perfect tense? 
Illustrate each. 

67. What auxiliary verbs are used to form (a) the pro- 
gressive present, (b) the perfect tense, (c) the future tense? 

68. Indicate the uses of shall and will in the future 
tense. 

69. What is meant by the conjugation of the verb? 

70. Write verbs in the following conjugations : (a) 
active voice, indicative mode, future perfect, third person, 
plural number of " to be," (b) passive voice, subjunctive 
mode, past tense, third singular of " to see," (c) active 
voice, imperative mode, present tense, singular of " to 
go," (d) active voice, subjunctive mode, present perfect 
tense, second plural of " to read." 

71. What auxiliary verbs are used to express (a) per- 
mission, (b) ability. 

72. Indicate the classes of the following verbs and give 
their principal parts : be, begin, love, burn, ought. 

73. What are the principal items in the parsing of a 
verb? 

74. Parse the verbs in the following sentences : (a) 
We found shells along the beach, (b) Put him at work if 
he come, (c) Where shall you spend your vacation? (d) 
We shall have been gone when he arrives. 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 195 

THE ADVERB. 

75. (a) Define adverb, (b) State the classes of adverbs. 
How may each be recognized? Give examples. 

76. Classify the following adverbs : formerly, somehow, 
yonder, indeed, hither, always, roundly, probably. 

77. (a) How may adverbs be modified according to 
their use? (b) What inflections have adverbs? 

78. Compare : often, soon, wisely. 

79. How can adverbs generally be formed from ad- 
jectives? 

80. Parse the adverbs in the following sentence : Next 
the old soldiers came here, marching very proudly. 

THE CONJUNCTION,, PREPOSITION AND INTERJECTION. 

81. (a) What is a conjunction? (&) Give the classes 
of conjunctions, and an example of each. 

82. Classify the following: as, nor, as . . . as, if 
although . . , yet. 

83. What is a preposition? 

84. Give specific instances to show the use of the prep- 
osition. 

85. What is the difference between a preposition and a 
conjunction? 

86. Name ten prepositions. 

87. Define interjection, and illustrate. 

THE SENTENCE AND ITS PARTS. 

88. (a) What is a sentence? (b) Name the different 
kinds of sentences. Define each. 

89. Classify the following sentences : 

(a) Still sits the schoolhouse by the road. 

(b) Thou, too, sail on, O Ship of State! 

(c) O mighty Caesar, dost thou lie so low? 

(d) Blessed are the peacemakers. 

(e) Forward! the Light Brigade! 

(f) Sing us a song again. 

(g) Roll on, thou deep and dark blue ocean! 

(h) A landscape presents a variety of pleasing sub- 
jects. 

90. Name the two principal parts of a sentence. De- 
fine each and illustrate. 



196 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

91. What is a modifier? 

92. What is the difference between an adjective and an 
adverbial modifier? 

93. By what may nouns be modified? 

94. What forms may adverbial modifiers take? 

95. What is (a) a complement? (b) an attribute com- 
plement? (c) An object complement? Give an example 
of each. 

96. What is meant by (a) analysis? (6) synthesis or 
construction? (c) composition? 

97. Name the different things to be pointed out in 
analyzing. 

98. (a) What is a subject noun? (b) How does it dif- 
fer from the subject of the sentence, if at all? 

99. What is the difference between the predicate and 
the predicate verb? 

100. What is the difference between a simple subject 
(or predicate) and a compound subject (or predicate, or 
any other part of the sentence) ? 

101. (a) What is a simple sentence? (6) a compound 
sentence? (c) a complex sentence? Give an example 
of each and show the development of the latter from the 
simple sentence quoted. 

102. What is a clause? 

103. Define coordinate clauses, and illustrate. 

104. What is (a) the principal clause? (b) the subordi- 
nate or dependent clause? (c) In what kinds of sentences 
do these clauses occur respectively? 

105. (a) What is a relative clause? (b) In what kind 
of sentences are these clauses found? 

106. What is a phrase? 

107. Name the essential differences between a phrase 
and a clause. 

108. How may phrases be used? 

109. Name the various kinds of phrases. 

110. Classify phrases according to construction. Give 
an example of each. 

111. What is (a) a prepositional phrase, (&) an infini- 
tive phrase, (c) a participial phrase? 

112. What forms may (a) an object, (b) attribute, (c) 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 197 

adjective, (d) adverbial, (e) independent or explanatory 
phrase take? 

ANALYSIS. 

Analyze the following sentences : 

113. Perseverance overcomes all obstacles. 

114. Generosity makes friends rapidly. 

115. A friend in need is a friend indeed. 

116. The enterprising merchants soon increased their 
business. 

117. Where did those men buy their new automobiles? 

118. A fool is the zero of humanity. 

119. The true university of these days is a collection of 
books. 

120. The practical efifect of a belief is the real test of 
its soundness. 

3L21. A nation can not afford to do a mean thing. 

122. To be true is manly, chivalrous and Christian. 

123. To be happy at home is the ultimate result of all 
ambition. 

124. The best happiness will be to escape the worst 
misery. 

125. Lafayette, the friend of the Revolution, visited 
us in after years. 

126. Give me of your bark, O birch tree ! 

127. Do it with all your might. 

128. Cotopaxi is the highest and most terrible volcano 
in the world. 

129. Every pine, fir, and hemlock, wore a white mantle 
of snow. 

130. Will they do it? 

131. Are all gone? 

132. Pleasantly, rose, next morn, the sun, on the village 
of Grand Pre. 

133. Now is the winter of our discontent 
Made glorious summer by the son of York. 

134. Go thou and do likewise. 

135. To be prepared for war makes one of the most 
efficient means of preserving peace. 

136. Mother is the name of God in the lips and hearts 
of little children. 



198 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

137. One by one the nations of the earth shall drop 
anchor and be at rest in the harbor of universal liberty. 

138. Thou wert my guide, philosopher and friend. 

139. The rising sun complies with our weak sight. 

140. He first gilds the clouds, then shows his globe of 
light. 

141. God gave us liberty at the same time. 

142. We must have an intellectual quality in all prop- 
erty and in all action. 

143. It is pleasant to make hay in the sunshine and to 
listen to the birds singing sweetly in the neighboring trees 
and bushes. 

144. Gather ye rosebuds. 

145. Listen, my children. 

146. Mary, Queen of Scots, was imprisoned by Eliza- 
beth. 

147. To have what we want is riches ; but to be able to 
do without it, is power. 

148. We make our fortunes and others call them fate. 

149. Good manners and good morals are sworn friends 
and firm allies. 

150. Keep cool ; anger is not argument. 

151. Taxation reaches down to the base, but the base 
is labor. 

152. When men are pure, laws are useless ; when men 
are corrupt, laws are broken. 

153. The hills were already green ; the early grain 
waved in the fields and the air was sweet with blossoming 
orchards. 

154. Slow are the steps of Freedom, but her feet never 
turn backward. 

155. He maketh me to lie down in green pastures ; He 
leadeth me beside the still waters. 

156. The way was long, the wind was cold, 
The minstrel was infirm and old. 

157. No two watches keep the same tim-e; yet each be- 
lieves his own. 

158. Fury seized these earth-born phantoms, and each 
turned his hand against the rest. 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 199 

159. Webster could awe a senate, Everett could charm 
a college, and Choate could cheat a jury. 

160. Caesar had his Brutus ; Charles the First, his Crom- 
well; and George the Third, — may profit by their example. 

161. God save the Republic; establish the light of its 
beacon over the troubled waters. 

162. If ye are brutes, then stand here like fat oxen 
waiting for the butcher's knife ; if ye are men, follow me. 

163. The evil that men do lives after them ; 
The good is oft interred with their bones. 

164. They have no other doctor but sun and the fresh 
air, and such an one never sends them to the apothecary. 

165. He asked what he was doing. 

166. Success is full of promise till men get it. 

167. What we seek we shall find; what we flee from 
flies from us. 

168. Every fact that is learned becomes a key to other 
facts. 

169. That the majority rules is the ruling theory. 

170. Smiles are smiles only when the heart pulls the 
wire. 

171. I only regret that I have but one life to lose for 
my country. 

172. The ancient poet said : " The gods sell all things 
at a fair price." 

173. There is a tide in the affairs of all men which, 
taken at its flood, leads on to fortune. 

174. As society advances, the standard of poverty rises. 

175. No nation can bear wealth that is not intelligent first. 

176. Lives of great men all remind us 
We can make our lives sublime. 

177. Laziness travels slowly that poverty soon over- 
takes him. 

~ 178 Consider this. 

That, in the course of justice, none of us 
Should seek salvation. 

179 The play is the thing 

Wherein I'll catch the conscience of the king. 
180. As I speak to you today, I wish to tell you of a 
soldier who lay wounded on a hard-fought field. 



200 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

181. There never was a person that did anything worth 
doing who really did not receive more than he gave, 

182. He that hath ears to hear, let him hear. 

183. If ladies be but young and fair, 
They have the gift to know it. 

184. The real man is one who always finds excuses 
for others, but never excuses himself. 

185. Every duty we omit obscures some truth we should 
have known. 

186. Whose house is of glass must not throw stones 
at another. 

PARSING. 

187. Parse the nouns in sentence 113. 

188. Give the syntax of " in need " and " indeed " in 
sentence 115. 

189. Parse '' their 'Mn 116. 

190. Parse " those " in 117. 

191. Parse "manly" and "Christian" in 122. 

192. Tell what kinds of phrases are " to be happy " and 
" at home," and " of all ambitions " in 123 ; " in after 
years " in 125. 

193. Give the syntax of " friend," " Revolution " and 
" year " in 125. 

194. Parse " is " in 133. 

195. Give the syntax of " likewise " in 134. 

196. Parse " makes " in 135 ; " shall drop " and " be " in 
137. 

197. Parse " all " and " are gone " in 131. 

198. What kind of a verb is " must" in 142? 

199. Pick out all the modifying elements in 143 and 
parse each. 

200. Give the case of each noun in 146. 

201. Parse "what" in 147. 

202. What is the syntax of " not " in 150 ? 

203. State the gender of " freedom " and " steps " in 
154. 

204. Parse " yet," " each," " his," " own " in 157. 

205. What kind of a verb is "could" in 159? 

206. State the mode and tense of " save " and " estab- 
lish " in 161. 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 201 

207. Parse the verbs in 163. 

208. Parse " other," " no," '' but," " such," " an," " one," 
and " never " in 164. 

209. Give the number and case of the nouns in 162. 

210. Parse " ruling " in 169. 

211. Parse " only " in 171. 

212. Give the syntax of " its " in 173. 

213. Parse " can make " in 176. 

214. Give the tenses of the verbs in 179. 

215. Parse " he " in 182. 

216. Parse "every," "some," "we" in 185. 

217. What part of speech is "whose" in 186? Parse 
" it " and " another." 

218. In what modes are the verbs in 183? 

SYNTHESIS. 

219. (a) Write a simple declarative sentence, (&) an 
imperative sentence, (c) an interrogative sentence. 

220. Write (a) a simple exclamatory sentence contain- 
ing a declarative sentence, (&) an imperative sentence, 
(c) an interrogative sentence. 

221. Construct a sentence with modifiers of both the 
subject and the predicate. 

222. Compose senten<:es with (a) a noun, (&) an ad- 
jective attribute complement. 

223. Give a sentence with an object and modifiers. 

224. Write a sentence with a subject pronoun and an 
adjective attribute complement. 

225. Convert the word modifiers in the following sen- 
tences into phrase modifiers : (a) A learned gentleman 
addressed the first class pupils. (&) The old wooden ship 
burned very brightly. 

226. Write a sentence containing a noun in apposition 
to (a) the subject, (&) the object. 

227. Construct a sentence with an independent par- 
ticipial phrase. 

228. Write a sentence with an independent element. 

229. Write a sentence with a participial adjective modi- 
fier. 

230. Write a sentence using a compound adjective 
phrase modifier of the object. 



202 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

231. Give a sentence with a participle used as a sub- 
stantive. 

232. Write a sentence with a participle used as an 
adjective modifier of the subject. 

233. Compose a simple sentence the subject of which 
is modified by a complex prepositional phrase. 

234. Construct a sentence whose object is modified by 
a complex prepositional phrase. 

235. Compose a sentence containing all the parts of 
speech. 

236. Write a sentence with an infinitive used as the 
subject. 

237. Give a sentence with an infinitive object phrase. 

238. Write a sentence using an infinitive as the attri- 
bute. 

239. Write a sentence having an infinitive used as the 
object of a preposition. 

240. Write a sentence with infinitive phrases as sub- 
ject and attribute. 

241. Write a compound sentence with complex co- 
ordinate clauses. 

242. Construct a sentence with a substantive clause. 

243. Compose a simple sentence containing an adverbial 
phrase modifier. 

244. Expand the adverbial modifier in a simple sentence 
into an adverbial clause. 

245. Write a complex sentence with a subordinate ad- 
jective clause. 

246. Compose a sentence containing a substantive 
clause in apposition. 

247. Write a compound sentence and change it into a 
complex sentence. 

248. Write a complex sentence and change it into a 
compound sentence. 

249. Change the subordinate clause in a complex sen- 
tence into (a) an adverb; (b) a phrase. 

250. Write a complex interrogative sentence with ob- 
ject phrase. 

251. Compose a compound sentence with an attribute 
phrase. 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 



203 



252. Give a sentence with an explanatory clause. 

253. Give an example of an attribute clause. 

254. Write a sentence with a verb in the active voice 
and change it into the passive voice. 

SYNTAX. 

255. What does syntax treat of? 

256. Define (a) relation, (b) agreement, (c) govern- 
ment, and (d) arrangement. 

257. What is false syntax? 

Correct the following sentences and state the rule 
violated : 



258. 



259. 



260. 



261. 



262. 
263. 

264. 
265. 



a) They saw a old man. 

b) He went into an house. 

c) Brutus is a honorable man. 

a) Not a word was said nor a sign made. 

b) Despise not the doer but deed. 

c) Is London to the right or left? 

d) Does Panama connect the Atlantic and Pacific 
Ocean? 

e) The Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers form 
the Ohio River. 

/) The empty and the worthless shells will float. 
g) He is a better mathematician than an English 

student. 
h) I prefer an orange to apple. 

a) These sort of things is easily mended. 

b) Bring out that books. 

c) We rode for about fifteen mile an hour. 

a) David and Jonathan loved one another. 

b) He chose the latter of the group. 

c) Name the two wonderful isthmuses in the 
world. 

d) We like to see children love each other, 
bought them books. 

a) Has either of your class helped you? 

b) Here are five ; but neither will do. 
Bring me a hot cup of tea. 

(a) Each of them are here. 



204 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



266. 

267. 

268. 
269. 

270. 
271. 

272. 



274. 



275. 



276. 



b) Let no one deceive themselves. 

c) Either you or John are guilty. 

a) The boy only did his lessons. 

b) He impudently spoke to his employer. 

a) The cloth feels smoothly. 

b) He did his work quick. 

c) He feels weakly. 

a) He can not do no more. 

b) They will not write no more letters. 

c) Neither he nor no one else can do that. 

a) Tom could not have wrote that note. 

b) A pitcher was broke because the water was 
froze. 

c) We seen the lady walking- along. 

a) He stood tallest between us. 

b) Among us two there are no secrets. 

a) He brought the chest in the room. 

b) They jumped in the river. 

c) They v/ere into the room. 

a) She differs with him in everything he says. 

b) That book was different with that one. 

a) They that honor me I will honor. 

b) I can write as well as him. 

c) You know as well as me that you did it. 

d) James is older than us. 

a) Circumstances alters cases. 

b) The evil live after them. 

c) Has those books been delivered? 

d) Three years' interest were demanded. 

e) The ship, with all her crew, were lost. 

f) To copy and publish the writings of others 
are plagiarism. 

g) Who is you? 

a) Fever always produced heat. 

b) Virtue was its own reward. 

c) Three and five made eight. 

d) Columbus maintained that the earth was 
round. 

a) Industry and thrift leads to wealth. 

b) Time and tide waits for no man. 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 



205 



His health, as well as his wealth, require care. 
Buyer, likewise seller, are held liable. 
The ebb and flow of the tides are now known. 
Neither he nor she were there. 
Ignorance or negligence have caused the mis- 
take. 

We find it was thee. 
It could not have been him. 
It is not me. 

Whom do you think we were? 
They said it Avas him. 

I gave him the apples but he would not eat it. 
The man returned the money but they vv^ould 
not accept them. 

This is the horse whom my father sold. 
The books whom they sold for Mr. Graham. 
There was a certain man which planted a 
vine. 

The jury agrees in its verdict. 
The nation will see that its laws are enforced. 
The Senate then resolved themselves into a 
committee of the whole. 

Of mans first disobedience 

Moses' rod was changed into a serpent. 

It is not her's, 

Essex' sad fate affected the Queen. 

Who shall we find there? 

They that honor me I will honor. 

My father told John and I to go with him. 

No secrets are between you and I. 

"Thee too! Brutus." 

Him being unknown they annoyed him. 

It was none other but his brother. 

Have you not other proof except this? 

286. State the principal rules in the arrangement of 
words for the sake of clearness and conciseness. Give an 
example of each rule. 

287. When should exceptions to these rules be made, 
and for what purpose? 



277. 



278. 



279. 



280. 



281. 



282. 



283. 



284. 



285, 



206 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

288. Analyze the following sentence: 

John Hampden, an English squire, was a valiant de- 
fender of the people's rights. 

289. In the above, parse, (a) English, (b) was, (c) of, 
(d) people's. 

290. Tell how many ways that may be used. II- 
trate. 

291. Write a complex interrogative sentence contain- 
ing an adverbial clause. 

292. Pick out all the clauses in each of these sentences 
and tell the function or use of each clause : 

(a) Where Moses is buried is not known. 

(b) This is the land where her young hero sleeps. 

293. Tell the case, with reasons for your answers, of 
each of the italicized words : 

(o) Is the child sleeping? 

(b) Do you think that I, George Brown, would steal? 

294. Parse the italicized words completely : 
(a) The letter has been mailed to you. 

(&) If the law be too severe we must try to have it 
changed. 

295. Of these two sentences tell which is correct and 
why: 

(a) They spoke to you and me of their misfortunes. 
(&) They spoke to you and I of their misfortunes. 

296. Give the plural of lady, valley, knife, eye, tooth. 

297. (a) What is a complex sentence? (&) Give one 
with the dependent (subordinate) clause used as the at- 
tribute. 

298. Give examples of collective nouns. Illustrate and 
explain the varying of the number of pronoun and verb 
(sometimes singular, sometimes plural) when used with 
a collective noun. Illustrate with four sentences. 

299. Name and use in sentences four kinds of adjective 
elements. 

300. Illustrate three uses of the participle in sentences. 

301. Illustrate by sentences the expansion of an adverb 
into (a) a phrase; {b) a clause. 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 207 

302. Illustrate four ways of forming- the plurals of 
nouns. 

303. Analyze the following sentence by diagram or 
otherwise: In their anxiety to be without a master the 
states left themselves without a government. 

304. Write the possessive plural of hero, alderman, deer, 
it, who, Miss Wheeler, attorney-general, Musselman, son- 
in-law, mouse. 

305. Name and exemplify three kinds of complements 
that verbs may have. 

306. Write sentences containing (a) a noun used ad- 
verbially ; (b) an absolute phrase ; (c) but used as a rela- 
tive pronoun. 

307. Rewrite in correct form, giving the reason for 
your correction : 

(a) Neither the maple nor the oak are now standing. 

(b) I insist upon knowing who you sent. 

(c) I fear we will be late. 

(d) The tide was the rising and falling of the water. 

308. Analyze the following sentence : The good, it is 
said, die young. 

309. What kinds of subordinate or dependent clauses 
may be introduced by interrogative words ? 

310. Classify the following sentences : 

(a) Mention and illustrate the different methods of 
forming an interrogative sentence. 

(&) After a long and toilsome ascent we reached the 
summit of the hill, where we obtained a magnificent view 
of a lovely, fertile, smiling valley. 

(c) All round the coast the languid air did swoon, 
Breathing like one that hath a weary dream. 

311. In what way is gender of nouns indicated? Illus- 
trate each way. 

312. Illustrate by sentences five uses of the infinitive. 

313. Use correctly the principal parts of two irregular 
verbs. 

314. Use in sentences the comparative and superlative 
degrees of three irregular adjectives. 

315. Illustrate by sentences the correct use of shall 



208 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

and will in all persons, both in declarative and interroga- 
tive sentences. 

316. Classify sentences as to form and exemplify. 

317. Write sentences illustrating the use of but (a) 
as a conjunction, (b) as a preposition. 

318. Illustrate the correct use of should and would. 

319. When should (a) lie and (&) lay be used? 

320. Analyze the following sentence : The book is 
John's, but it is doubtful whether he will come and 
claim it. 

321. Write sentences containing (a) a pronominal ad- 
jective; (b) an adverb clause; (c) an adjective clause. 

322. Write sentences illustrating three uses of the rela- 
tive pronoun. 

323. V/hat part of speech is what? Illustrate. 

324. We contrasted our condition with that of tired 
invalids who were tossing on downy beds and wooing 
sleep in vain, (a) Name the kind of sentence. (&) Give 
the subject and predicate of each clause, (c) Give the 
syntax or parse each underlined word. 

325. Write sentences illustrating the use of the verb 
take, in the third person, singular and plural, indic- 
ative mode, active voice, all tenses. 

TEST QUESTIONS OF ENTRANCE EXAMINATION PAPERS OF 
VARIOUS COLLEGES. 

326. Parse the words in the following sentence : 

We were asked a question whose meaning seemed 
doubtful. Still, gathering courage, we attempted replies. 

327. Illustrate the use of (a) coordinate clauses (&) 
subordinate clauses. 

328. Define (a) concrete, (b) abstract, (c) collective 
nouns and illustrate in sentences. 

329. Write sentences containing noun or substantive 
clauses used as (a) subject; (&) object; (r) attribute of 
sentences. 

- 330. Distinguish between (o) defective, {b) redundant, 
(c) regular verbs, and exemplify. 

331. Correct all errors in the following sentences with 
your reason for the correction: 



QUESTIONS IN GRAMMAR. 209 

(a) Do come, and I will learn you to skate. 

(b) I am anxious to see my cousin who I have never 
met. 

(c) I expect you are angry with me. 

(d) Such men as he commands my respect. 

332. Analyze or diagram : The glory of a nation is its 
manhood, and its hope lies in those forces which build 
up and establish the highest and best t3^pe of manhood. 

333. Compose a complex sentence with both an ad- 
jective and an adverbial clause. 

334. Use the verb break in the active voice; in the pas- 
sive voice; as a transitive verb; as an intransitive verb. 

335. What is meant by (a) declension? (b) conjuga- 
tion? (c) inflection? 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 



THE PARTS OF SPEECH. 

1. (a) The words in the English language have been arranged in 
classes, which are called parts of speech. 

(&) The noun, pronoun, adjective (and article), verb, adverb, 
preposition, conjunction and interjection. 

(c) Its meaning and use in a sentence. 

(d) (1) Iron is a metal. (As a noun.) 

(2) He has an iron ball. (As an adjective.) 

(3) The laundress irons the shirt. (As a verb.) 

(4) The orator spoke ironically. (As an adverb.) 

2. (a) Noun, pronoun and verb. (b) Adjective and adverb, 
(c) Conjunction and preposition, (d) Interjection. 

THE NOUN. 

3. (a) A noun is a word used as the name of any person, place 
or thing ; as, man, Henry, city, toy. 

(b) Common and proper nouns. 

4. (a) A proper noun is the name belonging to a particular in- 
dividual, or group ; as, Adam, the Hudson, the Rockies. 

(6) A common noun is a name applied to a class; as, book, chil- 
dren, day. 

5. All proper nouns are written with capitals. 

6. (a) A collective noun is the name signifying a collection or 
group of individuals ; as, army, fleet, bevy. 

(b) An abstract noun is the name of some particular quality, 
condition or relation, considered apart from its object; as place, 
brightness, goodness, pride. 

(c) A verbal or participial noun is the name of an action, or a 
condition of being, and is generally the participial form of the verb 
from which it is derived ; as, The dancing of the girls. The racing 
of the boys. 

7. Proper. Common. 



Common. 



Collective. Abstract. 



John 

Leonidas 
Azores 



sun army 

lake meeting 

newspaper council 
The Strand heroine committee 

creatures flock 
8. Person, number, gender and case. 

210 



goodness 



Verbal. 

dancing 
running 
striking 
motion 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 211 

9. (a) Modifications that distinguish the speaker, hearer and per- 
son or thing spoken of. 

(&) (1) The reader or speaker; I, John, am here. 

(2) The person addressed or hearer ; James, who has done 
this ? 

(3) The person or thing spoken of; as, The man wrote the 
appeal. 

10. (a) Changes in the form that show unity or pluraHty. 

(b) (1) That form which denotes only one; as. The man 
rides. 
(2) That form denoting more than one; as. The books 
are new. 

11. (o) When the singular form ends in a sound that will unite 
with that of s, add .f only ; as, pen, pens ; book, books. 

(b) Nouns ending in the sound of s, x, z, cJi, sli or sh form their 
plurals by adding es; as, kiss, kisses ; fox, foxes ; topaz, topazes ; 
fish, fishes ; watch, watches ; bridge, bridges. 

(c) A number of nouns ending in a preceded by a consonant 
add es, others only s; as, hero, heroes ; mosquito, mosquitoes ; canto, 
cantos. 

(d) Nouns ending in 3; (excepting proper nouns) when preceded 
by a consonant, change y into / and add es; otherwise they add s 
only ; as, fly, flies ; valley, valleys. 

((?) A number of nouns ending in f change the / into v and add 
es; as, loaf, loaves ; calf, calves ; knife, knives. 

12. Calves, wharves, cliffs, roofs, beeves, ponies, valleys, plays, 
Henrys, pianos, heroes, cargos, zeros, children, brothers or brethren, 
geese, pennies or gence (English), indexes or indices, data, beaus 
or beaux, theses, phenomena, the three Mr. Clarks, fathers-in-law, 
courts-martial, sheep, head, shot, handfuls, fellow-servants. 

13. (a) Gold, pride, peace, beauty, flesh. 

(&) Ashes, measles, scissors, tongs, riches, thanks. 

14. Singular. Plural. 

shad (both) annals 

wages teeth 

news crises 

formula dice 
yoke (both) 

15. Singular or plural depending upon its meaning. 

16. (a) Modifications denoting sex in objects or persons. 

(&) (1) Inflection denoting males; as, man, boy, son, Francis. 

(2) Those denoting females ; as, woman, lady, cow, 
Frances. 

(3) Neither male nor female; as, day, stone. 

(4) Names which may be applied to either males or fe- 
males ; as, child, dog. 

17. (a) By the use of different names; as, bachelor, maid; son, 
daughter. 



212 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(b) B}' the use of different endings; as, emperor, empress; testa- 
tor, testatrix. 

(c) By means of a prefix; as, he-goat, she-goat; man-servant, 
maid-servant. 

18. (a) Maid, sister, abbess, woman, girl, duck, roe, niece, count- 
ess, hind, aunt, mother, mistress, lass, lady, queen, duchess, heroine, 
testatrix, baroness. 

(b) Actor, lion, governor, husband, sultan, caterer, beau, Charles, 
Mr., horse, youth, friar or monk. 

19. Masculine. Feminine. Neuter. Common. 

sun moon iron child 

time ship day dog 

death earth lead fash 

sleep hope paper chicken 

fear mosquito 

20. (a) Case is the change showing the relation of nouns and 
pronouns to the other words in the sentence. 

(b) (1) The nominative case denotes the subject or attribute of 
the sentence. 

(2) The possessive case sho\iis possession. 

(3) A noun used as the object of a verb or a preposition is 
in the objective case. 

21. By adding 's to the singular or plural form, unless the noun 
be of more than one syllable and end in s or s sound. 



22. Singular. 


Plural. 


man's 


men's 


woman's 

deer^s 

thief's 

Mrs. Painter's 


women's 

deer's 

thieves' 

the Mrs. Painters' 


conscience's 


consciences' 


princess' 

Moses's 

American's 

hero's 

colony's 


princesses' 
the Moses's 
Americans' 
heroes' 
colonies' 



23. The sign of the possessive is added at the end of the whole 
compound, whatever it may be ; as, commander-in-chief's orders. 

24. (a) Wheeler and Wilson's factory. 

(b) Grant's and Lee's armies. 

(c) Harvard's and Princeton's crews. 

(d) Raymond and Whitcomb's tours. | 
Raymond's and Whitcomb's tours. 5 

(e) Green's, Freeman's or Macaulay's history. 

25. (c) A regular arrangement of the noun showing the modifj- 
cations in number and case, 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 



213 



2^. 


Singular. 






Nominative. 


Possessive. 




Objective. 


man 
friend 


man's 
friend's 




man 
friend 


pnnce 
King Henry 


prince's 
King Henry's 

Plural. 




prmce 
King Henry 


Nominative. 


Possessive. 


Obj 


ective. 


men 

friends 


men's 
friends' 


men 
friends 


prmces 

the King Henrys 


princes' 

the King Henrys' 


prmces 

the King Henrys 



27. Telling the facts of its form and class, stating its inflections 
and its relations to other words in the sentence. 
28. 







o 
w 

4) 


















m 


















o 


en 


c 
o 

tn 


H 


u 

C 


■ <u 
en 


o 

en 






rt 


a.! 


n 


o 


rt 


<u 






CM 


u 


Ph 


;^ 


o 


O 


P^ 


(a) 


Henry 
Kate's 


■ proper 




singular 


masculine 
feminine 


nominative 
possessive 


subject 


(&) 


book 
Matterhorn 




common 
proper 




« 


neuter 


objective 


object 




Washington 




" 


^ 




masculine 


nominative 


subject 


(0 


Napoleon' 


en 


a 


o 


" 


" 


" 


(( 




generals 


3 


common 


aj 


plural 


masculine 


" 


attribute ' 


(d) 


committee 


o 


collective 


1- 


" 


common 


" 


subject 




thanks 




common 


" 


neuter 


objective 


obj. of prep. 


(^) 


audience 
lawyers' 




collective 




^^ 


common 


nominative 


subject 






common 








pOobcbslVc 






speeches 








" 


neuter 


objective 


obj ect 


(/) 


bravery 




abstract 




singular 


(( 


nominative 


subject 



29. (a) A noun that explains the meaning of another noun. 
(&) Washington, the general, defeated the British. I saw Tom, the 
newsboy. 

THE PRONOUN. 

30. (a) A pronoun is a word used instead of a noun; as, he, 
t'hey, you. 

(5) Personal, demonstrative, interrogative, relative. 

31. (a) A personal pronoun is one that denotes a person and 
shows by its form the personal use; as, I, you, he. 



214 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(b) One pointing out any person or thing; as, this, those, here- 
with. 

(c) One that shows the relation between the clause which it in- 
troduces and its antecedent word or phrase ; as, who, which, what, 
that. 

(d) One introducing a question is called an interrogative pro- 
noun; as, who, what, which? 

32. (a) I, me, we, he, him; (&) myself, ourselves, yourself, 
themselves. 

33. (a) The same as those of a noun, (b) Declension. 

34. By reference to the antecedents. 

35. To introduce relative clauses in complex sentences. 

36. The word or words which precede the pronoun ana for which 
the pronoun stands. Those old men in the garden who are sitting 
in . . . 

37. Singular. 

Nominative. Possessive. Objective. 

I my or mine me 

thou thy or thine thee 

she her or hers her 





Plural. 




Nominative. 


Possessive. 


Objective. 


we 


our or ours 


us 


ye or you 
they 


your or yours 
their or theirs 


you 
them 



38. They all need the possessive case, and are alike in both nom- 
inative and objective cases. 

39. These pronouns have the same word in the nominative and 
objective cases, both numbers, and are without a possessive, ex- 
cepting who, which declines nominative who, possessive whose, and 
objective whom, in both numbers. 

40. Who — only persons. 
Which — animals and things. 
What — things. 

That — ^persons, animals and things. 

41. We, you, they, who, that, ourselves. 

42. Hers, yours, its, whose, himself, themselves. 

43. (o) / — personal pronoun, first person, singular number, mas- 
culine gender, nominative case, because it is the subject. That — 
relative pronoun, first person, singular, masculine, because it agrees 
with its antecedent /; nominative case, because it is the subject of 
the clause " that speak to you." You — personal pronoun, second 
person, (singular or) plural, common gender, objective case, because 
it is the object of the preposition. He — personal pronoun, third 
person, singular, masculine gender, nominative case, because it is 
the attribute of the clause. 

(b) M'e — personal pronoun, first person, singular, masculine gen- 
der (by acceptance), objective case, because it is the object of the 
preposition " to " understood. Whose — relative pronoun, antecedent 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 



215 



" man," third person, singular, masculine gender, possessive case. 
Him — personal pronoun, third person, singular, masculine gender, 
objective case, because it is the object of the verb ''will salute." 
We — personal pronoun, first person, plural, masculine gender, nom- 
inative case, because it is the subject of "will salute." 

THF ADJECTIVE. 

44. (a) A word used to describe or qualify a noun. 

(&) (1) Proper, derived from a proper noun; as, American, 
Irish, Vedic. 

(2) Descriptive, which describe the nouns to which they 
refer; as, the hlack horse. 

(3) Numeral, expressing number; as, five, eight, alone, 
fivefold, octuple. 

(4) Pronominal, used as a pronoun ; each, all, many, 
several, these.. (Also called adjective pronouns.) 

(5) The article, — a, an (indefinite), the (definite). 

(6) Demonstrative, used to indicate or point out ob- 
jects; as, this, yonder, those. 



45. 



(1) 



(2) 



(3) 



(4) 



(5) (6) 









g 








*-M 






CO 

C 


b 


2 


"6 


4> 


o 


W 


4> 


o 




a 


§■ 


s 


§ 


]o 


(U 


U 


9 


Li 


li 


p 


CL, 


'^ 


Ow 


< 


this 


French 


fifteen 


many 


a 


these 


Roman 


quadruple 




an 


those 








the 


that 










yon 










yonder 











> 



beautiful 

innocent 

inner 

coal-black 

tallest 

fabulous 

magnificent 

46. The change in the adjective to mark the quality in different 
degrees. 

47. (a) The degree expressed by the adjective in its simplest 
form. (&) A comparison between two objects is expressed by the 
comparative degree, (c) The superlative degree denotes the high- 
est degree. 

48. (a) (1) By adding er to the positive to form the compara- 

tive, and est to form the superlative. 
(2) By prefixing the adverbs more and most, or less 
and least; as, wise, wiser or more wise; wisest or 
most wise ; famous, less famous, least famous. 
(fc) Comparisons not formed as above indicated, by means of 
the suffixes er and est, or the prefixes more or less. 



216 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



49. Good, bad, little, much, many, old, late, near, up, out. 

50. (a) After, under; (b) front, head, top, north, rear; (c) far, 
low, fore. 

51. Positive. Comparative. Superlative. 



serene 
middle 


greener 

more 

further 


next 

latest 

midst 


52. Positive. 


Comparative. 


Superlative. 


good 
clear 


better 
clearer 


best 

clearest 

rearmost 

worst 


bad) 

ill 5 

old 

complete 


worse , 


older 1 
elder ) 
more complete 


oldest 1 
eldest j 
most complete 



63. (a) The is a definite article relating to hills. 

(b) Steep is a descriptive adjective, positive degree; regular com- 
parison, steep, steeper, steepest; describes path. 

(c) Yonder is a demonstrative adjective, modifying hills; has no 
comparison. 

(d) Several is a numeral adjective, modifying temples; no com- 
parison. 

(e) Hindu, proper adjective, describes temples; no comparison. 

THE VERB. 

54. (a) A verb is a word that is used to express some action, 
being, or state of being acted upon. 

(b) (1) Regular, irregular, redundant, defective. 
(2) Transitive, intransitive, passive and neuter. 

55. (a) One whose past tense and past participle are formed by 
the addition of d, ed or t to the present tense of the verb. (&) One 
which does not form the past tense as above ; as, see, saw, seen. 

(c) A verb which forms its past tense and past participle in two or 
more ways; as, thrive, throve or thrived, throved or thriven. 

(d) One that has no participial forms and is used in but few of its 
conjugations; as, beware, ought. {e) Regular verbs are weak 
verbs ; irregular verbs are strong verbs ; redundant verbs are some- 
times called irregular conjugations of the regular or weak verbs. 

56. A verb which passes the action from the subject to the ob- 
ject which receives it, is called a transitive verb; in other words, it 
has an object, while the intransitive verb has no object. 

57. (o) Voice is that form of the verb that shows whether the 
subject is the doer or the receiver of the action, {b) (1) The 
active voice shows that the subject performs the action. (2) When 
the subject receives the action the verb is in the passive voice. 

58. (a) Active; (&) active or passive. 

59. The object of the verb in the active voice becomes the sub- 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 217 

ject of the verb in the passive voice; some part of the verb "be" 
is added to the past participle of the active verb; the subject of the 
active verb becomes the object of the prepositional phrase following 
the passive verb. 

60. (a) The bread is sold by the bakers. 

(&) The lessons are studied by the children. 

(c) Lightning struck the steeple. 

(d) The king welcomed him. 

61. A copulative verb is an intransitive verb used to connect a 
subject with a predicate adjective, predicate noun or pronoun; as, 
New York is a great city. He became king. 

62. (a) Mode (or mood) is the form or use of the verb that 
indicates the manner in which the action or state is to be regarded. 

(b) (1) That form of the verb which makes a statement or asks 
a question; as, He wrote the letter. Did he do his work? 

(2) That form of the verb which expresses a command or 
an order; as. Go thou and do likewise. 

(3) That form of the verb which expresses a conditional or 

doubtful statement ; as, Were he to go, he would do 
what was required of him. 

(4) That form of the verb that expresses the probability, or 
possibility, of the being or action ; as, I must go. He 
can do his work. 

(5) That form of the verb that expresses the action or state 
of being in an unlimited manner and without person or 
number ; as. To do ; to write. 

63. (a) That modification of the verb which indicates the time 
of action or being represented by the verb. 

{d) By the 'for>m. of the verb itself, or by means of an auxiliary 
verb. 

64. A verb prefixed to one of the principal parts of another verb, 
to express some particular mode or tense. 

65. (a) That form of the verb which shows that the action is 
now going on ; as, John rides in the park. 

(b) The past (preterit) tense indicates that the action or state 
of being is past. 

(c) The future tense indicates that the action or state of being 
will take place at some future time. 

66. (a) That form of the verb which expresses that the action 
has taken place within some period of time not yet past; as. The 
boys have ridden all day. 

(b) Which shows that the action had taken place before some 
time that was past; as, He had seen you, when he went there. 

(c) The tense which expresses what will have taken place after 
some future time mentioned ; as, We shall have been working when 
he returns. 

67. (a) The present tense of " to be " with the present participle 
of the verb; (b) the present and past of "to have"; (c) the auxil- 
iary verbs "shall" and "will." 

68. "Shall" is used in the first person and zvill in the second 



218 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



and third persons to express simple futurity ; to express volition or 
determination, will is used in the first person and shall in the sec- 
ond and third persons. "Shall" is always used in the interrogative 
form. 

69. The regular arrangement of the verb in its modes, tenses, 
persons, and numbers and other parts. 

70. (o) They will have been. 

(6) If he were seen. \ 

(c) Go home. 

(d) If you have read. 

71. (a) May and might; (b) can and could. 



Class. 


Infin. 


Pres. Part. 


Irreg. 
Irreg. 
Reg. 


to be 
to begin 
to love 


being 

beginning 

loving 


Red. 


to burn 


burning 


Defect. 


ought 





Past. 


Past Part. 


was 


been 


began 


begun 


loved 


loved 


burned 


burned 


burnt 


burnt 


ought 





73. Its principal parts ; class and form ; voice ; mode ; tense ; per- 
son ; number (as determined by its subject). 

74. (a) Found, principal parts, find, found, finding, found; ir- 
regular, transitive, active voice, indicative mode, past tense, and 
agrees with its subject, we in the first person, plural number. 

(b) Pttt, principal parts, put, put, putting, put; irregular, intrans- 
itive, active voice, imperative mode, present tense, and agrees with 
the subject in second person, singular. // he come — principal parts, 
come, came, coming, come ; active voice, irregular, intransitive, sub- 
junctive mode, present tense and agrees with the subject in third 
person, singular. 

(c) Shall spend, — spend, spending, spent, spent; irregular, transi- 
tive verb, active voice, indicative mode, future tense, and agrees 
with the subject in second person, singular. 

(d) Shall have been gone — go, going, went, gone; irregular, in- 
transitive verb ; passive voice, indicative mode, future perfect tense ; 
and agrees with the subject in first person, plural number. Arrives; 
arrive, arriving, arrived, arrived ; regular, intransitive verb ; active 
voice; indicative mode, present tense, and agrees with the subject in 
third person, singular number. 

THE ADVERB. 

75. (a) A word used to modify or qualify a verb, an adjective 
or another adverb. 

(&) (1) Of time answering to the questions "when," "how 
long," etc. ; as, now, when, often, weekly. 

(2) Of place, answering to " where," etc. ; as, here, there, 
whence. 

(3) Of degree, answering to "how much"; as, much, very, 
greatly, immeasurably. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 219 

(4) Of manner, answering to " how " ; as, well, quickly, per- 
haps, certainly. 

76. Time. Place. Degree. Manner, 
formerly yonder somehow indeed 
always hither roundly probably 

77. {a) (1) Simple adverbs which merely modify. 

(2) Conjunctive adverbs which are used as connectives 

and may connect clauses in complex sentences or 

clauses; as, War was declared when they found all 

hopes of peace useless. 

(&) A number of adverbs have the same comparison as the 

adjectives have. 

78. Positive. Comparative. Superlative. 

often oftener oftenest 

soon sooner soonest 

wisely more or less wisely most or least wisely 

79. By adding the suffix ly to the positive degree of the adjective; 
as, true, truly ; fine, finely. 

80. (a) Next, adverb of time, modifying came ; no comparison. 

(b) Here, adverb of place, modifying came; no comparison. 

(c) Very, adverb of degree, modifies proudly; no comparison. 

(d) Proudly, adverb of manner, modifying came; regularly com- 
pared, proudly, more proudly, most proudly. 

THE CONJUNCTION, PREPOSITION AND INTERJECTION. 

81. (a) A word used to connect sentences or parts of sentences 
and to show the relation of the parts so connected. 

(&) (1) Copulative or co-ordinating, which connect words, 
phrases or clauses of the same kind ; as, and, likewise, 
besides, moreover. 

(2) Disjunctive or adversative, which denotes an opposition 
in meaning; as, or, than, notwithstanding, but. 

(3) Corresponsive or correlative, which are used in pairs and 
generally introduce two alternatives ; as, either ... or ; 
both . . . and; as . . . so. 

82. 

Copulative or Disjunctive or Correlative or 

Co-ordinating. Adversative. Corresponsive. 

as nor as ... as 

if although although . . . yet 

83. A preposition is a word used to show the relation between 
different things or thoughts ; as, by, from, into, till, before. 

84. (a) To introduce phrases that are generally used as modi- 
fiers ; as, A man of zvealth is in his car. 

(b) As an adverb; as, Your matter shall be attended to. 

(c) As a conjunction; as. Do not begin until you get the signal. 

85. A preposition is usually limited to connect words, a conjunc- 



220 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

tion words or sentences; a preposition joins words that have the 
force of an adjective or an adverbial modifier, a conjunction words 
or parts of equal order; a preposition may have the force and be- 
come a conjunction. 

86. About, in, over, aboard, regarding, past, towards, underneath, 
despite, notwithstanding. 

87. An interjection is a word that is used to express some strong 
or sudden feeling or emotion ; as, oh ! indeed ! fie ! la ! soft ! fare- 
well ! listen ! 

THE SENTENCE AND ITS PARTS. 

88. (a) A number of words put together to express complete 
sense or thought. 

(b) (1) Declarative, which makes a statement or an assertion; 
as. The book is excellent. 

(2) Imperative, expressing an order or a command; as, Sit 
down. Read that page. 

(3) Interrogative, asking a question; as, Who run? What 
is the news? 

(4) Exclamatory, expressing wonder. How low are the 
mighty fallen ! 

(An exclamatory sentence may also be one of the other three. 
See below.) 

89. (a) Declarative. 

(&) Imperative exclamatory. 

(c) Interrogative. 

(d) Declarative. 

(e) Imperative exclamatory. 

(f) Imperative. 

(g) Imperative exclamatory. 
(h) Declarative. 

90. Subject which is the part of the sentence showing what is 
spoken about. The predicate which tells what the subject does. 
(Subject in italics.) The man's thoroughness will bring its reward. 

91. Any word or group of words changing or modifying the 
meaning of another word. 

92. An adjective modifier modifies (refers to, or relates to) a 
noun or a pronoun, while an adverbial modifier modifies (refers to, 
or relates to) a verb, an adverb or an adjective. 

93. (a) An adjective (or article). 

(&) A noun or pronoun in the possessive case. 

(c) A phrase. 

(d) A verb in the infinitive (infinitive phrase). 

(e) A clause. 

94. (a) An adverb. 

(b) An adverbial phrase. 

(c) An adverbial clause. 

95. (a) Some predicate verbs need other words added to them to 
make a complete thought; the part or words so used are called 
complements of the verb, or complements. (b) A complement 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 221 

which is a part of the predicate and refers directly to (or modifies) 
the subject is called an attribute complement or attribute, for short, 
(c) One which completes or receives the action of the verb is called 
an object complement or object. (&) The girl is a heroine, (c) 
John drew the picture. 

96. (a) The separation or division of the sentence into the parts 
composing it is called analysis. (&) Building up or combining 
words to form a sentence is called synthesis, (c) Arranging the 
sentence so as to present a continuous, logical relation is called 
composition. 

97. (a) Kind of sentence. 

(b) Subject or subject noun. 

(c) Predicate or predicate verb. 

(d) Object or attribute complement. 

(e) Modifiers of (1) the subject; (2) the predicate; (3) the 
complement. 

98. (o) -The noun which forms the principal part of the complete 
subject. 

(b) The complete subject may contain modifiers of the subject 
noun. Those very old BOOKS on the shelf are valuable. (Itali- 
cized words are parts of the complete subject and modifiers of the 
subject noun, books.) 

99. The word in the complete predicate that expresses the action 
or the state of being is the predicate verb; as, The Athenians very 
carefully FOLLOWED Solon's teachings. (Italicized words are 
parts of the complete predicate, while followed is the predicate 
verb.) 

100. One subject or predicate is called simple; two or more sub- 
jects or predicates connected by the same conjunction belonging to 
the same subject or predicate is called a compound subject or predi- 
cate. Grammar and history are interesting subjects. The boys and 
girls PLAYED AND SANG while on their outing. 

101. (a) A simple sentence is one that contains one subject and 
predicate, these being simple or compound, and expressing one com- 
plete thought, (b) Two or more simple sentences connected by 
conjunctions form a compound sentence, (c) A sentence contain- 
ing a principal statement with another sentence joined to it in a 
subordinate or dependent capacity is called a complex sentence. 

(a) The man looked like a sailor. 

(b) The man was a sailor and he looked like one. 

(c) The man whom we met looked like a sailor. 

102. A division of a coinpound or a complex sentence, containing 
both subject and predicate but not making a complete sentence by 
itself. 

103. The clauses in a compound sentence of equal order or value 
and are therefore called co-ordinate ; as, Washington was the com- 
mander, and Hamilton was his aide. 

104. (a) The principal clause is the clause to which all others 
in the sentence relate, (b) The dependent clause is the one in a 
subordinate position, modifying or relating to the principal clause 



222 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

or any of its parts. If a man empties his purse into his head, no 
man can take it from him. Principal clause underlined ; dependent 
clause not underlined, (c) In complex sentences. 

105. (a) A clause introduced by a relative pronoun, (b) Com- 
plex sentences. 

106. A group or combination of words expressing a relation of 
ideas, but no complete thought. 

107. A clause contains both subject and predicate and may be 
changed into a sentence by itself. A phrase does not include a sub- 
ject or a predicate; it can never stand alone, but must always refer 
to some other part of the sentence. 

108. (a) As a principal part of the sentence. 

(b) As a modifier. 

(c) As an independent part. 

109. (a) A noun or substantive phrase which takes the place of 
a noun. To train citizens is the work of the school. 

(b) An independent phrase, not related to, or connected with, 
any part of the sentence. To give one instance more, and then I 
will have done with this discourse. 

(c) An adjective or adverbial phrase according to its use as a 
modifier. The man of great zvealth. They were walking along in 
the street. 

110. (a) Simple phrase, He was in the room. 

(b) Compound phrase, composed of two or more co-ordinate 
phrases; as. Stooping down and looking in, they saw . . . 

(c) Complex phrase, one containing a phrase modifier of another 
phrase ; as. To be candid with you, I shall . . . 

111. (o) One introduced by a preposition. (6) One introduced 
by a verb in the infinitive mood; as. To do good is to be happy. 
{c) Where the introductory word is a participle; as, Laws based 
on strict justice and morality, etc. 

112. (fl) Noun, infinitive, prepositional. 

lb) Noun, infinitive, prepositional and adjective. 
{c) Infinitive, prepositional and participial. 

(d) Prepositional and idiomatic. 

\e) Infinitive, participial, vocative, pleonastic, absolute, 

ANALYSIS. 

In analyzing sentences follow the general scheme outlined below : 

1. Kind of sentence. 

2. If compound or complex, name the different clauses and kind. 

3. Pick out the predicate verb. Ask the question " who " before 
the predicate for the subject and "whom" or "what" after the 
predicate for object or attribute. 

4. Name the modifiers of the subject, predicate and complements, 
and their classes. 

5. Name the connectives and independent elements. 
Use diagram if possible. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 223 

113. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subj ect — perseverance. 
Predicate — overcomes. 
Obj ect — obstacles. 
Modifier of object — all. 

114. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subj ect — generosity. 
Predicate — makes. 
Object — friends. 
Modifier of predicate — rapidly. 
lis. Simple declarative sentence. 
Subject — friend. 
Predicate — is. 
Attribute — friend. 
Modifiers of subject — a, in need. 
Modifier of attribute — indeed. 

116. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subj ect — merchants. 

Predicate — increased. 

Obj ect — business. 

Modifiers of subject — the, enterprising. 

Modifier of predicate — soon. 

Modifier of object — their. 

117. Simple interrogative sentence. 

Subject — men. 
Predicate — did buy. 
Obj ect — automobiles. 
Modifier of subject — those. 
Modifier of predicate — where. 
Modifiers of object — their, new. 

118. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — fool. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute — zero. 

Modifier of subject — a. 

Modifiers of attribute — the, of humanity. 

119. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subj ect — university. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute — collection. 

Modifiers of subject — the, true, of these days. 

Modifiers of attribute — a, of books. 

120. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — effect. 

Predicate' — is. 

Attribute — test. 

Modifiers of subject — the, practical, of a belief. 

Modifiers of attribute — the, real, of its soundness. 

121. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — nation. 



224 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Predicate — cannot afford. 

Object (infinitive phrase) — to do a mean thing. 

122. Simple declarative sentence with a compound attribute. 

Subject (infinitive phrase) — to be true. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute (compound) — manly, chivalrous, Christian. 

123. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject (substantive phrase) — to be happy. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute — result. 

Modifier of subject — at home. 

Modifiers of attribute — the, ultimate, of all ambition 

124. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — happiness. 

Predicate — will be. 

Attribute (phrase) — to escape the worst misery. 

Modifiers of subject — the, best. 

125. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — Lafayette. 

Predicate — visited. 

Object — us. 

Appositive of subject — the friend of the Revolution. 

Modifier of predicate — in after years. 

126. Simple exclamatory imperative sentence. 

Subject — you (understood). 

Predicate^ — give. 

Direct object (phrase) — of your bark. 

Indirect object — me. 

Appositive of subject — O Birch-Tree. 

127. Simple imperative sentence. 

Subject — you (understood). 

Predicate — do. • 

Object— it. 

Modifier of predicate — with all your might. 

128. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — Cotopaxi. 
Predicate — is. 
Attribute — volcano. 

Modifiers of attribute — the, highest and most terrible in all 
the world. 

129. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject (compound) — ^pine, fir, hemlock. 

Predicate — wore. 

Object — mantle. 

Modifier of subject — every. 

Modifier of object — of snow. 

130. Simple interrogative sentence. 

Subject — they. 
Predicate — will do. 
Object — it. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 225 

131. Simple interrogative sentence. 

Subject — all. 
Predicate — are gone. 

132. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — sun. 
Predicate — rose. 
Modifier of subject — the. 

Modifiers of predicate — pleasantly, next morn, on the vil- 
lage of Grand Pre. 

133. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — winter. 

Predicate — is made. 

Attribute — summer. 

Modifiers of subject — the, of our discontent. 

Modifiers of predicate — now^, by the son of York. 

Modifier of attribute — glorious. 

134. Simple imperative sentence. 

Subject — thou. 

Predicate (compound) — go (and) do. 

Object (of do) — likevirise. 

135. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject (substantive phrase) — to be prepared. 
Predicate— makes. 
Obj ect — one. 

Modifier of subject — for war. 

Modifiers of object of the most efficient means for preserv- 
ing peace. 

136. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subj ect — mother. 
Predicate — is. 
Attribute — name. 

Modifiers of attribute — the, of God in the lips and hearts 
of little children. 

137. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — nations. 

Predicate (compound) — shall drop, be. 
Object (of "shall drop") — anchor. 
Modifier of subject — the. 

Modifier of predicate — (shall drop) one by one. 
Modifier of predicate — (be) at rest in the harbor of uni- 
versal liberty. 

138. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — thou. 

Predicate — wert. 

Attribute (compound) — guide, philosopher, friend. 

Modifier of attribute — my. 

Connective in attribute — and. 

139. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — sun. 
~ Predicate — complies. 



226 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Modifiers of subject — the, rising. 

Modifier of predicate — with our weak sight. 

140. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — he. 

Predicate (compound) — gilds (and) shows. 
Object (of "gilds") — clouds. 
Object (of "shows") — globe. 
Modifier of predicate (gilds) — first. 
Modifier of predicate (shows) — then. 
Modifier of object (clouds) — the. 
Modifiers of object (globe) — his, of light. 

141. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — God. 

Predicate — gave. 

Object, direct — liberty. 

Modifier of predicate — (to) us at the same time. 

142. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subj ect — we. 
Predicate — must have. 
Object — quality. 

Modifiers of object — an intellectual, in all property and in 
all actions. 

143. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — it. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute — pleasant. 

Modifiers of attribute (compound-complex phrases) — to 
make hay in the sunshine, to listen to the birds 
singing sweetly in the neighboring trees and bushes. 

Connective — and. 

144. Simple imperative sentence. 

Subject — ^ye. 
Predicate — gather. 
Object — rosebuds. 

145. Simple imperative sentence. 

Subject — you (understood). 

Predicate — listen. 

Appositive of subject — my children, 

146. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — Mary. 
Predicate — was imprisoned. 
Appositive of subject — Queen of Scots 
Modifier of predicate — by Elizabeth. 

147. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) " To have what . . . riches." 

(&) "To be able . . . power." 
(a) Is complex. 

Principal clause — " to have . . . riches." 
Subordinate object clause — "what we want," 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR, 227 

Principal clause — 
Subject — To have what we want. 
Predicate — is. 
Attribute — riches. 

Dependent clause is the object of "to have." 
Subject — we. 
Predicate — want. 
Object — what. 
Connective — but. 
(b) Simple clause. 

Subject — to be able to do without it. 
Predicate — is. 
Attribute — power. 

148. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) "We make our fortunes." 
(&) "Others call them fate." 

Connective — and. 
(a) Subject — we. 

Predicate — make. 

Obj ect — fortunes. 

Modifier of object — our. 
(&) Subject — others. 

Predicate — call. 

Object, direct— them. 

Object, indirect — fate. 

149. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject (compound) — manners and morals. 

Predicate — are. 

Attribute (compound) — friends, allies. 

Modifier of subject — good. 

Modifier of attribute (friends) — sworn. 

Modifier of attribute (allies) — firm. 

150. Compound imperative sentence with the first co-ordinate 
clause imperative. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) Keep cool. 

(b) Anger is not argument. 
Connective — because (understood). 

(a) Subject — you (understood). 

Predicate — keep. 

Attribute — cool. 
(&) Subject — anger. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute — argument. 

Modifier of predicate — not. 

151. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(o) Taxation reaches down to the base. 
(b) The base is labor. 



228 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Connective — but. 

(a) Subject — taxation. 
Predicate — reaches. 

Modifiers of the predicate — down, to the base. 

(b) Subject — base. 
Predicate — is. 
Attribute — labor. 

Modifier of the subject — the. 

152. Compound declarative sentence with complex co-ordinate 
members. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) When men are pure, laws are useless. 

(b) When men are corrupt, laws are broken. 
Connective — and (understood). 

(a) Principal clause (1) — laws are useless. 
Dependent clause (2) — men are pure. 
Conjunctive adverl> — when. 

(1) Subject — laws. 
Predicate — are. 
Attribute — useless. 

(2) Subject — men. 
Predicate — are. 
Attribute — pure. 

(b) Principal clause (1) — laws are broken. 
Dependent clause (2) — men are corrupt. 
Conjunctive adverb — when. 

(1) Subject — laws. 
Predicate — are broken. 

(2) Subject — men. 
Predicate — are. 
Attribute — corrupt. 

153. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) The hills were already green. 

(&) The early grain waved in the fields. 

(c) The air was sweet with blossoming orchards. 
Connective — and. 

(a) Subject — hills. 

Predicate — were. 

Attribute — green. 

Modifier of predicate — already. 
(&) Subject — grain. 

Predicate — waved. 

Modifiers of subject — the, early. 

Modifier of predicate — in the fields. 

(c) Subject — air. 
Predicate — was. 
Attribute — sweet. 
Modifier of subject — the. 

Modifier of attribute — with blossoming orchards. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 229 

154. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) Slow are the steps of Freedom. 

(b) Her feet never turn backward. 
Connective — but. 

(a) Subject — steps. 

Predicate — are. 

Attribute — slow. 

Modifiers of subject — the, of Freedom. 
(&) Subject — feet. 

Predicate — turn. 

Modifier of subject — her. 

Modifiers of predicate — never, backward. 

155. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) He maketh me to lie down in green pastures. 

(b) He leadeth me beside the still waters. 
Connective — and ( understood ) . 

(a) Subject — He. 
Predicate — maketh. 
Object, direct — me. 

Object, indirect — to lie down. 

Modifier of indirect object — in green pastures. 

(b) Subject— He. 
Predicate — leadeth. 
Object — me. 

Modifier of predicate — beside the still waters. 

156. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) The way was long. 
(&) The wind was cold. 

(c) The minstrel was infirm and old. 
Connective — and (understood). 

(a) Subject — way. 
Predicate — was. 
Attribute — long. 
Modifier of subject — the. 

(b) Subject — wind. 
Predicate — was. 
Attribute — cold. 
Modifier of subject — the. 

(f) Subject — minstrel. 
Predicate — was. 
Attribute (compound) — infirm and old. 

157. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(o) No two watches keep the same time. 

(&)_Each believes his own. 
Connective — yet. 
(a) Subject — watches. 



230 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Predicate — keep. 
Object — time. 

Modifiers of subject — no, two. 
Modifiers of object — the, same, 
(fe) Subject — each. 

Predicate — believes. 

Object — own. 

Modifier of object — his. 

158. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) Fury seized these earth-born phantoms. 

(b) Each turned his hand against the rest. 
Connective — and. 

(a) Subject — fury. 
Predicate — seized. 
Obj ect — phantoms. 

Modifiers of object — these, earth-born. 

(b) Subject — each. 
Predicate^ — turned. 
Object — hand. 

Modifier of predicate — against the rest. 
Modifier of object — his. 

159. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) Webster could awe a Senate. 

(b) Everett could charm a college. 

(c) Choate could cheat a jury. 
Connective — i d. 

(a) Subject — Webster. 

Predicate — could awe. 

Obj ect — Senate. 

Modifier of object — a. 
(&) Subject — Everett. 

Predicate — could charm. 

Object — college. 

Modifier of object — a. 

(c) Subject — Choate. 
Predicate — could cheat. 
Object — jury. 
Modifier of object — a. 

160. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) Caesar had his Brutus. 

(&) Charles the First (had) his Cromwell. 

(c) George III. may profit by their example. 
Connective — and. 
(a) Subject — Cassar. 
Predicate — had. 
Object — Brutus. 
Modifier of object — his. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 231 

(b) Subject — Charles. 
Predicate — had (understood). 
Obj ect — Cromwell. 
Modifier of object — his. 
Modifier of subject — the First. 

(c) Subject — George. 
Predicate — may profit. 

Modifier of predicate — by their example. 
Modifier of subject— III. (the Third.) 

161. Compound imperative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) Save the Republic. 

(b) Establish the light of its beacon over the troubled 
waters. 

Connective — and ( understood ) . 

(a) Subject — you (understood). 
Predicate — save. 

Obj ect — Republic. 
Modifier of object — the. 
Appositive of subject, God. 

(b) Subject — you (understood). 
Predicate — establish. 
Object— light. 

Modifiers of object — the, of its beacon over the troubled 
waters. 

162. Compound declarative sentence with complex co-ordinate 
clauses. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) (1) Stand here like fat oxen waiting for the 

butcher's knife then. 
(2) If ye are brutes. 

(b) (1) Follow me. 
(2) If ye are men. 

(a) (1) Principal clause, an imperative clause. 

Subject — you (understood). 

Predicate — stand. 

Modifiers of predicate — here, like fat oxen waiting for 
the butcher's knife, then. 
(2) Dependent adverbial clause. 

Subject — ye. 

Predicate — are. 

Attribute — brutes. 

Conjunction — if. 
(&) (1) Principal clause, an imperative clause. 

Subject — you (understood). 

Predicate — follow. 

Object — me. 
(2) Dependent adverbial clause. 

Subject — ye. 

Predicate — are. 



232 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Attribute — men. 
Conjunction — if. 

163. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) (1) The evil lives after them. 
(2) That men do. 

(b) The good is oft interred with their bones. 
(a) Complex co-ordinate clause. 

(1) Principal clause — 
Subject — evil. 
Predicate — lives. 
Modifier of subject — the. 
Modifier of predicate — after them. 

(2) Subject — men. 
Predicate — do. 
Connective, relative — that. 

(&) Subject — good. 

Predicate — is interred. 

Modifier of subject — the. 

Modifiers of predicate — oft, with their bones. 

164. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) They have no other doctor but sun and the fresh 
air. 

(b) Such an one never sends them to the apothecary, 
(a) Subject — they. 

Predicate — have. 
Object — doctor. 

Modifiers of object — no, other, but sun and the fresh air. 
(&) Subject — one. 

Predicate — sends. 

Object — them. 

Modifier of subject — such an. 

Modifiers of predicate — never, to the apothecary. 

165. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) entire sentence. 

Dependent (subordinate) clause — (b) he was doing. 

Connective, relative — what. 

(a) Subject — he. 
Predicate — asked. 

Object — dependent clause (b). 

(b) Dependent, noun clause used as object of principal clause. 
Subject — he. 

Predicate — was doing. 
Obj ect — what. 

166. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Success is full of promise. 
Dependent clause — (b) Men get it. 
Connective, conjunctive adverb — till. 
Xo) Subject — success. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 233 

Predicate — is. 
Attribute— full. 

Modifier of attribute — of promise. 
(&) Subject — men. 
Predicate — get. 
Object— it. 

167. Compound declarative sentence with complex co-ordinate 
clauses. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(a) (1) We shall find what we seek. 

(2) What we seek. 
(&) (1) Entire clause. 

(2) What we flee from. 
Connective — and. 

(a) (1) Principal clause. 

Subject — we. 
Predicate — shall find. 
Object — what we seek. 
(2) Dependent noun clause used as object of principal 
clause. 

Subject — we. 
Predicate — seek. 
Object — what. 

(b) (1) Principal clause. 

Subject (dependent clause) — what we f^ee from. 
Predicate — flies. 

Modifier of predicate — from us. 
(2) Dependent noun clause used as the subject of principal 
clause. 
Subject — we. 
Predicate — flee. 
Modifier of predicate — from. 
Connective, relative — what. 

168. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Every fact becomes a key to other 
facts. 

Dependent clause — (&) That is learned. 

Connective — that. 
(a) Subject — fact. 

Predicate — becomes. 

Attribute — key. 

Modifiers of subject — every, dependent clause. 

Modifiers of attribute — a, to other facts. 
(&) Dependent adjective clause, modifying subject of principal 

clause. 

Subject — that. 

Predicate — is learned. 

169. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Entire sentence. 
Dependent clause — (b) That the majority rules. 



234 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Connective (relative) — that. 
(o) Principal clause. 

Subject — theory. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute (dependent clause) — that the majority rules. 

Modifiers of subject — the, ruling. 
(6) Dependent noun clause used as attribute of the principal 

clause. 

Subj ect — maj ority. 

Predicate — rules. 

Modifier of the subject — the. 

170. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Smiles are smiles only. 
Dependent clause — (b) The heart pulls the wire. 
Connective (conjunctive adverb) — when. 

(a) Subject — smiles. 
Predicate — are. 
Attribute — smiles. 
Modifier of attribute — only. 

(&) Subject — heart. 
Predicate — epulis. 
Object — wire. 
Modifier of subject — the. 
Modifier of object — the. 

171. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Complete sentence. 

Dependent clause — (b) I have but one life to lose for my 

country. 
Connective (relative) — that, 
(o) Subject — I. 

Predicate — regret. 

Object (dependent clause) — that I have but one life to 

lose for my country. 
Modifier of predicate — only. 

(b) Subject— I. 
Predicate — have. 
Object — life. 

Modifiers of object — but one, to lose for my country. 

172. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Complete sentence. 

Dependent clause^(&) The gods sell all things at a fair 

price. 
Connective (relative) — that (understood). 

(a) Subject — poet. 
Predicate — said. 

Object (dependent clause) — the gods sell all things at a fair 

price. 
Modifiers of subject — the, ancient. 

(b) Dependent noun clause used as the object of the principal 
clause. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 235 

Subject — gods. 

Predicate — sell 

Object — things. 

Modifier of subject — the. 

Modifier of object — all. 

Modifier of predicate — at a fair price. 

173. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) There is a tide in the affairs of all 

men. 
Dependent clause — (b) Which, taken at its flood, leads on 

to fortune. 
Connective (relative) — which. 

(a) Subject — tide. 
Predicate — is. 

Modifiers of subject — a, dependent clause. 

Modifiers of predicate — there, in the affairs of all men. 

(b) Dependent adjective clause modifying subject of principal 
clause. 

Subject — which. 

Predicate — leads. 

Modifiers of predicate — on, to fortune. 

Modifier of subject (participial phrase) — taken at its flood. 

174. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) The standard of poverty rises. 

Dependent clause — (b) Society advances. 

Connective — as. 
(o) Subject — standard. 

Predicate — rises. 

Modifiers of subject — of poverty, the. 

Modifier of predicate — dependent clause. 
(b) Dependent adverbial clause, modifying predicate. 

Subject — society. 

Predicate — advances. 

175. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) No nation can bear wealth. 

Dependent clause — (b) That is not intelligent first. 

Connective (relative) — that. 
(a) Subject — nation. 

Predicate — can bear. 

Obj ect — wealth. 

Modifiers of subject — no, dependent clause. 
(&) Dependent adjective clause. 

Subject — that. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute — intelligent. 

Modifier of predicate — not. 

Modifier of attribute — first. 

176. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Lives of great men all remind us. 
Dependent clause — (b) We can make our lives sublime. 



236 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Connective (relative) — that (understood^, 
(o) Subject — lives. 

Predicate — remind. 

Object — us. 

Modifiers of subject — all, of great men. 
(b) Subject — we. 

Predicate — can make. 

Object — lives. 

Modifiers of object — our, (to be) sublime. 

177. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Laziness travels so slowly. 
Dependent clause — (fo) Poverty soon overtakes him. 
Connective (relative) — that. 

(a) Subject — laziness. 
Predicate — travels. 

Modifiers of predicate — so slowly, dependent clause. 

(b) Dependent adverbial clause. 
Subject — poverty. 
Predicate — overtakes. 
Object — him. 

Modifier of predicate — soon. 

178. Complex imperative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) Consider this. 

Dependent clause — (b) In the coui'se of justice, none of us 
should see salvation. 

(a) Imperative clause. 

Subj ect — you ( understood ) . 

Predicate — consider. 

Object — this, with the dependent clause in apposition. 

(b) Dependent declarative clause is in apposition with the ob- 
ject of the principal clause. 

Subject — none. 

Predicate — should seek. 

Object — salvation. 

Modifier of subject — of us. 

Modifier of predicate — in the course of justice. 

179. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) The play is the thing. 

Dependent clause — (&) F.ll catch the conscience of the king. 

Connective (conjunctive adverb) — wherein. 
(a) Subject — play. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute — thing. 

Modifier of subject — the. 

Modifiers of attribute — the, dependent clause. 
(£>) Dependent adjective clause. 

Subject — I. 

Predicate — will catch. 

Object — conscience. 

Modifier of object — of the king. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 237 

180. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) (1) I wish to tell you of a soldier. 
(2) Who lay wounded on a hard- 
fought field. 
Dependent clause — (b) I speak to you today. 
Connective — as. 
(fl) (1) Principal clause. 
Subject — I. 
Predicate — wish. 
Object — to tell you. 
Modifier of object — of a soldier. 
(2) Subject (connective) — who. 
Predicate — lay. 
Attribute — wounded. 

Modifier of predicate — on a hard-fought field. 
(b) Subject— I. 

Predicate — speak. 

Modifiers of predicate — to you, today. 

181. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause (complex) — (a) (1) There never was a 

person. 
(2) That did anything 
worth doing. 
Dependent clause (complex) — (b) (1) Who did not really 

receive more. 
(2) He gave. 
Connective (subject [b]) — who. 

(a) (1) Principal clause. 

Subj ect — person. 
Predicate — was. 

Modifiers of subject — a, dependent clause (a2). 
Modifiers of predicate — there, never. 
(2) Dependent adjective clause. 
Subject (connective) — that. 
Predicate — did. 
Obj ect — anything. 
Modifier of object — worth doing. 

(b) Dependent adjective clause modifying the subject person. 

(1) Principal clause. 
Subject — who. 
Predicate — did receive. 
Object — more. 

Modifiers of predicate — not, really. 
Modifier of object — dependent clause. 

(2) Dependent adjective clause modifying object. 
Subject — he. 

Predicate — gave. 
Connective — than. 

182. Complex imperative sentence. 

Principal clause— (a) Let him hear. 



238 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Dependent clause — (b) That hath ears to hear. 
Connective — that. 

(a) Subject — you (understood). 
Predicate — let. 

Object, direct — him (to) hear. 
Appositive of object — he. 

(b) Dependent adjective clause modifying object. 
Subject — that. 

Predicate — hath. 

Object — ears. 

Modifier of object — to hear. 

183. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) They have the gift to know it. 
Dependent clause — (&) Ladies be but young and fair. 
Connective — if. 

(a) Subject — they. 
Predicate — have. 
Object — gift. 

Modifiers of object — the, to know it. 
Modifier of subject — dependent clause. 

(b) Dependent adjective clause modifying subject they. 
Subject — ladies. <- 

Predicate — be. 

Attribute (compound) — young and fair. 

184. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) The real man is one. 
Dependent clause — (b) (1) Who always finds excuses for 

others. 
(2) (Who) never excuses himself. 
Connective (relative) — who. 

(a) Subject — man. 
Predicate — is. 
Attribute — one. 

Modifiers of subject — the, real. 
Modifier of attribute — dependent clause. 

(b) Compound dependent adjective clause modifying attribute 
one. 

(1) Subject — who. 
Predicate — finds. 
Obj ect — excuses. 

Modifier of object — for others. 

(2) Subject — who (understood). 
Predicate — excuses. 

Obj ect — himself. 
Modifier of predicate — never. 
IBS. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) (1) Every duty obscures some truth. 

(2) We omit. 
Dependent clause — (b) We should have known. 
Connective (relative) — that (understood). 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 239 

(a) (1) Principal clause. 
Subject — duty. 
Predicate — obscures. 
Object— truth. 

Modifiers of subject — every, dependent clause (a2). 
Modifiers of object — some, dependent clause (b). 
(2) Dependent adjective clause modifying the subject duty. 
Subject — we. 
Predicate — omit. 
Connective (relative) — that. 
(&) Dependent adjective clause modifying object truth. 
Subject — we. 
Predicate — should have known. 

186. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) (He) must not throw stones at an- 
other. 

Dependent clause — (b) Whose house is of glass. 

Connective — whose, 
(a) Subject — he (understood). 

Predicate — must throw. 

Object — stones. 

Modifier of subject — dependent clause. 

Modifiers of predicate — not, at another. 
(&) Dependent adjective clause modifying subject he. 

Subject — house. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute (phrase) — of glass. 

Modifier of subject — whose. 

PARSING. 

187. Perseverance is an abstract noun, third person, singular num- 
ber, neuter gender, nominative case because it is the subject of the 
sentence; obstacles, common noun, third person, singular number, 
objective case, because it is the object of the verb. 

188. In need is an adjective phrase modifying friend. Indeed is 
an adverb of degree, cannot be compared, and modifies is. 

189. Their is a personal pronoun, third person, plural number, 
masculine gender, possessive case, and modifies business. 

190. Those is a demonstrative adjective, cannot be compared, and 
modifies men. 

191. Manly is a descriptive adjective, can be regularly compared, 
manly, more manly, most manly; and modifies the subject phrase, 
to be true. Christian is a proper adjective, regularly compared. 
Christian, more Christian, most Christian, and modifies the subject 

192. To be happy is an infinitive substantive phrase used as the 
subject of the sentence. At home is a prepositional adverbial 
phrase modifying the adjective happy. Of all ambition is a prepo- 
sitional adjective phrase modifying the attribute result. In after 
years is a prepositional adverbial phrase modifying visited. 

193. Friend is a common noun, third person, singular number, 



240 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

masculine gender and nominative case because it is in apposition 
with Lafayette. Revolution is a proper noun, third person, singular 
number, neuter gender, objective case because it is the object of the 
preposition of. 

194. Is is an irregular intransitive verb; to be (am), was, being, 
been; indicative mode, present tense, and agrees with its subject in 
third person, singular number. 

195. Likewise is an adverb of manner, cannot be compared and 
modifies do. 

196. Makes is an irregular, transitive verb ; to make, made, mak- 
ing, made ; active voice, indicative mode, present tense, and agrees 
with its subject in third person, singular number. Shall drop is a 
regular, transitive verb ; to drop, dropped, dropping, dropped ; active 
voice, indicative mode, future tense, and agrees with the subject in 
the third person, plural number. Shall be is an irregular verb, in- 
transitive verb; to be (am), was, being, been; indicative mode, 
future tense, and agrees with its subject in the third person, plural 
number. 

197. All is a pronominal adjective, third person, plural number, 
common gender, nominative case because it is the subject of the 
sentence. Are gone is an irregular, intransitive verb; to go, went, 
going, gone; passive voice, indicative mode, present tense, and 
agrees with the subject in person and plural number. 

198. An auxiliary verb. 

199. Pleasant is a descriptive adjective, can be regularly com- 
pared, pleasant, pleasanter, pleasantest; and modifies the subject it. 
To make hay is a prepositional adverbial phrase modifying pleasant. 
In the sunshine is a prepositional adverbial phrase modifying to 
make hay. To listen is an infinitive phrase modifying pleasant. 
Sweetly is an adverb, can be regularly compared ; sweetly, more 
sweetly, most sweetly ; and modifies singing. In the neighboring 
trees and bushes is a prepositional adverbial phrase modifying sing- 
ing. 

200. Mary in the nominative case. Queen in the nominative case 
by apposition. Scots in the objective case. Elisabeth in the ob- 
jective case. 

201. What is a relative pronoun and serves as the connective be- 
tween the object clause what we want and the infinitive verb to 
have. 

202. Not is an adverb of manner, cannot be compared, and modi- 
fies is. 

203. Freedom, feminine gender. Steps, neuter gender. 

204. Yet is a conjunction and connects the two co-ordinate clauses. 
Each is a pronominal adjective, third person, singular number, mas- 
culine gender, and nominative case because it is the subject of the 
clause. His is a personal pronoun, third person, singular number, 
masculine gender, possessive case, modifying own. Own is in this 
case a pronominal adjective standing for own watch, third person, 
singular number, neuter gender, objective case because it is the ob- 
ject of the predicate. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 241 

205. A defective verb, serving as an auxiliary to awe, charm and 
cheat. 

206. Both in the imperative mode, present tense. 

207. Do is an irregular, transitive verb ; to do. did, doing, done ; 
active voice, and agrees with its subject in the third person, plural 
number. Lives is a regular, intransitive verb ; to live, lived, living, 
lived; indicative mode, present tense, and agrees with its subject in 
the third person, singular number. Is interred is a regular intrans- 
itive verb ; to inter, interred, interring, interred ; passive voice, in- 
dicative mode, present tense, and agrees with the subject in the 
third person, singular number. 

208. No, negative adverb modifying other; other, demonstrative 
adjective, modifying doctor; but, preposition introducing the adjec- 
tive phrase ; never, adverb of time modifying sends; such, demon- 
strative adjective modifying one; an, adjective (article) modifying 
one; one, an indefinite adjective (adjective pronoun). 

209. Brutes, plural number and nominative case. Oxen, plural 
number and objective case. Butclier's, singular number, possessive 
case. Men, plural number and nominative case. 

210. Ruling is a participial adjective derived from the verb to 
rule, and modifies theory. 

211. Only is an adverb, cannot be compared, and modifies regret. 

212. Its is a personal pronoun, antecedent tide, third person, sin- 
gular number and possessive case. 

213. Can make is an irregular transitive verb; to make, made, 
making, made ; active voice, indicative mode, auxiliary can, and 
agrees with its subject in the first person, plural number. 

214. Is is in the present tense. {Wi)ll catch, future tense. 

215. He is a personal pronoun, third person, singular number, 
masculine gender, and in the objective case, because it is in appo- 
sition with him in the principal clause. It is a quaint use of him. 

216. Every is a pronominal adjective and modifies duty. Some 
is a pronominal adjective and modifies truth. We is a personal pro- 
noun, first person, plural number, common gender and in the nomi- 
native case because it is the subject of the clause. 

217. Whose is a relative pronoun, possessive case and serves here 
as a relative adjective, modifying house. It is the connective be- 
tween the two clauses. Another is a pronominal adjective, third 
person, singular number, common gender and objective case. 

218. // be, in the subjunctive m.ode. Have, in the indicative mode. 
To know, in the infinitive mode. 

SYNTHESIS. 

219. (a) The general won the battle. 
(&) Please sit down. 

(c) "Where are you going, my pretty maid?" 

220. (a) What a brave lad you are! 

(&) Jump far out, boy, into the sea! 
(c) Wasn't the scenery grand? 

221. The two great generals fought long and hard. 



242 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

222. (a) The poor boy is a hard worker, 
(b) Iron is heavy. 

223. The man sold the many beautiful pieces of pottery. 

224. He is very sick. 

225. (fl) A gentleman of learning addressed the pupils of the 
first class. 

(b) The old wooden ship burned with a very bright light. 

226. (a) ^sop, the slave, wrote the famous fables. 
(b) The boy read the book, Robinson Crusoe. 

227. The actor, remaining away, there was no play. 

228. To tell the truth, I was disheartened. 

229. Faith, shattered, causes distrust. 

230. I found the books in the bookcase and on the table. 

231. The triumphing of the wicked is short. 

232. The rising waters threatened the town. 

233. The man in the box office in the theatre is very polite. 

234. The trees provide a shelter for the birds in the Held. 

235. Hurrah ! the American soldiers fought bravely and well for 
their flag. 

236. To train citizens is the work of our schools. 

237. The boys had to read the book thoroughly. 

238. He was to report himself. 

239. John was about to go. 

240. To be good is to be happy. 

241. He promised that he would come, and she wrote that she 
could not. 

242. Whether Columbus was the first discoverer of America or 
not, is a question among historians. 

243. The public are often deceived by false appearances. 

244. (a) He went dutifully. 

(b) He went where duty called him. 

245. There was once a king who had three brave and handsome 
sons. 

246. His letter is to the purport that he ivill soon be here. 

247. (a) Washington was a great general; he proved it by his 
many successful battles. 

(6) That Washington was a great general, is proved by his many 
successful battles. 

248. (a) After Robinson had eaten, he tried to walk. 
(b) Robinson ate; then he tried to walk. 

249. (a) He is welcome wherever he goes. 

(b) He is welcome everywhere. 

(c) He is welcome at all places. 

250. Can a youth who refuses to yield obedience to his parents, 
expect to become a good or wise man? 

251. He seems to have made a poor choice, though he is regarded 
as an expert in his line. 

252. If ive would improve our minds by conversation, it is a 
great happiness to be acquainted with persons wiser than ourselves. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 243 

253. One of the most valuable effects of action is, that it makes 
rest agreeable. 

254. See 59-60. 

SYNTAX. 

255. Syntax treats of the combination of words in their relation, 
agreement, government and arrangement. 

256. (a) The relation of v^^ords is their connection or dependence. 
(5) Agreement treats of the similarity in inflexion or modification, 
(c) The government of words causes the modification of the de- 
pendent or subordinate words, {d) Arrangement treats of the posi- 
tion of words in a sentence to bring out the proper sense. 

257. A variation or deviation from any of the rules governing 
the above, so as to make the sentence grammatically and logically 
incorrect. 

258. (a) They saw an old man. 
(h) He went into a house. 

(c) Brutus is an honorable man. 

The article — adjective a — is used before words beginning with a 
consonant sound ; an when the word begins with a vowel sound. 

259. (a) Not a word was said nor a sign made. 
(&) Despise not the doer but the deed. 

{c) Is London to the right or the left? 

(d) Does Panama connect the Atlantic and the Pacific 
Ocean? 

{e) The Allegheny and the Monongahela Rivers form the 

Ohio. 
if) The empty and worthless shells will float, 
(g) He is a better mathematician than English student, 
(/i) I prefer an orange to an apple. 
When two or more nouns are connected and the plural number 
of things is to be emphasized, the article is to be repeated ; when 
they are so joined to convey the idea of only one thing the article- 
need not be repeated. 

260. (a) This sort of thing is easily mended. 
(&) Bring out those books. 

(c) We rode about fifteen miles an hour. 
Adjectives must agree with their nouns in number, excepting 
where the adjective is necessarily plural or singular, in which case 
the nu-mber of the noun must be changed. 

261. (a) David and Jonathan loved each other. 
(&) He chose the last of the group. 

(c) Name the two most wonderful isthmuses in the world. 
{d) We like to see children love one another. 
Use the comparative degree and each other for two; the super- 
lative and one another for more than two. 

262. I bought those books. Do not use the personal pronoun 
them as an adjective in place of those. 

263. (o) Has any one of your class helped you? 
(&) Here are five; but none will do. 



244 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. • 

Either is to be used with two only; any and none with more 
than two. 

264. Bring me a cup of hot tea. The adjective should be placed 
near the word which it modifies. 

265. (a) Each of them is here. 

(b) Let no one deceive himself. 

(c) Either you or John is guilty. 

Each one, either, pronominal adjectives, are always in the third 
person singular, and therefore require their verbs to agree with 
them. 

266. (a) The boy did only his lessons. 

(&) He spoke impudently to his employer. 
Adverbs are to be placed as near the words they modify so as to 
make the meaning clear. 

267. (a) The cloth feels smooth. 
{b) He did his work quickly, 
(c) He feels weak. 

Do not use an adverb for an adjective and vice versa. 

268. (o) He cannot do more. 

(&) They will write no more letters. 
{c) Neither he nor anyone else can do that. 
Double negatives destroy each other and have the force of a pos- 
itive assertion. 

269. (a) Tom could not have written that note. 

{b) A pitcher was broken because the water was frozen. 
(c) We saw the lady walking along. 
Do not use the past participle of an irregular verb for the pre- 
terit tense and vice versa. 

270. (a) He stood tallest among us. 

(b) Between us two there are no secrets. 

Between is used where two only are spoken of; among or amidst 
with more than two. 

271. (a) He brought the chest into the room. 
(&) They jumped into the river. 

(c) They were in the room. 

Into is used where motion or change is intended ; in without ref- 
erence to motion. 

272. (a) She dififers from him, etc. 

(b) That book was different from that one. 
Differ requires the preposition from after it. 

273. (a) Them that honor me, I will honor. 

(b) I can write as well as he. 

(c) You know as well as I that you did it. 

(d) James is older than we. 

A noun or pronoun that is the subject of a verb must be in the 
nominative case; if the object of a verb or a preposition, it must 
be in the objective case. 

274. (a) Circumstances alter cases. 

(b) The evil lives after them. 

(c) Have those books been delivered? 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 245 

(d) Three years' interest was demanded. 

(e) The ship, with all her crew, was lost. 

If) To copy and publish the writings of others is plagiarism, 
(g) Who are you? 
The predicate verb must agree with its subject in person and 
number. 

275. (o) Fever always produces thirst. 

(b) Virtue is its own reward. 

(c) Three and five make eight. 

Id) Columbus maintained that the earth is round. 
Universal propositions or statements that are true or false at all 
times are to be expressed in the present tense. 

276. (a) Industry and thrift lead to wealth. 

(b) Time and tide wait for no man. 

(c) His health, as well as his wealth, requires care. 

(d) Buyer, likewise seller, is held liable. 

(e) The ebb and flow of the tides is now known. 

Two or more singular nominatives connected by and require the 
verb in the plural number unless the sense conveyed is that of unity 
or each nominative belongs to a separate proposition. 

277. (a) Neither he nor she was here. 

(b) Ignorance or negligence has caused the mistake. 
The singular number of the verb is required when two or more 
singular nominatives are connected by "or," or any other disjunc- 
tive conjunction. 

278. (a) We find it was thou. 

(b) It could not have been he. 

(c) It is not I. 

(d) Who do you think we were? 

(e) They said it was he. 

The attribute always agrees with the subject in case; it is always 
in the nominative case. 

279. (a) I gave him the apples, but he would not eat them. 

(b) The man returned the money, but they would not accept 
it. 
Pronouns should agree with their antecedents in person and 
number. 

280. (a) This is the horse which my father sold. 

(b) The books which they sold for Mr. Graham. 

(c) There was a certain man who planted a vine. 
See 54. 

281. (a) The jury agree in their verdict. 

(6) The nation will see that their laws are enforced. 
(c) The Senate then resolved itself into a committee of the 
whole. 
Collective nouns require their verbs and pronouns of which they 
are antecedents to be either singular or plural according to the 
sense. 

282. (a) Of man's first disobedience . . . 
(b) Moses' rod changed into a serpent. 



246 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(c) It is not hers. 

(d) Essex's sad fate affected the Queen. 
See 30. 

283. (a) Whom shall we find there? 

(&) Them that honor me I will honor. 

(c) My father told John and me to go with him. 

(d) No secrets are between you and me. 

The object of a verb or a preposition is in the objective case 
(275-278). 

284. (a) " Thou too ! Brutus." 

(b) He being unknown, they molested him. 
Independent nouns or pronouns are put in the nominative case. 

285. (a) It was none other than his brother. 
(b) Have you other proof than this? 

In a comparison, and after else, other, rather, the second term 
of the comparison should be introduced by than. 

286. (a) The subject precedes the verb, the complement follows 
it; as, Washington and Napoleon were great generals. 

(&) The modifiers should be placed as near the words which 
they modify, the adjective before the noun or pronoun, and the ad- 
verb before or after the word it modifies, as the sense may deter- 
mine ; as, " The growing good of the world is partly dependent on 
unhistoric acts." 

(c) The relative pronouns should be close enough to the ante- 
cedent to show the relation clearly ; as, " It was King Saul who 
hunted David." 

287. For clearness, emphasis, effectiveness, precision, irony, or 
any other figure of speech. 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

288. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — John Hampden. 

Predicate — was. 

Attribute — defender. 

Modifiers of attribute — a, valiant, of the people's rights. 

Appositive of subject — an English squire. 

289. (a) English, a proper (descriptive) adjective modifying 
squire, (b) Was, irregular verb, to be, was, being, been; intrans- 
itive, indicative mode, past tense, and agrees with its subject in the 
third person, singular number, (c) Of, a preposition showing the 
relation between people's rights and defender, (d) People's, com- 
mon, collective noun, third person, common gender, singular num- 
ber and possessive case. 

290. (a) A demonstrative adjective: "That boy has worked his 
way through school." 

(b) Personal pronoun: "I have that." "That is mine." 

(c) Relative pronoun: "He is the man that became famous." 

(d) Adverb (exceptional cases) : " I am not that certain, sir." 

291. Is it not a known fact that the upright man speaks as he 
thinks? 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 247 

292. (a) Principal clause, entire sentence. Dependent clause: 
"Where Moses is buried," is the subject of the principal clause. 

(b) Principal clause: This is the land. Dependent clause: 
"Where her young hero sleeps," is an adjective clause modifying 
land. 

293. (a) Nominative case, subject of sentence, (b) Nominative 
case, in apposition with /, which is in the nominative case. 

294. (a) Has been mailed, regular transitive verb; to mail, mailed, 
mailing, mailed ; passive voice, indicative mode, perfect tense, third 
person, singular number. 

(&) Be, irregular intransitive verb; to be, was, being, been; sub- 
junctive mode, present tense, third person, singular number. 

295. (a) Me is the object of the preposition to and is therefore 
in the objective case; / is in the nominative case and therefore in- 
correct. 

296. Ladies, valleys, knives, eyes, teeth. 

297. (a) A complex sentence is one containing two or more 
clauses, one or more of which are in a dependent or subordinate 
position to the other or principal clause. (5) A peculiarity of the 
English is that it has so many borrowed words. 

298. (a) The army that is now on the march has fought many 
battles. 

(fe) The flock of geese that he shot at is a large one. 

(c) The Senate, which is the upper legislative house, considers 
the questions thoughtfully. 

(d) The audience applauded the speaker though they did not all 
agree with his arguments. 

Where the meaning conveyed by the collective noun is that of 
unity the pronoun and verb will necessarily be in the singular num- 
ber ; where the idea is that of plurality the pronoun and verb are 
in the plural number. 

299. (a) Word modifier — He has a good book. 

(b) Phrase — The boy of good breeding. 

(c) Clause — He is the man that invented the machine. 

(d) Attribute — Gold is yellow. 

300. (a) As a noun — Seeing is believing. 

(b) As an adjective — The brightening day. 

(c) As a verb — He is swiinming. 

301. (a) Word — Fire burns brightly. 

(&) Phrase — the fire burns with a bright flame. 

(c) Clause — The fire burns so that it gives a bright flame. 

302. See 11. 

303. Simple declarative sentence. 

Subject — states. 
Predicate — left. 
Object — themselves. 
Modifier of subject — the. 
Modifier of object — without a government. 
Explanatory complex phrase — in their anxiety to be without 

a master. 



248 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

304. Heroes', aldermen's, deer's, its, whose, the Misses Wheeler's, 
attorneys'-general or attorney-generals', Musselmans' sons'-in-law, 
mice's. 

305. (a) Object complement — "The Americans defeated the 
British." 

(b) Attribute complement — " Those are the most hardened crim- 
inals." 

(c) An objective or factitive object — They named the child John. 

306. (a) Till now, he was my friend. 

(&) Absenting himself, the teacher caused the school to close. 

{c) There is not a child but recognizes its parents. 

307. (a) Neither the maple, nor the oak, is now standing. See 
277. 

{b) I insist upon knowing whom you sent. Whom is the object 
of the predicate sent, and should be in the objective case. 

(c) I fear we shall be late. Shall is used with the first person. 

{d) The tide is the rising and falling of the water. Universal 
truths should be stated in the present tense. 

308. Complex declarative sentence. 

Principal clause — (a) It is said. 

Dependent clause — (b) The good die young, 
(a) Subject — it. 

Predicate — is said. 
{b) Dependent explanatory clause. 

Subject — good. 

Predicate — die. 

Modifier of predicate — (while) young. 

Modifier of subject — the. 

Connective (relative) — that (understood). 

309. Adjective clauses. 

310. (a) Simple imperative sentence. 
(&) Complex declarative sentence, 
(c) Complex declarative sentence. 

311. See 17. 

312. (c) As subject noun: "To hear is to obey." 

(b) As object of sentence: "He likes to read." 

(c) As object of preposition: "I am about to go." 

(d) As an adverb: "He came to see us." 

(e) As an attribute : " He is to die." 

313. (a) He was about to begin his work. 
(&) They began their play. 

(c) Beginning with the arithmetic. 

(d) The work was begun. 
(ffll) To eat is necessary. 
(&1) They ate their breakfast, 
(cl) Eating on the street is . . . 
(dl) They had eaten when we . . . 

314. (a) It is better than his. 

(b) This is the best they had. 

(al) His reputation is worse than John's. 



ANSWERS IN GRAMMAR. 249 

(bl) The man with one of the worst models attempted to 

infringe . . . 
(a2) They gave him an upper berth. 
{b2) He was told to go to the uppermost floor. . 

315. I shall go. Shall I go? 
You will go. Shall you go? 
He will go. Shall he go? 

316. See 88, 101. 

317. (a) All is well, but what the future holds forth I do not 

know. 
{b) Whence all but him had fled. 

318. (a) In general the differences are the same as between shall 
and will. I should go. You would go. He would go. {b) Should 
is sometimes used in the sense of ought. I should be thankful. 
You should be thankful. He should be thankful, (c) Would in 
the sense of habit or determination. I would go, were it not for . . . 
You would go, despite the warning. She would go, in spite of the 
protests. 

319. (o) Lie is an intransitive verb, and therefore has no object. 

(b) Lay is a transitive verb, and is always followed by an 
obj ect. 

320. Compound declarative sentence. 

Co-ordinate clauses — 

(fl) The book is John's. 
(&) (1) It is doubtful. 

(2) He will come and claim it. 

(3) Connective, whether. 
Connective (conjunction) — but. 

(o) Subject — book. 

Predicate — is. 

Attribute — (book) understood. 

Modifier of subject — the. 

Modifier of attribute — John's. 
(6) Complex co-ordinate clause. 

(1) Principal clause. 
Subject — it. 
Predicate — is. 
Attribute— doubtful. 

(2) Dependent adverbial clause modifying attribute doubt- 
ful. 

Subject — he. 

Predicate (compound) — will come and claim. 

Object — it. 

321. (a) All is well. 

(&) Careless people often speak before they think. 

(c) They that honor me will be honored. 

322. (o) As a noun : That is a very good book. 
(&) As a connective: I know what you think. 

(c) As a modifier: That book is better than mine. 



250 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

323. (a) As an interrogative pronoun: "What do you think he 

is?" 
(fc) As a relative pronoun: "What you say is true." 

(c) As a relative adjective: "I know what hat you mean." 

(d) As an interrogative adjective: "What book have you?" 

324. (o) Complex declarative sentence. (b) We, contrasted; 
who, were tossing and wooing, (c) Our is a personal pronoun, 
first person, plural number, common gender and possessive case ; 
sleep is an abstract noun, third person, singular number, neuter gen- 
der, objective case, object of verb wooing. 

325-. 

Tense. Singular. Plural. 

Present he takes they take 

Present Perfect he has taken they have taken 

Past he took they took 

Past Perfect he had taken they had taken 

Future he will take they will take 

Future Perfect he will have taken they will have taken 



CHAPTER VI. 
QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 

PERIOD OF DISCOVERY AND EXPLORATION. 

1. Tell briefly who the Mound-builders were. 

2. Name and locate the principal Indian tribes in 
North America. 

3. Give a brief description of Indian life and customs. 

4. In what way were the Indians in the southern part 
of what is now North America superior to those in the 
rest of the continent? 

5. Show how the differences among the Indians in- 
fluenced the settlers from Spain, France and England. 

6. State five facts of interest relating to the character 
of the Indian. 

7. Describe the Indian language. 

8. Give the date of the discovery of America by Col- 
umbus. 

9. What was Columbus's object in sailing west? 

10. Who Vv^as Marco Polo and what was his influence 
on Europe, and more particularly on Columbus? 

11. Briefly state the connection of the capture of Con- 
stantinople in 1453 with the discovery of America. 

12. Sketch briefly the early life of Columbus. 

13. Give an account of his appeals for aid. 

14. Describe the voyage of Columbus across the At- 
lantic Ocean. 

15. Name the lands discovered on each of his voyages. 

16. What was the effect of Columbus's discoveries on 
European nations? 

17. What was the " Line of Demarcation " ? 

18. Who was Ponce de Leon and what did he accom- 
plish? 

19. (a) By whom was Mexico first visited? (b) Give 
a short account of the conquest of Mexico by Cortez. 

251 



252 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

20. (a) Describe DeSoto's expedition and discovery 
of the Mississippi River, (b) Tell why he was op- 
posed by the Indians. 

21. Give an account of Magellan's voyage around the 
world. 

22. Tell, with dates, what each of the following did: 
(a) Balboa; (b) Pizarro; (c) Ayllon ; (d) Narvaez; (e) 
Coronado. 

23. What were the first permanent settlements made 
by the Spaniards in that part of North America now oc- 
cupied by the United States. 

24. Give a brief summary of the Spanish discoveries 
and explorations in the New World. 

25. (a) What was the main purpose of the expeditions 
undertaken by the Spaniards? (b) How did they suc- 
ceed? 

26. What remains are left in the United States of the 
Spanish occupation? 

27. Explain why Spain is not mentioned in connection 
with the discoveries and explorations made in America 
after 1590. 

28. Explain how the New World was given the name 
America. 

29. (a) Who was Vasco de Gama? (b) What did he 
accomplish? 

30. What is the earliest date known of the presence of 
French in the New World? 

31. Who were (a) Denys ; (b) Verrazani ; (c) Cartier? 
What did each do? 

32. Tell what (a) Coligny, (b) Ribaut, (c) De Gourges 
did. 

33. (a) Who were the Huguenots? (b) Why were they 
the first permanent French settlers in America? 

34. (a) What was the first permanent French settle- 
ment made in America? (b) When and by whom was it 
made? 

35. By whom and when was Quebec founded? 

36. Give an account of Champlain's discovery of Lake 
Champlain. 

37. Give a summary of the French discoveries and ex- 
plorations in America until 1700. 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 253 

38. What permanent settlements were made by the 
French ? 

39. Why were these located in the northern and west- 
ern parts of North America? 

40. (a) Who were John and Sebastian Cabot? (b) Of 
what importance were their discoveries to the English? 

41. Why did almost a century elapse before the English 
made another attempt at discovery in the New World? 

42. Tell what (a) Frobisher, (&) Gilbert, (c) Raleigh, 
(d) Gosnold and (e) Pring did. 

43. Give an account of Drake's voyage around the 
world, and tell what he accomplished. 

44. What became of Raleigh's grant of land? 

45. (a) What did the London and Plymouth Com- 
panies mean to do with the land? (b) Which of them 
carried out its purpose first? When? 

46. Give a summary of the English discoveries and ex- 
-plorations in the Western Hemisphere up to the year 

1607. 

47. When and where was the first permanent English 
settlement made in America? 

48. (a) How many and what European nations claimed 
parts of North America? (b) of South America? 

49. Draw a map of the continents and outline the ter- 
ritories claimed by each of these countries. 

50. What ideas had the Europeans of the extent of the 
world prior to the discovery of America? 

51. (a) How many and what European nations were 
connected with America before 1500; (b) before 1600; 
(c) before 1700? 

PERIOD OF SETTLEMENT AND COLONIAL DEVELOPMENT. 

52. Describe the grant of land made to the London 
Company. What use did they make of it? 

53. Give an account of the settlement of Jamestown. 

54. Describe the settlers. What was their object? 

55. Give a brief description of the government of the 
colony. 

56. Tell who John Smith was and why he was specially 
fitted to rule the colonv. 



254 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

57. What change took place in the London Company 
in 1609? 

58. What was " starving time " in the history of Vir- 
ginia ? 

59. Give the date of the third charter of Virginia, and 
tell some of its good results. 

60. In what year did the first representative assembly 
in the colonies meet? 

61. For what important events are 1620 and 1621 
noted? 

62. What were the relations of the colonists with the 
Indians? 

63. (a) In what year did Virginia become a royal 
province? (b) Tell what is meant by a royal province. 

64. Describe the relations of the colony with England 
during the Civil War in England. 

65. Give an account of Bacon's rebellion and tell what 
was its result on the colony. 

66. (a) What was the Navigation Act? (6) In what 
way did it affect the colony? 

67. What kind of a colony was Virginia at the time of 
the Revolutionary War? 

NEW YORK. 

68. What was the foundation of the Dutch claim in 
America? 

69. What was Hudson's purpose in making the voy- 
age? 

70. (a) What was the extent of New Netherlands? (b) 
Name two settlements made. 

71. How did the Dutch regard the claims made by the 
English to their territory? 

72. When and where was the first permanent settle- 
ment made in New Netherlands? 

73. Name the four Dutch governors and tell how long 
they served. 

74. Give an account of the difficulties with the In- 
dians. 

75. What was the outcome of the troubles with the 
Swedes and with Connecticut ? 

76. (a) How long did the Dutch govern New Nether- 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 255 

lands? (b) Give an account of its capture by the En- 
glish. 

77. When and how long- was New Netherlands again 
Dutch territory? 

78. Name some of the important events in the subse- 
quent history of New York. 

79. Who were the Patroons? Explain fully. 

80. (a) What was the Great Patent? (b) To what 
company was North Virginia given? 

81. (a) By whom and when was this country first set- 
tled? (b) What was their object? 

82. What is the difference between Pilgrim and Puri- 
tan? 

83. Give an account of the settlement of Plymouth 
colony. 

84.- (a) What was the Mayflower Compact? (b) Why 
was it drawn up? 

85. Briefly describe the first year of the settlement. 

86. When was the first charter granted to them? 

87. Give an account of the founding of Massachusetts 
Bay Colony. 

88. Who were (a) John Endicott; (b) Mrs. Anne 
Hutchinson; (c) Roger Williams? In what way are they 
associated with the settlement? 

89. What was the "General Court"? 

90. What famous college was founded in 1637? 

91. What was the New England Union or Confedera- 
tion? 

92. Give an account of the religious persecutions in the 
colony. 

93. In what way was Massachusetts affected by the 
Navigation Act? 

94. (a) Describe the town meeting, (b) What was its 
influence on American Government? 

95. What was King Philip's War? ^^ 

96. Why was the charter of Massachusetts annulled? 

97. Describe the Salem Witchcraft. 

98. Give a brief account of the settlement of New 
Hampshire. 



256 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

99. Give a sketch of the changes in the government of 
New Hampshire and tell why they were made. 

100. Account for the many quarrels with the Indians. 

101. (a) When and to whom was the grant of the 
present state of Connecticut made? (&) What was its 
extent? 

102. Account for the claims of the Dutch to a large 
part of Connecticut. 

103. Describe the causes of the settlements in Connecti- 
cut. 

104. Give a brief account of the Pequod War. 

105. Describe the government of the Colony. 

106. (a) When and by whom was New Haven Colony 
founded? (b) How did it differ from the Connecticut 
Colony ? 

107. How were the two colonies united? 

108. Why did Andros want to seize the charter of Con- 
necticut? 

109. What famous college was founded in the colony? 
When? 

110. What kind of a government did the colony have 
at the time of the Revolutionary War? 

111. When was the territory that later became known 
as Maryland granted to Lord Baltimore? 

112. (a) What was Lord Baltimore's object in founding 
a colony? (b) In what way was the charter of Maryland 
remarkable ? 

113. Give a brief account of the difficulties with Clay- 
borne. 

114. (a) What was the Toleration Act? (b) What was 
the result? 

115. (a) What kind of a colony was Maryland at first? 
Explain, (b) When did it become a royal province? (c) 
When was it restored to the family of Lord Baltimore? 

116. What kind of a colony was it at the beginning of 
the Revolution? 

117. (a) What events led to the founding of Rhode Is- 
land? (b) When and by whom was it first settled? 

118. Why did Roger Williams determine to procure a 
charter for the colony? 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 257 

119. What departure in the laws concerning religion 
did the new colony make? 

120. Describe the charter of 1663. 

121, (a) When and by whom was Delaware settled? 
(&) What was its first name? 

122, Name three important events in its history. 

NORTH AND SOUTH CAROLINA. 

123. (a) When and where were the first settlements 
made in the Carolinas? (b) By whom? 

124. What was the Clarendon grant? 

125. Describe Locke's plan of government. 

126. In what way did the early settlers insure the 
success of the colony? 

127. What were the principal differences between North 
and South Carolina? 

128, Give an account of the troubles with the Spaniards 
and the Indians, 

129. Who was Cartaret? 

130, (a) Why was New Jersey divided into East and 
West Jersey? (b) Who owned each part? 

131, (a) How long did New Jersey remain a proprie- 
tary colony? (&) When did it become a royal province? 

132. (a) In what year was Pennsylvania first settled? 
(&) Who were the first settlers? 

133, Give an account of its settlement. 

134. (a) What kind of a colony was it? (&) Who was 
its proprietor? 

135, In what way did Penn's treatment of the Indians 
differ from that in other colonies? What were the re- 
lations between the settlers and the Indians? 

136, What were Penn's relations with the other col- 
onies? 

137, What form of government did Pennsylvania have 
at the time of the Revolution? 

138, (a) What was the object of the settlement of 
Georgia? (b) Out of what grant was Georgia formed? 

139. Who was its founder? 

140, Describe the early settlers? 



258 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

141. Tell of the troubles with the Indians and with the 
Spaniards. 

THE COLONIES IN GENERAL. 

142. (a) What was the Navigation Act? State its pro- 
visions and tell in what way it affected the colonies. (&) 
What was the purpose of the English in passing these 
laws? 

143. Explain why the New England colonies were af- 
fected most by the Indian Wars. 

144. Who was Edmund Andros? State his connection 
with the New England and Middle Colonies. 

145. (a) What was King William's War? (b) State 
the principal events. 

146. State the causes and leading events in Queen 
Anne's War. 

147. What land was gained as a result of this war? 

148. (a) What was the leading event in King George's 
War? (b) What were the results of the War? 

149. Give the dates of each war. 

150. Why are the Southern colonies not heard of in 
these wars? 

151. What were the causes of these wars? 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

152. (a) Name the English colonies, (b) Which was 
the first settled? When? (c) Which was the last set- 
tled and when? 

153. (a) How many and which were first settled by 
the English? (b) Name those begun by the peoples of 
other nations. 

154. What nations' colonies bounded them (a) on the 
north, (b) on the south and (c) on the west? 

155. Which of the thirteen colonies were founded as a 
result of the religious persecutions? 

156. Give the particulars of the settlement of Vir- 
ginia. 

157. (a) From what cause did Bacon's rebellion arise? 
(&) In what way did this cause affect any other colonies? 

158. Why did Virginia have no large towns? 

159. Explain why the New England colonies developed 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 259 

the town meeting system as contrasted with the planta- 
tion system of the southern colonies. 

160. What was remarkable about the Maryland and 
Connecticut charters ? 

161. How did the capture of New Netherlands affect 
the colonies of New Jersey and Delaware? 

162. How many kinds of governments were there in 
the colonies? Describe each. 

163. Name the colonies under each form of govern- 
ment. 

164. Describe the legislatures in the colonies. 

165. From what nations was the population of the 
colonies made up? 

166. (a) When was slavery introduced into the col- 
onies? (b) Give a few facts about it. 

167. Briefly discuss the relations of the colonies with 
the Indians. 

168. Enumerate the religions represented among the 
colonists. 

169. Describe fully the industrial occupations of the 
colonists. 

170. (a) Which were the commercial and trading col- 
onies? (b) Name the principal seaports in the colonies. 

171. What strengthened the love of freedom among the 
colonies? 

172. Describe the means of travel and communication 
among the colonies. 

173. Briefly describe the social life in the colonies. 

174. Tell what you can of the growth of education 
among the colonies. 

175. Name a newspaper and a book printed before the 
Revolution. 

176. How did the first three intercolonial wars differ 
from the French and Indian War? 

177. Name the principal wars between the Indians and 
the colonies and the colonies engaged therein. 

FRENCH EXPLOSATIONS AND SETTLEMENTS. 
THE FRENCH AND INDIAN WAR. 

178. Why is a knowledge of French explorations and 



260 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

settlements necessary to a complete understanding of the 
French and Indian War? 

179. Explain why the French were forced to move 
westward in Canada and could not settle in the western 
part of New York. 

180. Who were the French explorers of this period? 

181. When and by whom was the upper Mississippi 
discovered? 

182. Who was La Salle, and what did he accomplish? 

183. In what way did the French mark their claims to 
the territory discovered and explored by them? 

184. Give some idea of their activity in the West. 

185. What were the English doing at this time? 

186. (a) What was the Ohio Company? (b) Associate 
this company with the French and Indian War. 

187. On what grounds did the French lay claim to this 
vast territory? 

188. (o) Who was Governor Dinwiddle? (b) What 
did he do to hold this tract for the English? 

189. Give a brief account of Washington's journey and 
what he accomplished. 

190. State the circumstances attending the building of 
Fort DuOuesne. 

191. (a) What was the first outbreak in the war? (b) 
Give an account of this skirmish. 

192. When was war declared? 

193. (a) What was the Colonial Congress at Albany? 
(&) What was its object? 

194. Describe Franklin's " Plan of Union." 

195. Enumerate the causes of the war. 

196. (a) What were the objective points in the war? 
(b) Why? 

197. Give an account of Braddock's campaign and its 
results. 

198. Why is the year 1758 a notable one? 

199. Who was William Pitt? What are his associa- 
tions with the war? 

200. In what events were the English successful during 
1759? 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 261 

201. (a) Describe the capture of Quebec, (b) Who 
were the generals commanding? 

202. What were the results of the war? 

203. (a) Why was the war called the " French and 
Indian War"? (b) What family of Indians aided each 
of the combatants ? 

204. Enumerate the events of Pontiac's conspiracy. 

205. Describe the effects of the war upon the colonists. 

206. What were the effects upon England? 

207. What were the advantages to (a) the colonies ; 
(b) to England from this war? 

THE REVOLUTIONARY WAR. 

208. What was England's colonial policy? 

209. Describe England's restrictions on manufactures 
in the colonies. 

210. What laws had been passed to regulate trade? 

211. Give some idea of the oppressions by the royal 
governors. 

212. Enumerate the revenue laws adopted by England 
after the French and Indian war affecting the colonies. 

213. Enumerate the causes of the Revolutionary war. 

214. What is the difference between a remote cause 
and an immediate or direct cause? 

215. What was the keynote of the resistance to the 
scheme of taxation by the English? 

216. What were the Writs of Assistance? 

217. Describe in detail the Stamp Act. 

218. What was the Townshend Law? 

219. What was the Mutiny (or quartering) Act? 

220. Name the colonies taking a leading part in the 
resistance to the British Crown. 

221. Who were the Sons of Liberty? 

222. Describe the Boston Massacre. 

223. (a) What was the First Colonial or Continental 
Congress? (&) What did it accomplish? 

224. What were the " Committees on Correspond- 
ence " ? 

225. (a) What were the "non-importation" agree- 
ments? (&) Describe their effects. 



262 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

226. (a) In what year was the Stamp Act repealed? 
(b) What act took its place? (c) What was its purpose? 

227. Describe the Boston Tea Party. 

228. How was Boston punished for her "tea party"? 

229. Describe the Battle of Lexington and Concord and 
tell how it began. 

230. What was the effect on the colonies? 

231. Who were the Minute Men? 

232. Tell all you can of the Battle of Bunker Hill. 

233. (a) Give an account of the principal events of the 
Second Continental Congress, (b) When and where did 
it meet? 

234. Briefly sketch Washington's life emphasizing those 
qualities which determined the Americans to select him 
as Commander-in-Chief. 

235. By whom and why were Ticonderoga and Crown 
Point captured? 

236. (a) Give an account of the expedition against 
Canada, (b) Tell why it was undertaken. 

237. In what way did the southern colonies support 
the movement against the British in the North? 

238. What was the British plan of campaign for the 
year 1776? 

239. Why were Dorchester Heights fortified? 

240. What British expedition was undertaken against 
a southern city at this time? 

241. Give an account of the attack on Fort Moultrie. 

242. (a) Why was the Battle of Long Island fought? 
(b) What was its result? (c) Give a short account of the 
battles in New York. 

243. Detail Washington's retreat through New Jersey. 

244. (a) When was the Battle of Trenton fought? (&) 
What were its effects? (c) Who were the Hessians? 

245. (a) What was the Declaration of Independence? 
(b) Who was its author? (c) When was it adopted and 
signed? 

246. Write the preamble of the Declaration of Inde- 
pendence. 

247. Name some prominent patriots connected with the 
signing of the Declaration of Independence, 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 263 

248. Describe the steps taken to secure aid for the 
Americans among the foreign countries. 

249. What was the result and efifect of the Battle of 
Princeton ? 

250. Name some prominent foreign recruits to the 
American army and tell in what way each proved of 
service to the American cause. 

251. (a) Why did Howe want to capture Philadelphia? 
(b) What battles were fought as a result? 

252. In what series of events were the American losses 
in Pennsylvania offset ? 

253. What is a campaign? 

254. (o) What was the plan of Burgoyne's campaign ? 
(b) Why was it undertaken? 

255. What was the outcome of St. Leger's expedition? 

256. Name some important battles fought in this cam- 
paign. 

257". Give the date of the surrender of Burgoyne's 
army. 

258. Show its effect on both Americans and British. 

259. Describe the condition of the army at Valley 
Forge. 

260. (a) What aid did the Americans receive at this 
time? (b) What were the conditions of the French Al- 
liance? 

261. Why did the British leave Philadelphia? 

262. Where are (a) Wyoming; (b) Cherry Valley? 
For what are they noted? 

263. Why did the scene of operations in the war 
change to the South? 

264. Detail the events in the southern campaign. 

265. Give an account of Greene's campaign. 

266. Give an account of the events in the North. 

267. (a) Who was Paul Jones? (b) What naval vic- 
tories did he win? 

268. Identify (a) Colonel Tarleton ; (b) Sumter ; (c) 
Marion ; (d) Lee ; (e) Pickens. 

269. (a) Who was Benedict Arnold? (&) Tell of his 
treason. 



264 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

270. (a) Who were Nathan Hale; (&) Major Andre? 

271. Describe the condition of the troops or the main 
army in the North in 1781. 

272. Give an account of Robert Morris and his work 
in behalf of the American cause. 

273. Describe the steps leading to the capture of York- 
town. 

274. (a) When and where was the treaty of peace 
signed? (b) What were the terms? 

(c) What were the efifects of the capture of Yorktown 
on both Americans and English? 

275. (a) How were the States governed until 1781? 
(b) between 1781 and 1789? 

276. What were the principal weaknesses of the Con- 
federation ? 

277. Detail the steps leading to the adoption of the 
Constitution. 

278. What were the objects of the adoption of the Con- 
stitution according to the preamble? 

REVIEW OF THE REVOLUTIONARY PERIOD. 

279. (a) Which were the more important causes of the 
Revolution, the remote or the immediate? (&) Name 
the most important of each. 

280. What argument did the colonies advance against 
paying the taxes levied after the French and Indian War? 

281. Give instances of the activity of the colonies 
against British oppression. 

282. Why did Boston take the leading part in opposi- 
tion to British taxation? 

283. In what way or ways did the other colonies show 
their sympathy with Massachusetts? 

284. Who were (a) the Whigs; (b) the Tories? 

285. Briefly enumerate (a) the advantages and (b) the 
disadvantages of the American side at the beginning of 
the war. 

286. Make a list of the principal campaigns and tell the 
results of each. 

287. (a) Who was King of England during the War? 
(&) the Prime Minister? 

288. (a) Where was the scene of operations in the 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 265 

first three years of the war? (b) in the last years? (c) 
Why? 

289. Name ten prominent Americans that were not 
soldiers and identify them. 

290. Name some American soldiers other than those 
already mentioned, and tell for what each is known. 

291. Name four prominent Britons favoring the Ameri- 
can cause. 

292. Enumerate the compromises in the adoption of the 
Constitution. 

293. What was the Northwest Territory and the Or- 
dinance of 1787? 

PERIOD OF NATIONAL GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT, 

294. (a) When and where was Washington inaugurated 
as the first President of the United States? (b) How 
many and who were the Cabinet officers? 

295. Discuss Hamilton's financial measures and tell what 
success he had. 

296. When and for how long was the United States 
Bank chartered? 

297. Name the states admitted into the Union during 
Washington's administration. 

298. Discuss the difficulties with the Indians. 

299. How many terms did Washington serve as Presi- 
dent? Give the dates. 

300. (a) Who was M. Genet? (&) State his connection 
with American history. 

301. What was the Whiskey Rebellion? 

302. (a) What was the purpose of the treaty with Great 
Britain? (b) Who negotiated this treaty? 

303. Name the political parties during this period and 
discuss their differences. 

304. What position did Adams occupy in the adminis- 
tration of Washington? 

305. Describe the troubles with France. 

306. Give the date of Washington's death. 

307. What were (a) the Alien, (b) the Sedition Laws? 

308. What influence did the passage of these laws 
have on the future politics ? 



266 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

309. When and in what city was Jefferson inaugurated 
as President? 

310. Of what party was Jefferson the leader? 

311. (a) Describe and discuss the purchase of the Louis- 
iana Territory, (b) Tell what advantages were gained 
thereby. 

312. (a) Give the essential facts of the wars with the 
Biarbary powers, (b) Name the officers who took a promi- 
nent part in these wars. 

313. For what event is the 5^ear 1804 noted? 

314. In what way was the United States concerned in 
the wars between Great Britain and Napoleon? 

315. (a) What was the "right of search "? (&) What 
was its effect on the commerce of our country? 

316. (a) How did Congress retaliate? (b) What was 
the effect? 

317. (a) Give the dates of Madison's administration. 
(b) Of what party was Madison the leader? 

318. (a) What Indian War broke out in 1811? (b) 
Give the results and the names of the chief actors. 

319. State the causes of the War of 1812. 

320. (a) With what movement did this war begin? 
(b) What were the results? 

321. Where was the seat of war in 1813? 

322. (a) Where was the war carried on during the 
years 1814-1815? (b) Name the principal events during 
these years. 

323. Describe the Battle of New Orleans. 

324. Mention, naming the commanders, the five most 
brilliant naval events in the war. 

325. Name the leading American generals and tell in 
what battles they were engaged. 

326. Describe the capture and burning of the capital. 

327. Why was the treaty of peace unsatisfactory to the 
Americans? 

328. What was the Hartford Convention? 

329. Name the states admitted up to 1817. 

330. Why was Monroe's presidential term known as 
the " era of good feeling"? 

331. Give the leading events during his term. 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 267 

332. (a) Describe the troubles with the Spanish and the 
Indians, (b) To what purchase did this lead? When? 

333. What is the "Monroe Doctrine"? 

334. By whom and under what circumstances was it 
issued? 

335. State the provisions of the Doctrine. 

336. What was the Missouri Compromise? 

337. Describe Lafayette's visit to America. 

338. How was John Quincy Adams elected President? 

339. Name the important events occurring during 
Adams's administration. 

340. Who were the leading candidates in the elec- 
tion of 1824? 

341. What were the advantages of the Erie Canal to the 
country at large ? 

342. What is meant by " rotation in office " in Jack- 
son's administration? 

343. State and discuss Jackson's connection with the 
United States Bank. 

344. (a) What were the "pet banks"? (b) In what 
way were these connected with the wild speculation fol- 
lowing their establishment? 

345. Discuss in detail the tariff disputes arising dur- 
ing Jackson's term. 

346. What is meant by (a) nullification, (b) state's 
rights? 

347. Name the prominent participants in the debates 
on these questions. 

348. What political party was formed at this time? 

349. (a) Describe the panic during Van Buren's admin- 
istration, and (b) tell what were its causes. 

350. What efforts were made to remedy this distress- 
ful condition of affairs ? 

351. (a) How long did Harrison serve as President? 
(b) Who succeeded him? 

352. State the particulars of Dorr's rebelHon. 

353. (o) Discuss the annexation of Texas, (b) To 
what did this finally lead? 

354. How was the difference as to the boundary be- 
tween the United States and Canada finally settled? 



268 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

355. What was the cause of the Mexican War? 

356. Describe General Taylor's Campaign. 

357. Describe General Scott's Campaign. 

358. Name (a) the other American generals, and (b) 
two Mexican commanders and tell the battles in which 
they were engaged. 

359. How long did the war last? Give the dates. 

360. Give the terms of the treaty of peace. 

361. What was the Wilmot Proviso? 

362. (a) What remarkable event occurred soon after 
in the territory ceded by Mexico? (b) How did this af- 
fect the population of the Pacific Coast? 

363. In what way did this affect subsequent political 
events? 

364. (a) How long did Taylor serve as President? (b) 
Who succeeded him? 

365. (a) Discuss in detail the Compromise of 1850. (b) 
Which section of the country did it favor? 

366. How is this connected with the Missouri Com- 
promise? 

367. (a) What was the Fugitive Slave Law? (b) 
How was it received in the North? by the South? 

368. What was meant by the term "abolitionist"? 

369. What were the " personal liberty laws "? 

370. (a) Who were the Mormons? (b) Where did they 
settle ? 

371. What was the Gadsden Purchase? 

372. (a) Describe the important features of the Kansas- 
Nebraska Bill, stating the causes for its introduction. 
([>) Who was its author? 

373. Describe the state of afifairs in Kansas at this 
time. 

374. Name the candidates for president at the election 
of 1856. 

375. Who was elected president, and from what party 
was he the candidate? 

376. What was the Dred Scott decision? 

377. (a) How was it received by the North ? b) What 
was its effect upon subsequent politics? 

378. Describe John Brown's raid. 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 269 

379. What was the " Lecompton Constitution " ? 

380. What was "Squatter sovereignty"? 

381. (a) Name the candidates for the presidency at the 
election of 1860. (b) Who was elected? 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

382. (a) What is the difference between a protective 
tariff and a tariff for revenue? (b) What important part 
did this question play in American history up to the time 
of the Civil War? 

383. What famous men were the exponents of (a) the 
doctrine of state's rights; (b) nullification; (c) squatter 
sovereignty? (d) State what each doctrine means, (e) 
Who was the most famous opponent of these doctrines? 

384. (a) What is a compromise? (b) Trace the im- 
portant compromises in the history of our country up to 
1860. 

385. Trace the development of the poHtical parties from 
1789 to 1860. 

386. What influence did the invention of the cotton- 
gin have upon the slavery in the United States? 

387. State a few important facts as to the increase of 
the population in the first three quarters of the century 
of American history. 

388. Name five important inventions and their inven- 
tors. 

389. Summarize the additions made to the territory of 
the United States since from 1789 to 1860. 

390. Name the wars in which the country was engaged, 
their causes and the results. 

391. Identify (a) Webster, (&) Douglas, (c) Jackson, 
(d) Hayne, (e) John Brown. 

392. Enumerate the states added since 1789. 

393. In what way did the Dred Scott decision nullify 
the Missouri Compromise? 

394. Of what importance were the Lincoln-Douglas 
debates ? 

THE CIVIL WAR. 

395. Give a short sketch of the life of Lincoln. 

396. Name the most important members of Lincoln's 
cabinet. 



270 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

397. What events followed immediately after the elec- 
tion of Lincoln as president? 

398. (a) Define secession, (b) Describe the activities 
of the Secessionists. 

399. (a) When was Fort Sumter fired upon? (&) 
What was the effect produced upon the North? 

400. What was the Baltimore mob? 

401. Describe the events leading to the Battle of Bull 
Run. 

402. Describe the events in Missouri, with their results. 

403. What was the Trent affair? 

404. Sketch briefly the plan of the war for 1862. 

405. How was Kentucky saved to the Union? 

406. What events led to the opening of the Mississippi 
River to New Orleans? 

407. What progress was made in opening it from the 
north? 

408. Name the operations in the vicinity of Fortress 
Monroe and the resulting operations in the Shenandoah 
Valley. 

409. (a) What use did Lee make of McClellan's defeat? 
(b) What battle checked Lee's invasion of the North? 

410. What was the result of the Burnside campaign? 

411. State in a general way what was gained during the 
year. 

412. What was the Emancipation Proclamation? 

413. Sketch briefly Lee's second invasion of the North 
and the battle of Gettysburg. 

414. Why is this battle called the turning point of the 
war? 

415. (a) Sketch Grant's movements leading to the cap- 
ture of Vicksburg. (b) Of what importance was the fall 
of Vicksburg? 

416. (a) How was Rosecrans kept busy during the 
year? Describe his success, (b) How was the Union 
army saved at the battle of Chattanooga? Who were the 
commanders? 

417. Under what circumstances was West Virginia ad- 
mitted as a separate state? 

418. Describe the plan of campaign for the year 1864. 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 271 

419. (a) With what success did Sherman begin his 
march? (b) Describe Sherman's march to the sea, 

420. How was General Hood disposed of? 

421. Describe, with results, Grant's campaign against 
Richmond, 

422. (a) What befell Grant's cooperating force in the 
Shenandoah Valley? (b) Whom did Grant select to com- 
mand there? 

423. What was the great naval event of the year 1864? 

424. (a) What is meant by a " blockade " ? (&) a block- 
ade runner? 

425. What were the terms of peace granted to the Con- 
federates ? 

426. Who were the leading cavalry and infantry officers 
in the Confederate army? 

427. Describe the part in the war taken by the navy, 

PERIOD OF UNITED NATIONAL GROWTH AND 
DEVELOPMENT. 

428. Give an account of Lincoln's death. 

429. (a) Who succeeded him? (6) Of what party was 
he? 

430. Describe the state of affairs in Mexico during the 
War. 

431. State the leading views as to the position of the 
Southern (the seceded) States after the war. 

432. (a) What was "reconstruction"? (b) Enumer- 
ate the leading events during the period of reconstruc- 
tion. 

433. Why was the Thirteenth Amendment to the Con- 
stitution adopted? 

434. (a) Give an account of the dispute between John- 
son and the Congress, (b) To what did this dispute 
lead? Describe fully. 

435. What was the Tenure of Office Bill? 

436. Describe the Freedmen's Bureau, 

437. What was the purpose of the Fourteenth Amend- 
ment to the Constitution? 

438. From whom was Alaska purchased? When and 
by whom? 



212 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

439. (a) Who succeeded Johnson? (6) Give the dates 
of the next administration. 

440. Discuss the settlement of the disputes with En- 
gland. 

441. What was the Alabama Award? 

442. In what city and in what year was the nation's 
centennial held? 

443. What was secured by the Fifteenth Amendment? 

444. (a) Describe in detail the dispute about the elec- 
tion of 1876. ih) How was it settled? 

445. (a) What was the resumption of the payment of 
specie? (&) What other financial measures were passed 
during this administration? 

446. (fl) Explain the treaty made with China. (&) 
What did it effect? 

447. (a) Name Hayes' successor. (&) How long did 
he serve? (c) Who succeeded him? 

448. (a) What were the leading features of the plat- 
forms in the national election of 1884? 

449. Give a digest of the leading events during Cleve- 
land's first term. 

450. What part did the tariff play in the election of 
1888? 

451. What application did the Monroe Doctrine have to 
events in Harrison's administration? 

452. Discuss the " civil service reforms " in this admin- 
istration. 

453. Give an account of the Pan-American Congress. 

454. Describe the troubles with Chili. 

455. (a) What was the chief issue in the campaign of 
1892? (&) What was the result of the election? 

456. Give an account of the seal fisheries dispute and 
tell how it was settled. 

457. What was the object of the special session of Con- 
gress in 1893? 

458. In what way is the Venezuelan dispute related to 
American history? 

459. Name the important events in McKinley's admin- 
istration. 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 273 

460. Give an account of the destruction of the battle- 
ship Maine in Havana Harbor and tell to what it led. 

461. Make a list of the engagements in the war and the 
American commanders. 

462. (a) Give the dates of the war. (b) State the 
terms of the treaty of peace. 

463. What was the Piatt Amendment? 

446. (a) Under what circumstances was President 
McKinley assassinated? (&) Who became President? (c) 
Who filled the office of the Vice-President? 

465. Mention the substance of the decision of the 
United States Supreme Court in the " insular cases." 

466. What was the Peace Conference at The Hague? 

467. Enumerate the important events during Roose- 
velt's administration. 

468. Give an account of the building of the Panama 
Canal. 

469. (a) Define a "trust." (b) What important de- 
decisions affecting the trusts have been made by the Su- 
preme Court within recent years? 

470. What was the object of the special session of Con- 
gress in 1909? 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

471. Enumerate the states admitted into the Union 
since 1860. 

472. Name some causes for the remarkable development 
of the western states. 

473. What was the Ku Klux Klan? 

474. Who were the " carpet-baggers " ? 

475. Summarize the financial history from 1865 to 1880. 

476. Name three railroad lines built with grants of 
United States money or land. 

477. State some of the results of the Civil War. 

478. Give an account of the annexation of Hawaii. 



274 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

TEST QUESTIONS TAKEN FROM EXAMINATION PAPERS OF 
VARIOUS COLLEGES, GIVEN IN 1909. 

479. Explain some of the differences in the principles 
of the two great parties of today. 

480. Give an outline of the acquisition of the territory 
by the United States, telling what was gained thereby 
besides mere land. 

481. Give, in outline, an account of three great inven- 
tions, by which the civil and industrial history of our 
country has been most affected. 

482. Explain why John Adams and John Quincy Adams 
both failed of reelection. 

483. With what events are the following places as- 
sociated: Philadelphia, 1774; Tippecanoe, Salem, Cow- 
pens, Vicksburg, Detroit, Monterey? 

484. (a) Name the Presidents in order from Jackson to 
Garfield, (b) Who was President when Alaska was pur- 
chased? (c) Who, when Hamilton was killed? 

485. (a) Explain why the first ten amendments to the 
Constitution were adopted, (b) Why are they called the 
"Bill of Rights"? 

486. Give the Northern and Southern views of the se- 
cession movement. 

487. State concisely for what the following men have 
been distinguished in our history: Jefferson, Webster, 
General Greene, Robert E. Lee, Seward. 

488. Give an account of the Europeans who are said 
to have visited the continent several centuries before 
Columbus. 

489. Outline, in a general way, the mode of administra- 
tion of government in the colonies, and state two leading 
principles on which the colonies based their views of 
government. 



QUESTIONS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 275 

490. Give an account of slavery in the United States 
touching on (a) its introduction, (b) its growth, (c) rise 
and final triumph of the anti-slavery sentiment. 

491. Discuss the conditions of the colonists as to (a) 
nationality, (b) language, (c) education, (d) facilities 
for travel, (e) home life on the farm and in the city (and 
religion). 

492. Draw a map of the continent of North America. 
Locate by name on this map five early European settle- 
ments and state by whom each was settled. 

493. On an outline map of the United States indicate 
the claims of territory of each of the thirteen original 
states. 

494. Give reasons why Henry Clay should be called the 
Great Pacificator. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 

PERIOD OF DISCOVERY AND EXPLORATION. 

1. A race of people inhabiting the United States before the In- 
dians, who left mounds of earth or rough stone as evidence of their 
occupation of the country. These mounds were of various sizes 
and shapes and were found mostly in the valleys of the Ohio and 
the Mississippi Rivers. 

2. The largest group was the Algonquins, comprising among 
others the Narragansetts, Pequots, Powhattans, Delawares, Illinois 
and Ojibwas. The Iroquois, occupying the region of Central New 
York State and upper Canada, comprising the Senecas, Cayugas, 
Oneidas, Mohawks, Hurons, Iroquois. South of Kentucky, extend- 
ing to the Gulf of Mexico, was the Muskhogean family. The fourth 
group was the more or less allied and independent tribes of the 
Dakotahs, Sacs, Sioux and Foxes between the Mississippi River 
and the Rocky Mountains ; the Athabascans, Apaches and Califor- 
nians in the West. 

3. The house of the Indian was the wigwam or tent, without win- 
dows or chimney, so that it could very easily be taken apart, as 
the Indian never meant to live in one place long. The weapons 
were the spear, bow and arrow and tomahawk, which he constantly 
used in his daily hunts and when on the warpath. War was his 
master passion ; and inter-tribal fights were of very frequent oc- 
currence. The men were the rulers and warriors, while the wom- 
en or squaws were the planters and laborers. The young Indian 
boy was brought up to become a warrior, and his training was in 
woodcraft, hunting and such physical exercises as he would need 
when he grew up. The government was vested in the sachem or 
chief, who frequently called the tribe together for council. The 
teacher and religious leader was the medicine man; and the Happy 
Hunting Ground was the heaven for all Indians. 

4. The Indians occupying Mexico and southwestern United States 
were of a higher stage of civiHzation. Their houses were built of 
stone or of sun-dried brick, with rooms. They raised grains, veg- 
etables and cotton, which was spun and made into garments. They 
were skilled in gold and silver handiwork. 

5. Those inhabiting the south were peaceful and timid; and there- 
fore proved easy victims to Spanish greed and treachery. The 
English and French found the northern Indians warlike and inde- 
pendent, ever fighting for their land, with the result that the col- 
onists developed self-reliance, industry and a spirit of union for 
self-preservation and defense against these Indians. 

6. They were grave and taciturn; showed no emotions; were de- 

276 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 277 

ceitful, cunning and suspicious; never forgot a kind-ess or an in- 
jury; their sight and hearing were most acute. ' 

7. The Indian language contained very few words. Their spo- 
ken language was soft and musical. Facts were portrayed by means 
of pictures and symbols, on birch bark or chiselled on rocks. 

8. Oct. 12, 1492. 

9. To find a shorter and safer route to India. 

10. Marco Polo was a European traveler who had spent a long 
time at the Asiatic courts and, on his return to his native land, 
wrote an account of his travels. His descriptions of the Asiatic 
countries led to an increased trade in their products. Columbus 
had read a copy of his book and became enthused with a desire to 
visit the lands described. 

11. The capture of Constantinople and the resulting increased ac- 
tivity of the Mohammedan Turks made the route to India extrerne- 
ly hazardous for the European merchant, and hence, the necessity 
for a shorter and safer route to India. 

12. Columbus was born in Genoa about the year 1446, the son of 
a wool-comber. His early education consisted of the Latin lan- 
guage and navigation ; and being a native of the foremost seaport 
in southern Europe, he naturally embraced the career of a seaman. 
He served as an ordinary sailor, later becoming mate and captain 
and owner of a vessel himself. As son-in-law of an eminent Italian 
navigator, he became possessed of a valuable collection of maps and 
geographical works, the mastery of which further urged him to his 
purpose. 

13. He laid his plans at first before his countrymen, but to no 
avail. While he then attempted to interest the King of Portugal, 
his brother appeared before Henry VII. of England ; but both at- 
tempts failed. In the meantime his wife died, and Columbus, with 
his little son, went to Spain, where he sought to interest Ferdinand 
and Isabella, monarchs of the country. After a wait of several 
years, at the end of which time he became disgusted, Columbus 
prepared to leave the country. Through the intercession of some 
friends, the Queen was finally persuaded to furnish the necessary 
help. 

14. With a fleet of three small vessels Columbus set sail from 
Palos on August 3, 1492. His crew was made up of outcasts and 
prisoners of the roughest type. A stop was made at the Canary 
Islands for repairs. After many days the crew became afraid and 
despaired. Open mutiny followed, through all of which Columbus 
promised to bring them to land. In order to allay their fears he 
falsified the log and entered shorter distances than were actually 
covered. Finally, on Friday, October 12, he reached an island of the 
Bahamas, which he named San Salvador; and formally took pos- 
session of it in the name of the sovereign of Spain. 

15. San Salvador on the first; Cuba, Jamaica, Porto Rico and 
Hayti on the second ; on the third in 1498, he reached the mainland 
of South America, near the mouth of the Orinoco; the coast of 
North America on his last voyage. 



278 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

16. His account of the new regions discovered was published in 
Europe, and led to the other maritime powers fitting out expeditions 
for the same purpose. 

17. A line fixed in 1494 by the Pope, Spain and Portugal, 370 
leagues west of the Cape Verde Island. All lands discovered, no 
matter b};- whom, east of this line were to belong to Portugal ; all 
west of it were to belong to Spain. As a result Brazil became Por- 
tuguese territory. 

18. Ponce de Leon, an old Spanish soldier, while cruising among 
the Bahamas, heard the story of a fountain of youth. In his quest, 
he reached the land which he named Florida, because of the day on 
which the discovery was made (1513), Easter, which in Spanish is 
" Pasqua de Flores." 

19. (a) Cordova in 1517. (&) Four years later, 1521, Cortez 
marched into the heart of Mexico, conquered the inhabitants, tor- 
tured the imprisoned ruler and secured the wealth of Mexico for 
himself and his Spanish followers. 

20. (a) De Soto, a follower of Pizarro the conqueror of Peru, 
desired to rival the conquest made by Cortez. He organized an ex- 
pedition in 1539 and spent two years in his search for El Dorado, 
the land of gold. Constantly harassed by the Indians on his march, 
through Georgia, Alabama anJ Mississippi, he finally reached the 
Mississippi River. On its banks, worn out with care and disap- 
pointment, De Soto died in the spring of 1542, and was buried in 
its waters, (b) Because the previous Spanish explorers had treated 
them so cruelly and treacherously. 

21. Magellan, a Portuguese navigator sailing in the service of 
Spain, in 1522 crossed the Atlantic, sailed through the strait which 
bears his name, crossed the Pacific Ocean to reach India and came 
to the Philippines, where, in a fight with the natives, he was killed. 
His vessel continued on its way, passed around the southern end of 
Africa and finally reached Spain, thus circumnavigating the globe. 

22. (a) Balboa, 1513, discovered the Pacific Ocean, (b) Pizarro, 
1524, discovered and conquered Peru, (c) Ayllon, 1520, landed in 
Carolina, (d) Narvaez, 1528, explored Florida ; (e) Coronado, 1540, 
explored New Mexico. 

23. St. Augustine, Florida, in 1565, by Melendez ; Santa Fe, New 
Mexico, in 1582, by Espego. 

24. Overran Central America, Mexico and Peru ; explored from 
Florida to the Mississippi River; New Mexico and the coast of 
California; settled St. Augustine and Santa Fe in addition to the 
West Indies ; circumnavigated the globe. 

25. (a) To seek gold and silver, (b) With the exception of 
Mexico and Peru, they failed to discover any land which returned 
them any wealth ; also failed to secure the rich trade of India. 

26. The names of the places discovered ; the cities of St. Augus- 
tine and Santa Fe and the missions scattered throughout California. 

27. Spain was busily engaged in the European wars of the early 
seventeenth century and could not direct her attention to further 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 279 

explorations. In 1588 her great Armada was defeated by England, 
thus breaking her control of the sea. 

28. Americus Vespucius, an Italian navigator, made a voyage to 
the New World in 1499 and wrote an account of it on his return 
to Europe. A German geographer named the country America in 
his honor in the account he published. 

29. A Portuguese navigator who sailed around the Cape of Good 
Hope, the southernmost point of Africa, in 1498, and thus secured 
the trade of India to Portugal. 

30. 1504; French fishing vessels appeared in the Gulf of St. Law- 
rence. 

31. (a) Denys, 1506, drew a map of the Gulf of St. Lawrence. 

(b) Verrazani, 1524, explored the coast of North America from 
North Carolina to Newfoundland, (c) Cartier, 1534, entered the 
Gulf of St. Lawrence, sailed up the river as far as Montreal. 

32. (a) Coligny, Admiral of France, sent out some Hugenots, 
under (b) Ribaut, to settle in Florida. A colony was founded but 
they quarreled amongst themselves and finally returned to France. 

(c) De Gourges, a French soldier of fortune, avenged the massacre 
of the French Huguenots at Fort Carolina, Florida, by the Spanish 
Melendez in 1565. 

33. (a) The Huguenots were the French Protestants, who left 
their native country because of the persecutions their sect was un- 
dergoing. 

34. Port Royal (now Annapolis), Acadia, in 1605 by De Monts. 

35. Quebec was founded by Champlain in 1608. 

36. Hearing of a beautiful lake in the south, Champlain, in com- 
pany with a party of Algonquins on the warpath against the Iro- 
quois, penetrated to its banks and gave it his name (1609). 

37. The region in and around the Gulf and River of St. Lawrence 
was explored and charted ; Lake Champlain and the northern part 
of New York explored ; Nova Scotia was peopled ; the upper part 
of the Mississippi River discovered and explored ; the mouth of 
the same river discovered. 

38. See 34 and 35 ; and Montreal. 

39. Because of the warfare with the Iroquois Indians who occu- 
pied the central and northern parts of New York State, resulting 
from Champlain's aid to the Algonquins. 

40. (a) John Cabot sailed along the coast of North America and 
discovered Newfoundland (1497). In 1498, his son, Sebastian, 
coasted from Labrador to Florida, in hopes of finding a passage to 
India, (b) The English founded their claim to a large part of 
North America on the result of these voyages. 

41. Kings Henry VII. and VIII. were busy with affairs at home; 
especially during the reign of the latter, the religious matters oc- 
cupying his attention. Moreover, the Tudor sovereigns were ex- 
ceedingly penurious, and disliked to furnish the money required to 
fit out expeditions. 



280 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

42. (a) Frobisher, in search of a northwest passage to India, en- 
tered the strait which bears his name (1576). (b) Gilbert, in 1583, 
attempted to plant a colony on the mainland, but failed, (c) Ral- 
eigh, in 1584, sent out two vessels under Aniidas and Barlow, to 
trade with the natives and explore the country ; he also attempted 
twice to plant settlements on Roanoke Island, (d) Gosnold dis- 
covered Cape Cod in 1602. (e) Pring, a year later, explored the 
coast of Maine. 

43. Sir Francis Drake, in 1579, reached the Pacific Ocean by the 
same route as Magellan, and began to plunder Spanish ships and 
settlements on the Pacific Coast. After sailing about for several 
weeks, he put into San Francisco Bay and claimed the land for his 
sovereign, naming it New Albion. He reached England a year 
later, after having sailed across the Pacific, through the Indian seas 
and rounded Africa. His present to Elizabeth was a generous por- 
tion of the silver, gold and precious stones which formed his plun- 
der. 

44. Raleigh's patent was confiscated by James I., Queen Eliza- 
beth's successor, who divided Virginia into two parts. North Vir- 
ginia, from the 41st to the 45th degree north latitude, was given 
to the Plymouth Company, and South Virginia, from the 34th to the 
38th degree he gave to the London Company. 

45. (a) The object of both companies was the colonization of 
the country, (b) The London Company in 1607. 

46. Exploration of the eastern coast from Florida to Maine ; of 
California coast by Drake ; Newfoundland discovered ; settlements 
attempted on Roanoke Island. 

47. Jamestown, 1607. 

48. (a) The Spanish claims of Florida extended northward with- 
out any definite limits, based on the discovery of De Leon. In ad- 
dition they possessed Mexico and Central America and South 
America west of the Line of Demarcation. France claimed from 
New York to Labrador, founded on the voyage of Verrazani. 
During the sixteenth century it was extended to the Great Lakes 
and west of the Mississippi River. England laid claim to Virginia, 
which extended from Florida as far north as Labrador, and was 
based on the voyages of the Cabots. Holland's claim of New Neth- 
erland, extending from the 40th to the 45th north latitude, was 
the result of Hudson's discovery in 1609. Sweden settled on the 
Delaware and claimed that land. All of these nations claimed west- 
ward to the Pacific Ocean. (&) Spain and Portugal. See 17. 

49. See history. 

50. The known land was: The whole of Europe excepting east- 
ern Russia ; the western and southern parts of Asia ; the northern 
part of Africa. The eastern coast of Asia, the greater part of 
Africa, the Americas and Australia were unknown. 

51. (a) Spain and Portugal. (&) Spain, Portugal, France, En- 
gland, (c) Spain, Portugal, France, England, Holland and Sweden. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 281 

PERIOD OF SETTLEMENT AND COLONIAL DEVELOPMENT. 

VIRGINIA. 

52. See 44. 

53. In December, 1606, three vessels were sent out by the Lon- 
don Company to settle Roanoke Island. A storm, however, drove 
the vessels up Chesapeake Bay, where a spot was selected fifty 
miles from the mouth, on the Powhatan River, in May, 1607. This 
settlement was called Jamestown. 

54. All the hundred five settlers were men, without families, who 
had come only to dig gold and then return to England. Most of 
them were unfitted for labor, and by the end of the year half had 
died from exposure and disease. 

55. A council of seven, selected by the King, was the governing 
body, and made all the rules. John Smith was one of the seven. 

56. He was a brave, energetic and cheerful man. He gained the 
confidence of the Indians and obtained supplies of corn from them. 
Under his guidance, log houses were built, the ground tilled and 
the spirits of the settlers raised. 

57. In the spring of 1608, about one hundred and twenty new set- 
tlers arrived. These were of the same quality as the first colonists, 
lazy, shiftless and ill-fitted to endure the hardships of the colony. 
The Company complained of its lack of returns from Virginia and 
secured a more favorable charter in the following year. Accord- 
ingly, nine ships with five hundred more colonists under the govern- 
orship of Lord Delaware (who remained in England) were sent 
over. 

58. During the winter of 1609-1610, in the absence of Smith, 
everything went to ruin. Provisions were wasted, sickness spread 
and only sixty remained when the winter was past. 

59. 1612-1624. The members were allowed more voice in the 
management of the colony's affairs ; the government became more 
democratic, and was less under the influence of the king. 

60. 1619. 

61. Women were first sent over to Virginia; slaves introduced 
into the colony and cotton was planted for the first time in Vir- 
ginia. 

62. In the beginning the Indians were fairly friendly ; but with 
the rapid growth and prosperity of the colony more land was re- 
quired and taken. As a result, the Indians who had thus been 
pushed back, looked with hatred upon the white man, and in 1622, 
they suddenly fell upon the settlers with frightful vengeance. More 
than three hundred were killed and the eighty plantations were re- 
duced to eight. After long and bloody wars, the Indians were fi- 
nally driven back from the settlements and forced to submit (1644). 

63. (a) 1624. (b) The territory or province belonged to the 
sovereign. He appointed a Governor and had the final authority 
as to all laws that were made. 

64. During the great Civil War in England the colony remained 
faithful to the Royal party and the Crown. 



282 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

65. In an attack by the Indians in 1676 Governor Berkeley refused 
to give the common people arms to defend themselves. They ac- 
cordingly rallied around a young man by name of Bacon and 
marched against the Indians whom they severely punished. Berke- 
ley denounced Bacon as a rebel, whereupon the latter turned round 
and defeated the Governor and his adherents. In the struggle 
Jamestown was burned, never to be rebuilt. Bacon died soon after 
and Governor Berkeley came again into power. He hanged twenty- 
three of Bacon's supporters and punished a large number of others. 

66. In 1660 the Navigation Act was passed. By this the Amer- 
ican colonists were compelled to ship their products to England 
alone. All imports into the colonies were to come direct from En- 
gland and only in English ships. This law pressed heavily on the 
productions of Virginia, which were increasing rapidly. 

67. Royal province. 

NEW YORK, 

68. The discovery of the Hudson River and its exploration by 
Hudson in 1609. 

69. To discover the Northwest Passage, a shorter route to Asia. 

70. (a) From the 40th to the 45th degree of north latitude, (b) 
New Amsterdam and Fort Orange. 

71. The Dutch paid no attention to the English claim, and pro- 
ceeded to build Fort Nassau, on the Delaware, in 1623, Fort Orange 
near the present site of Albany, and even invaded Connecticut. 

72. New Amsterdam on Manhattan Island in 1614. 

73. Peter Minuits, Wouter Van Twiller, Sir William Kieft and 
Peter Stuyvesant. From 1626 till 1664. 

74. Hudson had bought the island from the Indians for an amount 
equivalent to $24.00, and thus secured the friendship of the natives 
for a number of years. The third Governor, Kieft, behaved with 
great cruelty to the Indians. He brought on an Indian war, in 1643, 
which for years threatened the destruction of the colony. Stuy- 
vesant, his successor, through firmness and kindness turned the In- 
dians into friends. 

75. He received a number of disputes with his rulership. He 
compromised as to the Connecticut boundary ; he then turned his 
attention to the colony of Swedes on the Delaware and, in 1655, 
took all their trading posts. 

76. (a) Fifty years (1614-1664. (b) The English King had given 
the territory of New Netherlands to his brother, the Duke of York, 
who wished to take possession of it. Accordingly, in 1664, an En- 
ghsh fleet appeared before New Amsterdam and demanded its sur- 
render. Stuyvesant refused, but found himself unsupported by the 
citizens, and was therefore compelled to submit. The name of New 
Amsterdam was changed to New York, and Fort Orange became 
Albany. The territory became the province of New York, with 
the Duke as proprietor. 

77. In 1673, during a war between Holland and England for about 
fifteen months. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 283 

78. The rule of Edmund Andros as Governor; the execution of 
Leisler- the supposed negro plot of 1741; Captain Kidd's piracies; 
the granting of Dongan's charter in 1683. 

79. To encourage immigration into the colony, the Company in 
Holland offered a large tract of land to every person who would 
settle fifty adults on his tract. These landholders, called Patroons, 
were required to secure a deed to the soil from the Indians. Each 
Patroon was to support a schoolmaster and a minister, and to rule 
his land wisely. These patroonships were abolished two hundred 
years later. 

MASSACHUSETTS. 

80. (a) The "Great Patent" was a grant of the territory be- 
tween the 40th and 48th degrees north latitude, westward to the 
Pacific, (b) To the Plymouth Company, a company of influential 
Englishmen. 

81. (a) By the Puritan " Pilgrims." (b) To found a home where 
they could be free from religious persecutions. 

82. The Puritans were a sect of English Protestants who sought 
a purer form of worship, different from that of the Established 
Church in England with all its rituals. Pilgrims was the name as- 
sumed by those Puritans that left the mother country for Holland 
and later returned to sail for America. 

83. These Puritan Pilgrims, wearying of Holland and its foreign 
language and customs, determined to emigrate to America. They 
fitted out two vessels, one of which was soon found to be unsea- 
worthy and condemned. The other, the Mayflower, with its one 
hundred and one passengers, set sail September 16, 1620. On the 
21st of December they landed on the place chosen for a settlement, 
and named it New Plymouth. 

84. (a) An agreement "to govern themselves for the common 
good," to which all men in the party were signatory, (b) They 
had no charter from the King or any company and, therefore, had 
to make rules to govern themselves. 

85. The colonists suffered severely from the exposure and the 
weather. Half of their number died, among them the Governor. 
Fortunately, the Indians were friendly and a treaty was made with 
them, which was kept for a number of years. 

86. In 1630, three years after their London friends had sold out 
their interests to the colonists for $9,000. 

87. In 1628 John Endicott and others obtained a grant of terri- 
tory near the Plymouth Colony. A settlement was begun the same 
year at Salem, and within the year Charlestown was founded. 

88. (a) See 87. (b) Mrs. Hutchinson held meetings of her own 
sex, where she advanced new views on religious matters, for which 
she was banished, (c) Roger Williams, minister of the Salem 
church, preached on religious tolerance, and was also banished from 
the colony. 

89. The legislative body of the colony. 

90. Harvard College. 



284 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

91. A union of the Plymouth, Massachusetts Bay, New Haven 
and Connecticut colonies for mutual protection against the Dutch, 
French and Indians, formed in 1643. 

92. While the Pilgrims left England to escape religious perse- 
cutions, yet they would not tolerate freedom of belief. Roger Wil- 
liams and Mrs. Anne Hutchinson, among others, were banished for 
their opinions, and in 1656-57 a number of Quakers that had ar- 
rived from England were hanged and others cruelly punished. 

93. Massachusetts had a thriving business in ship-building and 
commerce which were partly ruined by the requirements of this 
Act. 

94. (a) Once a year, and whenever necessary, all the voters of a 
New England town assembled in public and transacted all the im- 
portant town business. Officers, from the most important to the 
pettiest were chosen. The main business was, however, to legislate 
for the town, (b) It was a place for vigorous, open and free 
discussion of matters for the general welfare of the town, and for 
the development of parliamentary law and political sagacity. It also 
acted as the center of protest in the event of the passage of ob- 
noxious laws. 

95. Philip, an Indian chief, united the New England tribes and 
attacked all the settlements on and near the Connecticut River. 
The energy, resources and numbers of the colonists in the end pre- 
vailed and the Indians were compelled to submit. The chief was 
murdered by a treacherous Indian, and his son sold as a slave. This 
broke up all Indian fighting. 

96. The people of Boston resisted the Navigation Act and com- 
pelled one of the customs officers to return to England. King 
Charles II. punished the colony by annulling the charter. Edmund 
Andros, " the tyrantj" was appointed royal governor of New En- 
gland and he proceeded to seize the charters of all the New England 
colonies. 

97. In 1692, this delusion broke out in Salem and hundreds of 
people were put into prison on charge of being able to use the black 
art. Several were hanged and the others imprisoned and punished. 
The people soon saw their folly and the crusade died out. 

NEW HAMPSHIRE. 

98. In 1622 the Council of Plymouth made a grant of land to Sir 
Ferdinand Gorges and John Mason. Within the year some feeble 
fishing settlements were made, but all were failures. In 1629 Mason 
became sole proprietor. 

99. In 1641 the people put themselves under the protection of 
Massachusetts. In 1680, it was made into a royal province. Thrice 
it was joined to Massachusetts and as often separated. From 1741 
it remained a province by itself. 

100. The colony was exposed to the inroads of the savages and 
the French because of its bordering position. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 285 



CONNECTICUT, 

101. (a) To Earl of Warwick in 1630; who transferred his claim 
to Lord Say-and-Seal and Lord Brooke and other Englishmen. 
(b) One hundred twenty miles along the coast of the Narragansett 
River, from the Atlantic to the Pacific. 

102. By virtue of the discovery of the Hudson River, and the ex- 
ploration of Connecticut while on their fur trade with the Indians. 

103. Saybrook Colony began with the building of a fort to close 
the Connecticut River to the Dutch. Connecticut Colony was 
founded in 1636 by the Rev. Thomas Hooker, who came with one 
hundred people from Boston. 

104. The Pequod Indians in Connecticut began to molest the set- 
tlers and extended their ravages throughout the colony. A force 
was raised and the war pushed with such vigor that the tribe was 
exterminated before the close of 1637. 

105. The settlers agreed upon the plan based on the idea that all 
power springs from the people. All residents of good character 
were declared freemen ; and every officer was chosen by these free- 
men. These were embodied in a written constitution. 

106. (a) In 1638 by a body of emigrants under Rev. John Daven- 
port. (&) The place of settlement was purchased from the Indians 
and named New Haven. The Bible was made the only rule of gov- 
ernment, and only members of the church were allowed to become 
freemen. 

107. In 1641 Saybrook Colony was sold to the Connecticut Colony 
and twenty-one years later New Haven and Connecticut Colonies 
became one, under the most liberal charter ever given to any 
of the colonies. 

108. See 105, 106, 107. 

109. Yale College in 1701. 

110. Charter colony, that is, it had a charter under which the 
people, for the most part, governed themselves, in accordance with 
its provisions. 

MARYLAND. 

111. 1632. 

112. (a) To found a colony for the persecuted Catholics, (b) 
The charter was the first to secure to the people the right to make 
their own laws, and also declared that all Christian sects should en- 
joy equal rights in the territory. 

113. Clayborne, a Virginian, had established two trading posts in 
Maryland and felt that Baltimore's grant interfered with his rights. 
He quarreled with the settlers and was finally driven out of the 
country. 

114. (a) A law which secured to all Christians the right to wor- 
ship God according to their own consciences, which right had al- 
ready been embodied in the charter. In 1649. (b) People of all 
religions flocked to Maryland and in time the Protestants became 
so strong numerically that laws were passed disfranchising the 
Catholics, bringing on a Civil War. 



286 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

115. (o) Proprie'ary colony, which means that it was owned by 
a proprietor who had powers similar to those of the King in the 
Royal colony, (b) 1691. (c) In 1715. 

116. Proprietary. 

RHODE ISLAND. 

117. Roger Williams, minister of the church at Salem, was ban- 
ished from Massachusetts (see 88c) in the year 1635. He made his 
way to the Narragansett Indians with whom he was on friendly 
terms, and who gave him a grant of land on the Pawtucket River. 
A year later he laid the foundation of the settlement of Providence. 

118. The settlements of Providence and Rhode Island were re- 
fused admission into the New England Union (see 91), and Wil- 
liams therefore determined to procure a charter from the crown. 
He obtained one uniting both colonies into one, in 1644. 

119. In 1647 a law was adopted which granted freedom of re- 
ligious faith and worship to all sects. 

120. The charter of 1663 confirmed all the rights and privileges 
guaranteed by the first and by the laws since agreed upon. This 
instrument was so liberal that it continued to be the charter of the 
State until 1842. 

DELAWARE. 

121. (a) By the Swedes in 1638. (b) New Sweden. 

122. Conquest by Stuyvesant; annexation to Pennsylvania in 1682; 
it becomes a separate province in 1703. 

NORTH AND SOUTH CAROLINA. 

123. By the English— -North Carolina in 1650 at Chowan River 
and South Carolina in 1670 at the Ashley River. 

124. A grant of land given by Charles II. to Lord Clarendon and 
seven other noblemen. 

125. The " Grand Model " provided for an order of nobility, who 
were to govern and make laws for the people. It was tried for 
about twenty years, but proved a failure. 

126. The colonies were early settled by the French Huguenots, 
German Protestants, Scotch and Irish emigrants whose patient, in- 
dustrious, thrifty and strictly moral lives had a marked influence 
on the success and progress of the colonies. 

127. In South Carolina large plantations were the rule, the 
planters living in Charleston, the social and political center. Slaves 
were numerous in South Carolina while North Carolina had few. 
Social conditions in the latter colony were crude. North Carolina 
was badly ruled for a long time, and the disputes between the 
people and the governors were many and long and hindered its 
development. 

128. The colonies had serious trouble with the Spaniards and 
Indians. A combined Spanish and French fleet attempted to cap- 
ture Charleston in 1706, but failed. The Indians made several at- 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 287 

tacks on the border lands and Inroads into the colonies, but were 
severely punished and driven off. 

NEW JERSEY. 

129. With Lord Berkeley, he was the proprietor of New Jersey. 

130. Lord Berkeley sold out his rights to the Quakers, thus caus- 
ing a division of the province, Carteret taking the eastern half, and 
the Quakers the other part. 

131. In 1682 Carteret sold out his rights to Penn and some Qua- 
kers, who retained possession of the territory until 1702, when it 
was united with New York. In this condition it remained for thirty- 
six years, when it passed over to the Crown and became a distinct 
royal province. 

PENNSYLVANIA. 

132. (a) In 1682, at Philadelphia. (&) The Quakers. 

133. Penn received a large tract of land west of the Delaware in 
payment of a debt due his father by the King. On this land he 
was desirous of providing a home for oppressed Quakers. Settlers 
were sent out and Penn himself came over in 1682. 

134. (a) Proprietary, (b) William Penn. 

135. Penn's treatment of the Indians was kind and generous. He 
bought their lands, and made a treaty with them which lasted for 
almost a century. So long as the Quakers ruled the province the 
relations were very friendly and there was unbroken harmony be- 
tween the red and the white man. 

136. He made Delaware a separate province in 1703 ; the dispute 
as to the boundary line between Pennsylvania and Maryland was 
settled. 

137. Proprietary. 

GEORGIA. 

138. (a) To provide a home for the suffering poor, especially 
those that were imprisoned for debt, (b) Clarendon Grant. (See 
124.) 

139. James Oglethorpe, a soldier and member of Parliament. 

140. The original settlers were poor people, and were not suc- 
cessful as colonizers. The addition of a large number of Scotch 
Highlanders and German Protestants gave vigor to the colony and 
insured its success. 

141. Being on the border of the Spanish and Indian territory, 
Georgia was exposed to attacks by the Indians and Spanish, both of 
whom were finally defeated by Oglethorpe. 

THE COLONIES IN GENERAL. 

142. (a) See 66 and 93. (b) To raise taxes, to help pay the 
cost of the European Wars, to maintain England's rule over the 
colonies, and to help the British manufacturers, ship-builders and 
merchants. 

143. Because most of the wars, whether with the Indians only or 



288 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

the colonial wars in which the Indians aided the French, had their 
scenes of action in what is the northeastern part of the United 
States and in Canada near that region. 

144. Governor appointed by James II. to rule over the New En- 
gland and Middle Atlantic Colonies, who attempted to seize and 
revoke the charters given to those colonies. 

145. (a) James II. was driven out of England and fled to France, 
who engaged to assist him. War broke out in 1689 and spread to 
the colonies, where there were a number of disputes as to fishing 
and trading and boundary lines to be settled. (&) Dover, N. H., 
was destroyed and Schenectady captured and burned by the French 
and Indians. Port Royal, Acadia, captured by the English and 
Canada invaded. Haverhill, Mass., attacked by the allies. Treaty 
of Ryswick in 1697 ended the war. 

146. Queen Anne's war began in 1702, England against France 
and Spain, the cause being a European one. Deerfield, Mass., 
burned and its inhabitants carried off to Canada. Port Royal seized 
and Acadia made a permanent English province under the name 
of Nova Scotia. Expeditions to invade Canada failed of their pur- 
pose. Treaty of Utrecht in 1713 ended the war. 

147. Acadia became the British province of Nova Scotia. 

148. (a) The capture of Louisburg on Cape Breton Island, which 
guarded the entrance to the Gulf of St. Lawrence, was the only im- 
portant event in this war. (b) The treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle in 
1748 restored Louisburg to the French. 

149. (a) King William's War, 1689-1697. (b) Queen Anne's 
War, 1702-1713. (c) King George's War, 1744-1748. 

150. See 143. 

151. European politics — (a) the aid given by France to James II.; 
(b) France's declaration of James's son as King of England; (c) 
the question of the succession to the throne of Austria. 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

152. Virginia, 1607; New York, 1614; Massachusetts, 1620; New 
Hampshire, 1623; Connecticut, 1633; Maryland, 1634; Rhode Island, 
1636; Delaware, 1638; North Carolina, 1650; New Jersey, 1664; 
South Carolina, 1670; Pennsylvania, 1682; Georgia, 1733. 

153. Ten, all excepting New York, and New Jersey settled by the 
Dutch, and Delaware by the Swedes. 

154. France on the north and west; Spain on the south. 

155. Massachusetts, Maryland, Rhode Island, Pennsylvania. 

156. See 52-67. 

157. (a) Lack of protection afforded by the Governor to the mass 
of common people who lived in the country region, against Indian 
depredations, (b) It made the common class more respected, since 
it showed that they could become superior to the ruling party. 

158. Because of the nature of the surface of the ccmntry; the nu- 
merous rivers made access to and from their plantations to the large 
towns easy; ships from Europe could unload at the plantation 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 289 

wharves ; the leading industry was agriculture ; the danger from the 
Indians was not so great : for all these reasons the population spread 
and large plantations became the rule. 

159. The mountainous nature of the country kept the people in 
the lowlands near the coast ; the necessity for common protection 
against the French and the Indians ; the numerous wars ; the occu- 
pations were mainly shipping and industrial ; and qf great import- 
ance was the nature of the government, the town being the unit. 

160. See 105 and 112&. 

161. Delaware became the property of the Duke of York, who 
gave it to Penn in 1682. New Jersey was granted to Lord Berke- 
ley and Sir George Carteret. 

162. Three. Royal, charter and proprietary. See 63, 110, 115. 

163. Royal : Virginia, New York, New Jersey, New Hampshire, 
North and South Carolina, Georgia. Proprietary : Maryland, Penn- 
sylvania and Delaware. Charter: Massachusetts, Rhode Island and 
Connecticut. 

164. Each colony had a legislature composed of two houses. The 
lower house or assembly was elective and an upper house or coun- 
cil, appointed by the King in the royal provinces, by the proprietor 
in the proprietary colonies and elected by the assembly in the char- 
ter colonies. The approval of the Governor, as well as the assent 
of both houses, was necessary to pass a law. All laws were ulti- 
mately subject to the King's approval. 

165. England, Scotland, Ireland, France, Sweden, Holland and the 
German States, Spain and Portugal (Jews). 

166. In 1620; introduced into Virginia, found its way into all the 
colonies ; the Southern planter used slave labor, while the Northern 
shipowners profited by the transportation and trade. 

167. Almost all the colonies had Indian Wars at some time in 
their existence, but the colonists invariably got the better of them 
and forced them farther and farther back into the wilderness. 
Those colonies in which treaties had been made with the natives 
were seldom troubled. A number of tribes, as the Pequods, were 
wiped out. 

168. Protestants and Catholics ; The Church of England, Calvin- 
ists, Congregationalists, Dutch Reformed, Quakers, Puritans, Bap- 
tists, Jews, Methodists and the Huguenots. 

169. Farming was the principal occupation throughout the col- 
onies. In the New England group, agriculture, lumbering, ship- 
building, manufacturing and fishing were the leading industries. 
The inhabitants of the Middle Atlantic States were chiefly farmers 
and traders (in New York). The raising of tobacco, rice and grains 
was the principal occupation in the Southern group, with shipping 
and trading next. 

170. (a) Massachusetts, New York, Pennsylvania and Virginia, 
(fc) Boston, Philadelphia and New York. 

171. The desire for civil and religious liberty; the varied nation- 
alities; the different religions represented; the introduction and 
spread of the representative assembles throughout the Colonies; the 



290 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

prevalence of the town system of government in the New England 
Colonies, and their liberal charters. 

172. Chiefly by means of river communication, and the stage. 

173. The larger landholders in the Southern and Middle Col- 
onies formed an aristocracy and thus were able to keep the leading 
offices in their own hands. The lower and poorer classes in these 
states were usually unimportant. In the New England Colonies 
where the town meeting was the political germ the contrast between 
the wealthier and poorer classes was not so marked. Then, too, the 
occupations in the respective divisions (See 169) had to do with 
these social conditions. 

174. Education found an early home in the Dutch (See 79) and 
New England colonies. They were the most active and careful to 
provide for the education of the young. This spirit soon spread 
throughout the Quaker colonies of Pennsylvania and New Jersey 
and ultimately reached Virginia and Maryland. Towards the close 
of the seventeenth century the schools began to multiply rapidly 
and many colleges were founded. 

175. Boston News Letter, 1704. Poor Richard's Almanac. The 
New England Primer. 

176. The causes of war found their sources in European politics. 
(See 145-151.) The French and Indian War had its origin on 
American soil. 

177. Virginia, massacres of 1622 and 1644. Connecticut, Pequod 
War, 1637. Massachusetts, King Philip's War, 1675. New York, 
wars in 1640-1643. King William's War, New England and New 
York, 1689-1697. Queen Anne's War, New England, 1702-1713. 
Kmg George's War, 1748. 

FRENCH AND INDIAN WAR, 
French Explorations and Settlements. 

178. We cannot clearly understand the causes of the French and 
Indian War without a knowledge of the discoveries and explora- 
tions and their extent. 

179. See 36 and 39. 

180. The Jesuit missionaries to convert the Indians to Christianity 
and the traders and trappers to trade with the Indians. 

181. Father Marquette with a trader named Joliet; June, 1673. 

182. LaSalle, a French adventurer, sailed down the lower part 
of the Mississippi River to its mouth and founded colonies in Louis- 
iana. He discovered the mouth of the Mississippi River. 

183. By means of leaden plates engraved with the arms of France, 
buried in the soil ; missions, military stations, trading posts and 
forts built throughout the territory along the waterways. 

184. By 1750 they had explored the country south of Lake Erie 
east to the mountains ; settlements were founded near the mouth of 
the Mississippi on both sides of the river ; Forts Niagara, Crown 
Point and Vincennes were built; they had complete control of the 
waterways leading to the Valley of the Mississippi from the Great 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 291 

Lakes and had erected more than sixty military stations in addition 
to the missions and trading posts. 

185. Strengthening and building up the thirteen colonies. 

186. In 1749 a grant of six hundred thousand acres of land west 
of the Alleghanies on and near the Ohio River, was made to a num- 
ber of speculators called the Ohio Company. Traders were sent 
into this territory to traffic with the Indians, but were driven out 
by the French who claimed the region as part of their territory. 

187. By virtue of the explorations by the traders and Jesuit mis- 
sionaries. 

188. Governor Dinwiddle of Virginia sent a letter to the French 
commanders, George Washington acting as messenger. The French 
had begun to build forts in the territory in dispute. The land 
was also claimed as part of Virginia, and the letter to the French 
Governor demanded the removal of these forts. 

189. Washington with a companion made a trip of four hundred 
miles to the French forts in mid-winter. Finding the commander 
at Fort Le Bceuf, he delivered his message, and prepared for his 
return home, which he reached, after passing through a number of 
perils and adventures, in January, 1754. 

190. A band of men sent out in 1754 by the O'hio Company to 
build a fort at the junction of the Allegheny and Monongahela, as 
suggested by Washington. The French suddenly fell upon them, 
drove them away, and completed the work which they named Fort 
DuQuesne. 

191. (a) Attack at Fort Necessity, (b) A band of Virginia mil- 
itia under Colonel Frye, Washington being second in command, 
was on its way to protect the workmen. Learning of the presence 
of the French, Washington, at the head of a small force, was sent 
ahead. A skirmish ensued and the French were beaten. Not know- 
ing the number of French in the neighborhood he built a stockade 
which he called Fort Necessity. Here he was attacked by the 
French, in July, and forced to capitulate. 

192. In 1756. 

193. Two years before war was declared (1754) the colonies pre- 
pared for the contest, as fighting had already begun. Delegates 
from several colonies met at Albany, in 1754, to plan some common 
defense. Franklin, a delegate from Pennsylvania, prepared a plan 
of union which was submitted to the colonies and the English gov- 
ernment, but failed of their approval. 

194. That a Grand Council be elected to meet every year at Phila- 
delphia, with powers to levy taxes, enlist soldiers, build forts and 
act as the court of last resort in all matters of general colonial con- 
cern. The President was to be appointed and paid by the King, 
who should have the final veto power. 

195. (a) Disputes between England and France in Europe, (b) 
Religious and political differences, (c) Fisheries and fur trade 
matters, (d) The disputes over the Ohio Territory. 

196. (a) Fort DuQuesne (now Pittsburgh), because of its com- 
manding position. (&) Louisburg (Acadia), because of the help 



292 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

given to the French by its inhabitants, (c) Crown Point and Ti- 
conderoga, as the keys to Lakes George and Champlain, the route 
to Canada, (d) Niagara, its commanding position on the Great 
Lakes, (e) Quebec, on account of its control of the St. Lawrence 
River. 

197. In 1755, before war had been declared, General Braddock 
arrived in Virginia with a well-equipped army ; and after a consulta- 
tion with some colonial governors at Williamsburgh, Virginia, he 
proceeded against Fort DuQuesne. While marching through the 
dense forests in European military style, against the advice of 
Washington and others, his army was ambushed by the hidden 
French and Indians, and would have been annihilated had it not 
been for the coolness and bravery of Washington and his Virginia 
soldiers. The wreck of the army retreated and finally reached 
Philadelphia. 

198. Because of the English successes, Louisburg, Fort Frontenac 
and Fort DuQuesne were taken, and preparations made for the 
seizure of the other objective points. 

199. William Pitt was made Colonial Minister of England in 1757 
and prepared to carry on the war with great vigor. He replaced 
the old generals with younger ones, and increased the size of the 
armies in the colonies. 

200. Forts Niagara, Crown Point and Ticonderoga were cap- 
tured. 

201. (a) After a number of fruitless attacks on Quebec because 
of its commanding situation, Wolfe was able to reach the fort by 
climbing during the night up a narrow pathway to the Plains of 
Abraham. There a decisive battle was fought, and the fort sur- 
rendered. The commanders of both armies were killed in the bat- 
tle, (b) Wolfe of the English and Montcalm of the French. 

202. By the treaty of Paris in 1763, (a) France surrendered all 
her possessions east of the Mississippi River to the British; (&) 
Spain ceded Florida to the British, in exchange for Cuba; (c) 
Spain received the territories of Louisiana and New Orleans for her 
aid to France. 

203. Because the Indians played a very prominent and most im- 
portant part in the war. The Algonquins aided the French and the 
Iroquois the English. 

204. The tribes aiding France in the French and Indian War 
banded together under Pontiac, a chief of the Ottawas, and captured 
or destroyed all the British posts west of Niagara, excepting De- 
troit and Fort Pitt, and their garrisons were massacred or made 
prisoners. They finally submitted when preparations for putting them 
down were made. Pontiac was killed by an Indian who was bribed 
by a white man. 

205. (a) Thirty thousand young men were lost and eleven mil- 
lion dollars were spent in this war; (b) their frontiers had been 
ravaged far and wide; (c) the colonists became aware of their 
military ability; (d) they learned the valuable lesson of union; 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 293 

(e) the military leaders in the Revolution received their training 
in this war. 

206. (a) The war was fought wherever the French and English 
met, on sea or on land; (b) the debt of England was greatly in- 
creased; (c) the necessity to raise taxes to pay this debt brought 
on the Revolutionary War and its consequent loss of the colonies. 

207. (a) See 205, c, d, e. (b) The territory now known as the 
Dominion of Canada and the adjoining islands were added to Brit- 
ish possessions in America. 

REVOLUTIONARY WAR. 

208. England believed (a) that a colony existed for her benefit 
only; (b) to enrich her; (c) that the colonies cloud do nothing 
without her consent; (d) that they should pay a share of the cost 
of the wars with the French. 

209. The colonies could produce the raw material, but this had 
to be sent to England to be manufactured into the finished products. 
Nothing that the mother country manufactured could be made in 
the colonies. 

210. The Navigation Laws and the " Trade Monopoly." (See 66.) 

211. The governors took away the rights of the colonists; re- 
ceived high salaries paid by the colonies ; quarreled continuously 
with the legislative assembles ; and tried to extort money from the 
people. 

212. (a) The Stamp Act of 1765. (b) The Townshend Law. 

213. (a) General — (1) England's absolute rule of the colonies; 
(2) the spirit of liberty in the colonists. (&) Remote — (1) Un- 
fair treatment of the colonies; (2) Navigation Acts; (3) laws re- 
lating to trade; (4) restrictions on manufactures; (5) writs of 
assistance, (c) Immediate or direct — (1) Taxation without rep- 
resentation; (2) writs of assistance; (3) Stamp Act; (4) Town- 
shend Act; (5) Mutiny Act; (6) Boston Massacre; (7) Boston 
Port Bill. 

214. Those having their origin a long time previous to the begin- 
ning of the war were remote causes ; while the immediate causes 
were originated only after the French and Indian War. 

215. Taxation without representation. 

216. Legal papers by means of which an officer in the customs 
service could search any dwelling, factory or warehouse for goods 
thought to have been smuggled into the colonies. 

217. Owing to the heavy indebtedness incurred as a result of the 
wars with France, England wished the colonies to help pay an un- 
equal share of this burden. This she endeavored to do by means 
of taxation. Parliament passed an act which required that a stamp 
be placed upon all legal documents, business papers and newspapers. 
There was great opposition to this in the colonies because they were 
not in any way consulted or represented. The act was resisted and 
finally repealed. 

218. A law passed soon after, placing a duty on tea, glass, paper 
and other articles imported in quantity into the colonies. 



294 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

219. A law under which the people in the colonies were required 
to provide the troops in the British colonial armies with quarters, 
bedding, soap, etc. 

220. Massachusetts, New York and Virginia. 

221. Associations of colonists, organized to oppose and resist the 
British tax collectors. 

222. A fight which broke out between the British soldiers and the 
residents of Boston on March S, 1770, and in which a number of 
citizens were killed. 

223. The Colonial Congress which met in New York, in October, 
1765, and decided to present a petition and memorials to the Crown 
and Parliament. They agreed upon a " Declaration of Rights and 
Grievances of the Colonies." 

224. Committees of prominent persons in each of the colonies 
who, by means of correspondence, kept one another fully informed 
of the events. 

225. (a) Agreements entered into by the merchants generally, 
throughout the colonies, not to import any more goods from En- 
gland and to pay no bills until the Stamp Act was repealed. (&) The 
British manufacturers felt this severely. Imports fell off and 
the bills due the English merchants remained unpaid. The colonists 
began to wear garments made only of American cloth. 

226. (a) 1766; (b) the Townshend Law. (c) To assert "the 
right and power to bind the colonies in all cases whatsoever." 

227. A ship laden with tea entered the Port of Boston and the 
people notified the captain that they would not permit the tea to be 
landed, so as not to pay the duty levied under the Townshend Law. 
A band of citizens, disguised as Indians, went to the vessel and 
threw the contents of the tea chests into the harbor. 

228. A bill (the Boston Port Bill) prohibiting the entrance of 
ships into the harbor; and at the same time removed the port and 
seat of government to Salem. 

229. General Gage determined to destroy the supplies collected 
by the provincials. He sent a column to Concord where the stores 
were kept, but on the way it met some eighty minute men assem- 
bled on Lexington Green. After ordering the men to disperse, 
which they refused to do, the British fired and seven Americans 
lay dead. The remainder of the march to and from Concord was a 
running fight between the British troops and the Americans who had 
gathered to oppose them. Three hundred troops paid the penalty of 
the rash action of the British commander. 

230. Men left their farms and shops and rushed to Boston and 
twenty thousand soldiers were soon enlisted to fight the British. 
The whole country was aroused. 

231. Massachusetts men who were enrolled and were to take up 
arms at a moment's notice. 

232. The Americans determined to fortify Bunker Hill to com- 
mand the road leading into Boston, and proceeded to throw up 
earthworks during the night of June 16, 1775. The following day 
the British, after being repulsed twice, succeeded in driving out the 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 295 

Americans, at a cost of over one thousand in killed and wounded. 
The American loss was about half as much. 

233. (o) Passed resolutions desiring peace; voted to raise an 
army of twenty thousand and appointed Washington commander-in- 
chief. (&) Met in Philadelphia, May, 1775. 

234. Refer to some good biography. 

235. Ethan Allen and Benedict Arnold, May 12, 1775, because 
they commanded the route to Canada by way of Lakes George and 
Champlain. 

236. (a) The way to Canada was now clear. Two expeditions, 
one by way of the lakes, and the other by way of Maine, were sent 
out to unite in an attack on Quebec. The capture of Montreal v^ras 
effected and Quebec attacked. The attempt resulted in a failure, 
owing to the reinforcement of the British, (b) By the capture of 
Quebec, it was thought that Canada would be secured to the Amer- 
icans and no help given to the British in the war from that source. 

237. The people in Virginia, South Carolina and Georgia drove 
out the Governors, and North Carolina declared itself free and in- 
dependent ; aided the North with men and money. 

238. To capture New York and command the Hudson River. 

239. To drive the British from Boston, which evacuation took 
place on March 17, 1776. 

240. Against Charleston, S. C. 

241. The South Carolina patriots had thrown up a rude fort on 
Sullivan's Island, which they named Fort Moultrie. This was at- 
tacked by the fleet on June 28, but they were compelled to retire 
with severe loss. They did not renew the attack, and returned to 
attack New York. 

242. (o) To capture New York City, (b) Washington had an 
army entrenched on Long Island which was attacked by Generals 
Howe and Clinton, and compelled to retreat to New York, (c) A 
battle was fought at White Plains in which Washington was again 
defeated. The Americans had a part of their army at Peekskill, 
and Washington with the rest crossed over into New Jersey. Fort 
Washington (New York) and Fort Lee (New Jersey) were next 
captured by the British troops under Cornwallis. 

243. From Fort Lee, Washington, pursued by Cornwallis, aban- 
doned successively Newark, Elizabethtown and New Brunswick, 
and retired into Pennsylvania. 

244. (a) December 25, 1776. (&) It spread joy throughout the 
American armies, and encouraged them in their fight, (c) The 
soldiers hired by Great Britain from the Duke of Hesse, Germany. 

245. (a) A declaration that the thirteen colonies are free and in- 
dependent states, adopted by the representatives of these colonies 
assembled in the Second Continental Congress. (&) Thomas Jef- 
ferson, (c) July 4, 1776. 

246. When, in the course of human events, it becomes necessary 
for one people to dissolve the political bands which have connected 
them with another, and to assume, among the pov/ers of the earth, 
the separate and equal station to which the laws of nature and of 



296 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

nature's God entitle them, a decent respect to the opinions of man- 
kind requires that they should declare the causes which impel them 
to the separation. (Read the Declaration complete.) 

247. Samuel Adams, Elbridge Gerry, John Adams, Roger Sher- 
man, Robert Morris, Benjamin Franklin, Edward Rutledge, Thomas 
Jefferson, Robert R. Livingston. 

248. Franklin and two others were sent to France to seek assist- 
ance and loans made in France and Holland. 

249. Cornwallis was outgeneralled and before spring was com- 
pelled to give up every town of importance in New Jersey. 

250. Lafayette fitted out a vessel at his own expense and turned 
it over to the Americans. He became one of Washington's aides. 
Baron Steuben, a Prussian officer, became an officer and drilled the 
recruits. Baron de Kalb and the two Polish patriots, Kosciusko 
and Pulaski. Count Rochambeau and d' Estaing, French officers. 

251. (a) It was the largest city in the colonies and was the seat 
of government, (b) Brandy wine, Germantown, and Forts Mifflin 
and Mercer on the Delaware, which the Americans lost. 

252. The defeat of Burgoyne's invasion and his surrender at Sara- 
toga. 

253. A complete series of connected military operations in a single 
season or in a limited region. 

254. The plan was to get control of New York and the Hudson 
River and thus separate New England from the rest of the col- 
onies. Burgoyne started from Montreal by way of the lakes ; Howe 
was to meet him at the Hudson, coming up from New York to Al- 
bany; St. Leger was to come by way of the Mohawk Valley and 
join the others at Albany. 

255. St. Leger was defeated by Generals Herkimer and Arnold 
and returned to Canada. 

256. Crown Point and Ticonderoga, Fort Edward and Whitehall 
(British successes) ; Fort Schuyler, Bennington, Stillwater, Bemis 
Heights or Saratoga (American successes). 

257. At Saratoga, October 17, 1777. 

258. The British moving rp the Hudson retired to New York 
City and became discouraged. The Americans were encouraged. 
They received a splendid train of artillery and munitions of war. 
Greater still was the decision of France to aid the Americans. 

259. The American army spent a wretched winter at Valley Forge, 
Pa. The soldiers were without clothing, excepting the rags they 
wore ; provisions were short and the troops discouraged. 

260. (a) From France, a fleet and soldiers, with full supplies. 
(b) Mutual commercial relations and a defensive and offensive al- 
liance against Great Britain. 

261. The British feared that the French fleet would block the 
mouth of the Delaware and the fleet would thus be shut in. 

262. Wyoming Valley in Pennsylvania and Cherry Valley in New 
York. For massacres by the Indians employed by the British. 

263. The British had lost every foothold in the North and there 
were more sympathizers in the South. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 297 

264. In 1778, the British captured Savannah and secured control 
of Georgia. Charleston, S. C, was captured in 1780. The Amer- 
icans were defeated at Camden, S. C. 

265. Greene was placed in command and improved the army by 
strict discipline. The British were defeated at Cowpens, S. C, by 
General Morgan. Cornwallis followed Greene into Virginia where 
he defeated his army at Guilford Court House. The battles of Hob- 
kirk's Hill and Eutaw Springs were also reverses for the Amer- 
icans. But the English were so harassed that the States were re- 
covered by the Americans and the British held only the seaports of 
Savannah, Charleston and Wilmington. 

266. Stony Point on the Hudson was recaptured from the British 
by Anthony Wayne. Major Lee defeated the British at Jersey City. 
The Indians in western New York were punished by General Sul- 
livan. 

267. (a) An American naval officer in command of three ships of 
war fitted out in France, (b) He captured two British men-of-war 
off the east coast of England and harassed British commerce. 

268. (a) The British commander, defeated at Cowpens. (b, c, d) 
American partisan officers who helped to regain North and South 
Carolina and Georgia from the British. (See 265.) 

269. An American officer (see 236, 255) who was court martialed 
for fraud and reprimanded by Washington. Determined to be re- 
venged, he entered into negotiations to sell West Point to the Brit- 
ish. He obtained the command of the post, but through the cap- 
ture of the British emissary the plan was discovered. Arnold fled 
to the British army where he was rewarded with a colonelcy and 
about seven thousand pounds sterling. He died in England, a social 
outcast. 

270. (a) An American spy hanged by the British during the cam- 
paign in New York, (b) The British emissary who was stopped 
on his way back from West Point and the plan discovered. He was 
hanged as a spy. 

271. Mutinous. 

272. Robert Morris was a Philadelphia banker, who supplied 
Washington with the funds necessary to pay the soldiers and to 
purchase supplies for the army. He was appointed " Superintendent 
of Finance " by Congress, and borrowed more than a million dollars 
on his own credit, which he could not repay and for which he was 
cast into prison. 

273. Cornwallis was compelled to move into Virginia, encamping 
at Yorktown. The American troops, reinforced by the French, rap- 
idly moved on his position, while the French fleet blockaded the 
Chesapeake and shut off his retreat. Hemmed in on both land and 
water and with no prospect of help, after a number of attacks by 
Washington, Cornwallis surrendered his army. 

274. (a) Paris, September 3, 1783. (b) The independence of 
the United States was acknowledged, the boundaries of her terri- 
tory fixed as Canada, the Mississippi River, Florida and the Atlantic 
Ocean; Spain received Florida; the United States received fishing 



298 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

privileges ofif the banks of Newfoundland, (c) The Americans 
were overjoyed, and encouraged. The English were disheartened 
and it was felt that the contest was at an end. 

275. (a) By the Second Continental Congress. (&) Under the 
Articles of Confederation. 

276. Congress consisted of one house representing, not the people, 
but the states; the government had no executive officer; Congress 
had no power to enforce its orders; each State was independent; 
taxes could be recommended, but Congress had no power or means 
to collect them ; funds could be borrowed on the credit of the United 
States, but there was no power to guarantee payment. 

277. A convention of delegates met in May, 1787, to revise the 
Articles. It was soon seen that it would be better to frame a new 
Constitution than to revise the Articles. After four months' deliber- 
ation, the present Constitution was adopted for ratification by the 
States. Before the end of 1788, eleven States accepted its pro- 
visions, nine being necessary for it to go into effect, and the United 
States had a working Constitution. 

278. (o) To form a more perfect union; (b) to establish justice; 
(c) to insure domestic tranquillity; (d) to provide for the common 
defense; (e) to promote the general welfare; (/) to secure the 
blessings of liberty to the inhabitants of the United States. 

REVIEW OF THE REVOLUTIONARY PERIOD. 

279. See 213. 

280. That the colonies had already paid their share of the ex- 
penses incurred in the wars with France; that since they were En- 
glishmen the provisions of Magna Charta applied to them as well 
as to the English at home; that they, therefore, could not be taxed 
unless represented in Parliament. 

281. Burning the stamps; the non-importation agreements; the 
opposition to the writs of assistance ; hanging the effigies of the roy- 
al governors ; the formation of the Committees on Correspondence ; 
the adoption of petitions and resolutions of protest. 

282. Boston was the most important seaport in the colonies and 
was, therefore, most affected by the navigation, trade and tax meas- 
ures adopted by Parliament. 

283. See 237. 

284. (a) The colonies opposed to Great Britain during the Revo- 
lutionary War. (b) Those siding and helping her during the war. 

285. (a) They were on the defensive; fighting in their own coun- 
try ; the British commanders were generally inferior to the Amer- 
ican; the defective strategy of the British; French aid, in the form 
of war material at first, and ships and men later; the geographical 
features of the country, and its extent, (b) Limited population and 
lack of resources. 

286. (a) British campaign in New York and New Jersey. See 
238, 242-244. (b) Burgoyne's campaign. See 254-258. (c) Cam- 
paign in Pennsylvania. See 251, 261. (d) Southern campaign. 
See 264. (e) Greene's campaign. See 265. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 299 

287. (a) George III. (b) Lord North. 

288. (a) In the New England and Middle Atlantic States, (b) 
In the Southern States, (c) See 263. 

289. Robert Morris, " Financier of the Revolution." Jefferson, 
writer of the Declaration of Independence and law giver. Franklin, 
Ambassador to France to seek aid for the colonies. John Adams, 
Samuel Adams, Richard Henry Lee, signers of the Declaration. 
Patrick Henry, a Virginia patriot who denounced England's con- 
duct. John Hancock, President of the Second Continental Con- 
gress. James Otis, a Massachusetts legislator who originated the 
idea of calling the First Continental Congress. 

290. John Paulding, David Williams and Isaac Van Wart, captors 
of Major Andre. Prescott, American commander at Bunker Hill. 
Montgomery, one of leaders of expedition to Canada. Putnam, com- 
mander at Battle of Long Island. Schuyler, commander of Amer- 
ican forces opposing Burgoyne : was superseded by Gates. Hamil- 
ton, aide to Washington, throughout the war. 

291. Edmund Burke, Second Earl of Chatham, James Fox and 
R. B. Sheridan. 

292. (o) The people were represented in the House of Represent- 
atives according to the population and the States were represented 
by two senators each, (fo) Five negroes were to be counted as 
three whites in the census, (c) Com.mercial questions were to be 
decided by a majority vote of Congress, (d) The free importation 
of slaves was to continue till 1808 ; after that year a capitation tax 
of $10 could be placed on slaves that were imported, (e) The 
length of term of the President was limited to four years, and no 
restriction placed as to reelection. (/) Regarding the seat of the 
national government. 

293. The territory lying north of the Ohio, ceded by Virginia 
and the other States claiming it, to the United States. It was or- 
ganized as the Northwest Territory under the law known as the 
Ordinance of 1787, which law also prohibited slavery in this terri- 
tory. 

PERIOD OF NATIONAL GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT. 

294. (a) April 30, 1789, in Federal Hall, New York City. 

(b) Four. Jefferson as Secretary of State; Hamilton as Secre- 
tary of the Treasury, General Knox as Secretary of War, and 
Edmund Randolph as Attorney-General. 

295. The finances of the country were in the greatest disorder ; 
public credit was almost gone ; the value of the paper money had 
depreciated; and the States were unwilling to pay the public cred- 
itors. Hamilton's policy was for the United States to recognize the 
par value of the bills and notes issued and for the national gov- 
ernment to assume all the debts incurred by the State governments 
in the conduct of the war, and to lay an internal revenue tax. Pub- 
lic credit was immediately restored ; many obligations were paid off. 
A tax laid upon domestic whiskey and upon imports. 

296. In 1791 for a period of twenty years. 



300 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

297. Vermont (1791), Kentucky (1792) and Tennessee (1796). 

298. The Indians in the Northwest Territory became troublesome. 
Two armies, sent against them, were routed. General Wayne then 
went against the Indians, and, in the battle of the Maumee, defeated 
them with great slaughter, compelling them to submit and cede 
more than twenty-five thousand square miles of territory to the gov- 
ernment. 

299. Two; 1789 to 1797. 

300. (a) Ambassador from France to this country, (b) He fitted 
out privateers from American ports to prey upon British commerce, 
hoping thereby to involve the United States in a war with Great 
Britain. He was recalled by his government at Washington's re- 
quest. 

301. The whiskey distillers in Western Pennsylvania refused to 
pay the revenue tax on whiskey (see answer 295) and took up arms. 
A force sent by Washington compelled them to submit. 

302. (a) To settle the disputes left open by the Treaty of Paris 
(1783). (b) John Jay. 

303. The Federalists favoring the supremacy of the federal gov- 
ernment and the Anti-Federalists inclined to the sovereignty of the 
state. 

304. The Vice Presidency. 

305. Jay's treaty displeased France because it removed all ob- 
stacles to friendly relations with Great Britain. She ordered the 
American Minister and all American citizens from her country and 
seized American ships. Congress was called in special session and 
preparations for war were ordered. A few small battles on sea 
were fought. A treaty was then signed between Napoleon Bona- 
parte and America, putting a stop to all difficulties. 

306. Dec. 14, 1799. 

307. (a) The Alien Law gave the President power to banish all 
such aliens as he deemed dangerous to the peace of the country. 
(b) The Sedition Law empowered the President to imprison all 
persons guilty of abusing the freedom of speech or of the press. 

308. These laws were invoked against some of the Democrats 
(formerly Anti-Federalists) and caused the disruption of Adams's 
party and the defeat of the Federalists in the next election. 

309. Washington, D. C, March 4, 1801. 

310. The Democratic-Republicans or Democrats (formerly Anti- 
Federalists). 

311. (a) Spain had returned the Louisiana Territory to France. 
The mouth of the Mississippi River was in Spanish and French 
possession. Jefferson sent Robert R. Livingston to France to aid 
the American Minister, James Monroe, to negotiate the purchase of 
New Orleans and the free navigation of the lower Mississippi by 
American vessels. Napoleon, fearing the capture of the Territory 
by England, offered to sell the entire Territory to the Americans for 
the sum of fifteen million dollars, which offer was quickly accepted, 
and the treaty ratified, (b) The free navigation of the entire Mis- 
sissippi River; a territory of more than one million square miles in 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 301 

extent with all its wealth ; freedom from attack by a foreign nation 
to the west, and (c) the exploration of the territory by Lewis and 
Clark. 

312. (a) The Barbary pirates annoyed the American merchant- 
men. A squadron was sent to punish them. A Tripolitan city was 
captured and an advance made upon the capital, when the news of 
peace was received. (&) Bainbridge, Decatur, Eaton, Preble. 

313. The death of Hamilton in a duel with Aaron Burr on ac- 
count of political differences. 

314. American shipping was preyed upon by the ships of both 
nations ; our European commerce was ruined because of the block- 
ades declared upon nearly the whole of Europe ; the American 
ships were searched for sailors by the British war vessels. 

315. (a) British men-of-war stopped our merchant vessels, 
searched for and picked out from their crews whatever seamen they 
wanted, on pretext that they were deserters from the English serv- 
ice, (b) Our commerce was ruined, because they also took what 
they claimed was contraband of war. 

316. (a) In December, 1807, the Embargo Act was passed by 
which all American vessels were prohibited from leaving our waters, 
so stopping all trade with France and England, (b) American 
ships rotted in the harbors, our commerce was entirely ruined, so 
that the measure was amended, allowing ships to trade with all the 
ports of the world excepting the warring nations. 

317. (a) 1809-1817; (b) Democrats. 

318. War with the Indians on the northwest frontier, under Te- 
cumseh, chief of the Shawnees. Total defeat of the Indian 
confederacy in the battle of Tippecanoe. General William Henry 
Harrison and Tecumseh. 

319. The oppression of American commerce; impressment of sea- 
men from our ships ; the too-general use of the right of search on 
our vessels. 

320. (a) Invasion of Canada. (&) Surrender of Detroit by the 
Americans and loss of the Territory of Michigan. 

321. On land, near the head of Lake Erie, on the Niagara fron- 
tier and near Lake Champlain. On sea, wherever American vessels 
met the British. 

322. (o) About Fort Erie and Lake Champlain; Maryland and 
Washington, D. C. ; New Orleans, (b) Battles of Fort Erie, Lun- 
dy's Lane, Plattsburg, attack on Baltimore, burning of Washington 
and Battle of New Orleans. 

323. The American army, composed of frontiersmen and some 
regulars, met the British army of 12.000 regulars and 4,000 ma- 
rines near New Orleans. The British began the assault, but the 
well-directed fire of the Americans behind their intrenchments of 
cotton bales drove them back. Only seven Americans were killed 
as against more than two thousand British. This battle was fought 
a few weeks after the treaty of peace had been signed at Ghent, 
December 24, 1814. 

324. Battle of Lake Erie— Perry, 



302 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

In the harbor of Valparaiso — Porter. 
Off Lisbon, Portugal — Stewart. 
Constitution and Guerriere — Hull. 
Plattsburg — McDonough. 

325. Brown— Sackett's Harbor, Chippewa, Lundy's Lane. 
Macomb — Plattsburg. 

Harrison — Thames. 
Jackson — New Orleans. 

326. A British army landed on Chesapeake Bay, and marched to 
attack Washington. Meeting with little opposition it entered the 
city and burned the Capitol, the President's House and other build- 
ings. 

327. Nothing was said about the right of search, and the impress- 
ment of American seamen, and the northern boundary was left un- 
settled. 

328. A convention of Federalists from the New England States, 
who opposed the war, met at Hartford, in December, 1814, and drew 
up a statement of grievances, and recommended some changes in 
the Constitution. The Federalist party was ruined as a result. 

329. Ohio (1803); Louisiana (1812); Indiana (1816); Missis- 
sippi (1817). 

330. The two political parties in existence before this time had 
become one ; and there was no ill-feeling therefore ; manufactures 
had been begun ; the country was rapidly prospering. 

331. War with the Seminoles and Jackson's punishment of the 
British traders in Florida; purchase of Florida, 1819; the Missouri 
Compromise, 1820 ; the Monroe Doctrine issued, 1823 ; Lafayette's 
visit to America, 1824. 

332. (a) The Seminole Indians, instigated by the Spanish in Flor- 
ida and aided by some British traders, invaded Georgia. Jackson 
was sent against them and defeated them. He then took Fort St. 
Marks, Florida, and hanged the two British traders. He also 
seized Pensacola. (b) Purchase of Florida, 1819. 

333. A statement embodied in Monroe's message to Congress in 
1823, that " the American continents are not to be considered as 
subjects for future colonization by any European power," and that 
the United States will regard as an unfriendly act by any European 
nation, the interference with any independent American govern- 
ment. 

334. In 1822 the South American republics declared their inde- 
pendence. Prussia, Russia and Austria had formed the Holy Chris- 
tian Alliance and intended to help Spain regain her colonies. Rus- 
sia had already sent an expedition to California and America feared 
the results, if the Holy Alliance interfered in this hemisphere. Ac- 
cordingly, at the suggestion of John Quincy Adams, the Secretary 
of State, Monroe announced the following principles in addition to 
the above mentioned : 

335. That the United States will take no part in European wars 
and that this country will not interfere with any European colony 
already established. And see 333. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 303 

336. Maine applied for admission into the Union as a separate 
state and submitted a constitution which prohibited slavery. At the 
same time Missouri asked to be admitted as a state and expressed 
herself as agreeable to slavery. A compromise was effected after 
a long debate, admitting these states on the terms mentioned, but 
providing that all the rest of the Louisiana Purchase north of the 
Mason and Dixon line, 36' 30' north latitude, be set apart as free 
territory into which slavery should never be allowed to enter. 

337. Lafayette, who had returned to France, visited America in 
1824 to lay the cornerstone of the Bunker Hill Monument. He be- 
came the guest of the nation and was everywhere regarded with 
profound respect. 

338. By the House of Representatives, in accordance with the 
Twelfth Amendment to the Constitution. 

339. Opening of the Erie Canal, 1825 ; Tariff legislation of 1828. 

340. Adams, Andrew Jackson, Henry Clay. 

341. Cost of transportation reduced from $88 to about $7 per ton; 
western immigration increased ; made life in the West more com- 
fortable by means of easier and cheaper freight transportation ; made 
New York City the metropolis of the country. 

342. Removal of all officeholders that did not belong to the Presi- 
dent's party. 

343. The United States Bank applied for a second renewal of its 
charter which was to expire in 1836. Jackson ordered the Secre- 
tary of the Treasury to deposit the national funds in certain State 
banks, principally in the West, instead of in the United States Bank. 
Congress passed a renewal of its charter, but the President vetoed 
it. Not having enough votes to pass the bill over Jackson's veto, 
the charter of the Bank expired by limitation. 

344. (a) The State Banks in which the government funds were 
deposited, (b) These banks lent money freely to merchants and 
speculators, introducing a period of wild speculation, not only in 
merchandise, but also in real estate. 

345. The Southern States, being agricultural, desired a tariff for 
revenue only; while the Northern States, which had become manu- 
facturing states as a result of the War of 1812, wanted a tariff that 
would protect their industries. Congress, in 1832, increased the 
tariff already in force. This was modified in the following year by 
the provision that the rates be gradually reduced till it would be- 
come a revenue tariff in 1842. 

346. (a) The people in South Carolina declared the tariff uncon- 
stitutional and therefore "null and void." (b) The right of any 
sovereign state to disregard a law it did not like and secede from 
the Union at any time. 

347. Daniel Webster, Henry Clay, Robert Y. Hayne and John C. 
Calhoun. 

348. The Whigs. 

349. Owing to the wild speculation (see 344) the banks were com- 
pelled to issue notes which the government refused to accept as pay- 



304 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

ment of government deposits. Notes by individuals fell due, and 
could not be paid. The cost of commodities rose to an unusually- 
high price. All these factors brought on the " Panic of 1837," re- 
sulting in failures everywhere, and the throwing out of work of 
thousands in all trades and occupations. 

350. The proposition to establish subtreasuries throughout the 
country in which all the government funds would be deposited. 

351. (a) One month, (b) Vice-President Tyler. 

352. Broke out in 1842 in Rhode Island to amend or form a new 
constitution, because of the property restriction placed upon the 
voting franchise. The United States government interfered and no 
blood was shed. A new constitution was adopted to replace the 
old one which had been in force since the days of Roger Williams. 

353. (a) Texas had thrown ofif the Mexican yoke in 1835 and be- 
come a free and independent state. In April, 1844, it applied for 
admission into the Union, but the application was rejected by the 
Senate in July. The campaign of the same year was fought out on 
this question of annexation and its friends triumphed in the election 
of James K. Polk, a Democratic nominee. In 1845, Texas was 
annexed to the United States, (b) To War with Mexico. 

354. That the forty-ninth parallel of latitude serve as the north- 
ern boundary of the United States, instead of parallel 54° 40' north 
latitude, as claimed by our government. 

355. The question of the boundary line between Texas and Mex- 
ico. 

356. General Taylor had taken post near the River Nueces, which 
Mexico considered an invasion of her territory and, therefore, an 
act of war. Fort Brown, opposite Matamoros, was built by Gen. 
Taylor and then followed the battles of Palo Alto and Resaca de la 
Palma. Later, Monterey was captured, and the battle of Beuna 
Vista was fought. 

357. General Scott, reinforced by Taylor's army, landed at Vera 
Cruz, marched to Cerro Gordo, which he seized, and then entered 
IPuebla. The battles of Contreras and Chapultepec followed soon 
after, and Molino del Rey was also won. Mexico, the capital city, 
was entered on September 14. 

358. (a) Kearny — Santa Fe. 

Doniphan — Sacramento. 

Fremont, Commodores Sloat and Stockton seized Cali- 
fornia. 
(&) Santa Anna — Buena Vista, Mexico City. 
Arista — Palo Alto and Resaca de la Palma. 

359. 1846-1848. 

360. Rio Grande River became the western boundary of Texas 
and Mexico ceded the provinces of New Mexico and California in 
exchange for $15,000,000. 

361. An amendment (proviso) to the bill appropriating the $15,- 
000,000 to be paid to Mexico, to exclude slavery forever from the 
acquired territory. 

362. (o) The discovery of gold in California (1848). (b) The 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 305 

population grew rapidly; people came from the East and from Eu- 
rope ; within two years California applied for admission as a state. 

363. The appeals of California led to the further agitation of the 
slavery question, for the constitution of the new state prohibited 
slavery. It led to the entire question being reopened. 

364. (a) Four months. (&) Vice-President Fillmore. 

365. (a) As a result of this debate (see 363) the Compromise of 
1850, or as it is otherwise known, the " Omnibus Bill," was adopted, 
providing (1) the admission of California as a free state; (2) pro- 
hibiting the sale of slaves in the District of Columbia; (3) the 
enactment of a Fugitive Slave Law; and (4) that Utah and New 
Mexico should be organized as territories, without mention of slav- 
ery. This was effected under the leadership of Henry Clay, the 
" Pacificator." {b) The South. 

366. The Missouri Compromise prohibited slavery north of 36°, 
30', and the compromise of 1850 nullified it to the extent that the 
Mason and Dixon did not extend to the Pacific; and was the enter- 
ing wedge to its repeal. 

367. (a) A bill giving the United States officials the power to 
turn over a colored person in any Northern State to anybody who 
claimed the negro, upon presentation of testimony, as an escaped 
slave. This law was passed because the growing feeling against 
slavery made it difficult to recover a fugitive slave, (fc) It enraged 
the North so much that many persons joined the Abolitionists. The 
South hailed it with great joy. 

368. The party favoring the abolition of slavery in the United 
States. It was made up of Northern Democrats and 'Whigs. 

369. Laws passed securing a jury trial to every person seized as 
a fugitive slave. 

370. A religious sect favoring polygamy; settled in the Salt Lake 
Valley, Utah. 

37L The purchase of territory in dispute between Mexico and the 
United States, for which the United States paid ten million dollars. 

372. (a) The organization of the Territories of Kansas and Ne- 
braska with the question of slaver}' to be decided by the citizens 
thereof. These territories were north of the Missouri Compromise 
Line, and therefore they should become free territories. (b) 
Stephen Douglas. 

373. Nebraska was too far north to be involved in any dispute as 
to slavery. In Kansas, the adherents of the Abolitionists and of 
the South were hostile to each other in the contest to decide wheth- 
er the territory was to become slave or free. Blood was shed freely 
on both sides ; murder was rampant, property taken and destroyed. 
Civil war ensued. 

374. (a) Republicans (composed of Whigs, Abolitionists, Free 
Soilers, Northern Democrats and Know-Nothings) — composed of 
members of other parties whose candidate was John C. Fremont; 
the Democrats, whose candidate was James Buchanan. 

375. Buchanan, the Democratic nominee. 

376. The Dred Scott Decision was the opinion rendered by the 



306 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

United States Court that Dred Scott, formerly a slave, could not 
become free ; that Congress could not stop the carrying of slaves 
from one state or territory into another ; that in law a colored man 
was a thing, not a person. 

377. (a) It startled the North, (b) The Republican Party rap- 
idly gained recruits ; it made that party compact and it gave them 
an issue upon which to fight. It also tended to divide the Demo- 
cratic Party into the Northern and the Southern Democrats, and 
made possible the Republican success at the polls in 1860. 

378. John Brown, an old Kansas Abolitionist, with twenty-one 
companions, seized the arsenal at Harper's Ferry, Va., where he se- 
cured arms and ammunition with which he intended to liberate the 
slaves. After holding the arsenal for two days, he was overpow- 
ered by the troops, made a prisoner, and after trial, was executed 
with some others of his band. This raid and its result served fur- 
ther to inflame the North. 

379. The Constitution submitted to President Buchanan by the 
pro-slavery men of Kansas. 

380. The doctrine favored by Senator Douglas and a large por- 
tion of the Democrats that the people of the state should decide 
the question of slavery for themselves, and put into practice in the 
Kansas-Nebraska Bill of 1854. (See 372.) 

381. (a) Stephen Douglas, Northern Democrats. John C. Breck- 
inridge, Southern Democrats. Abraham Lincoln, Republican. 
John Bell, Constitutional, (fc) Abraham Lincoln. 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

382. (a) See 345. (b) The Whiskey Rebellion was the result of 
the tax laid on domestic liquors during Washington's term. The 
protective tariff of 1816 paid the expenses incurred by the War of 
1812. Protective tariffs were adopted in 1824, 1828 and 1832, the 
last leading to the threatened nullification and the secession of 
South Carolina. By Clay's compromise the tariff was gradually 
scaled down till in 1842 it became a revenue tariff, as desired by the 
South. 

383. (a and b) Hayne, Calhoun, (c) Stephen A. Douglas, (d) 
See 346, 380. (e) Daniel Webster. 

384. (a) An agreement for the settlement of a dispute or con- 
troversy by mutual concessions, involving a partial surrender of 
purposes or principles, (b) The compromises on the Constitution 
(see 292) ; Missouri Compromise, 1820 (see 336) ; compromises on 
the tariffs of 1828 and 1832 (see 345) ; Omnibus Bill or Compro- 
mise of 1850 (see 365) ; Kansas-Nebraska Bill (see 372). 

385. Federalists. Anti-Federalists. 

1787-1817. 1787-1789. 

(From 1817-1828 the party Democrats, 

lost its identity in that of Dem- 1789-1828. 

ocrats. ) 

National Republicans. 
1828-1836. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 307 

Whigs. Democrats. (a) Abolitionists. 

1836-1856. 1828-1856. (&) Free Soilers. 

(Made up of op- Northern and (1848.) 

ponents of Jackson Southern Groups (c) Know-Nothing. 
and of Democratic (1860). 1853-1857. 

party.) (d) Constitutional. 

1856-1860. 1860. 

386. In facilitating the separation of the fiber from the seed, it 
cheapened the cost of producing cotton. It quickened every branch 
of the cotton industry. Thousands of acres were now planted with 
cotton where only a few had been so used. The resulting increased 
demand for slaves led to the horrors in the slave trade. 

387. The population of the country at the time of the adoption 
of the Constitution was about four million and the center of popu- 
lation just east of Baltimore. The building of the Erie Canal made 
easier the transportation of goods and persons and increased the 
emigration to the West. The Revolutions of 1848 in Europe and 
the discovery of gold in California brought over a great number of 
very desirable immigrants who settled in the growing West. The 
East, too, had its number increased, so that the population of the 
country numbered almost thirty-two million in 1860, of whom 
about four million were slaves in the fifteen slave states. 

388. The cotton-gin by Eli Whitney (1803). 
The steamboat by Robert Fulton (1807). 

The telegraph by Samuel F. B. Morse (1844). 
The sewing-machine by Elias Howe (1845). 
The reaper by Cyrus H. McCormick (1834). 

389. (a) Louisiana Purchase, from the Mississippi River to the 
Rocky Mountains in the West and from the Gulf of Mexico to Can- 
ada on the north, out of which territory thirteen states with a com- 
bined area of a million square miles, have been formed (see 311). 
(&) Florida (see 332). (c) Texas annexed (see 353). (d) Ore- 
gon territory by exploration and treaty with England (four states 
formed from this territory). (See 311c; 354.) (e) California 
and New Mexico ceded by Mexico (see 360), out of which cession 
seven states have been formed. (/) Gladsden Purchase (see 371). 

390. (a) Revolutionary War, see 208-292. (b) War of 1812, see 
314-328. (c) War with Barbary Powers, see 312. (d) War with 
Mexico, see 355-360. 

391. (a) Webstei", prominent statesman and defender of the Union 
in the debates with Southern Senators ; United States Senator and 
Secretary of State; ardent opponent of State Rights and Nullifica- 
tion Doctrines, (b) Douglas, Democratic Senator from Illinois; 
champion of the doctrine of Squatter Sovereignty, (c) Jackson, 
President, 1828-1836; see 323, 332, 342-346. (d) Hayne, strong 
State's Rights advocate. See 346. (e) John Brown. See 378. 

392. Vermont, Georgia, Kentucky, Tennessee, Ohio, Louisiana, 
Indiana, Mississippi and IlHnois, Alabama, Maine, Missouri, Ar- 
kansas, Michigan, Florida, Texas, Iowa, Wisconsin, California, Min- 
nesota, Oregon. 



308 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

393. See 376. 

394. These debates between Lincoln and Douglas, the contest for 
the senatorship of Illinois, resulted in the re-election of Douglas 
and his ultimate defeat for the presidency ; it brought Lincoln be- 
fore the country as an available leader of the Abolitionists and re- 
sulted in his election in 1860. 

THE CIVIL WAR. 

395. See biography of Lincoln. 

396. William H. Seward, Secretary of State ; Edwin M. Stanton, 
Secretary of War ; Gideon M. Welles, Secretary of the Navy ; Sal- 
mon P. Chase, Secretary of the Treasury. 

397. South Carolina, followed by Mississippi, Florida, Alabama, 
Georgia, Louisiana and Texas, seceded from the Union and formed 
the Confederate States of America. 

398. (a) The withdrawal of the states from the Union, (b) Re- 
fused to permit supplies to be sent to Fort Sumter; seized most of 
the forts, arsenals, navy yards and public property within the se- 
ceding states ; and prepared to fight to maintain their Confederacy. 

399. (a) April 12, 1861. On the 21st of March the Cabinet 
decided to provision Fort Sumter, in Charleston harbor. The Con- 
federates, hearing of this, demanded the surrender of the fort. This 
was refused, and General Beauregard, the Confederate commander, 
bombarded the fort until its commander. Major Anderson, was 
compelled to capitulate, (b) It led to war. Lincoln issued a call 
for volunteers and more than seventy-five thousand responded. 
Congress was called in session for July 15. 

400. A Massachusetts regiment, on its march to Washington, was 
attacked by a mob of Secessionists in the streets of Baltimore, on 
the 19th of April. Three soldiers were killed and eight wounded. 
This was the first blood shed in the war. 

401. The people in western Virginia remained loyal and with the 
aid of McClellan drove out the few Confederates into Virginia. 
Richmond, the capital of the Confederacy, was goal. Under Gen. 
McDowell, a force advanced to capture the city. At Bull Run they 
attacked the Confederates under Beauregard and there suffered an 
utter rout. 

402. Capt. Lyon and Col. Sigel, a Union officer, defeated Gov- 
ernor Jackson at the head of the Confederates in Missouri in two 
successive battles. The Confederate General Price then captured 
Lexington after a stubborn defense by Colonel Mulligan and over- 
ran Missouri ; but he was finally forced into Arkansas by Generals 
Fremont and Halleck. Thus Missouri was saved to the Union. 

403. Two Southern Commissioners, Mason and Slidell, were sent 
to enlist the aid of England. They were on an English mail steam- 
er, the Trent, but an American naval officer boarded the boat and 
seized the emissaries. England became angry ; the United States 
immediately released the men, apologized and thus prevented fur- 
ther complications. 

404. (a) The opening of the Mississippi River; (b) the capture 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 309 

of Richmond; (c) the thorough blockade of the Southern coast; 
(d) the saving of Kentucky from Confederate control. 

405. The two strongholds, Fort Henry on the Tennessee and Fort 
Donelson on the Cumberland, were captured. 

406. Commodore Farragut captured New Orleans and ran up the 
Mississippi to Port Hudson. 

407. The evacuation of Columbus, Kentucky, by the Confederates ; 
the capture of Island No. 10; the capture of New Madrid, Mo., and 
the destruction of a Confederate fleet at Fort Pillow, leading to 
the ultimate capture of Memphis. 

408. The battle on the Chickahominy, Battle of Fair Oaks, the 
Seven Days' Lattles and ti.e invasion of Maryland by Lee, resulting 
in the Battles of Bull Run, South Mountain, Antietam and Freder- 
icksburg. 

409. (a) To invade Maryland and the North, (b) Antietam. 

410. The heavy defeat of the Unionists at Fredericksburg, De- 
cember 13, 1862. 

411. The opening of the Mississippi, excepting that portion be- 
tween Port Hudson and Vicksburg; the regaining of Tennessee and 
Kentucky; the defeat of Lee's first invasion of the North. 

412. The Emancipation Proclamation declared all slaves in 
those states or parts of those states then under the control of the 
Confederacy to be forever free. January 1, 1863. 

413. General Hooker, being disastrously defeated at Chancellors- 
ville, could not prevent Lee from crossing into the Shenandoah Val- 
ley, and thus entering Pennsylvania. The Union army, reinforced 
and commanded by General leade, followed and took position at 
Gettysburg, where it was attacked by the Confederates on July 1, 
2, 3. Lee was everywhere repulsed and on the 4th he recrossed the 
Potomac and was soon safe in Virginia. 

414. Because of the severe losses by the Confederates and the 
crippling of their forces ; the insured safety of the Northern states, 
and the continued successes by the Union troops. 

415. (a) Sherman, combining his forces with Porter's fleet, captured 
Arkansas Post. The two contesting armies then met at Port Gib- 
son, which battle was won by Grant. The defeat of Pemberton by 
Grant at Jackson followed, resulting in the shutting up of the Con- 
federates in Vicksburg. For two months the city held out against 
the siege; and on July 4th, one day after the success at Gettysburg, 
Grant secured the surrender of Vicksburg with the Confederate 
garrison of thirty thousand men. 

(b) The capture of Port Hudson soon followed and the Missis- 
sippi was open through its entire length. The Confederacy was cut 
into two. 

416. (a) He had won the battles of luka and Corinth; captured 
Murfreesboro, Tenn., from Bragg; and defeated him at Chicka- 
rnauga. Rosecrans then fell back to Chattanooga, where Bragg be- 
sieged him. (b) Generals Hooker and Sherman arrived with re- 
inforcements. 

417. The people in western Virginia were loyal to the Union and 



310 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

set up a separate state government. They applied for admission 
into the Union as a separate state and on adopting a satisfactory- 
constitution became a member of the Union. 

418. The defeat of the Southern army under Johnston, who lay 
between Chattanooga and Atlanta, while Grant, who had become 
Lieutenant-General and commander of all the Union forces in the 
fields, was to proceed against Lee who was protecting Richmond. 

419. (a) The capture of Atlanta in September, 1863. (b) Sher- 
man cut all communications with the North, and determined to live 
on the country. With his army in four columns he began the 
march. The line of march, to a width of forty miles, was left a 
waste. Meeting with little resistance, Sherman reached Savannah 
on the 21st of December, after capturing Fort McAlhster. 

420. In the battle of Nashville, where the Confederate army was 
destroyed by Generals Thomas and Schofield. 

421. Grant and Lee met in the Battles of the Wilderness, where 
the latter was compelled to fall back. The end of June found Lee 
in strong positions at Petersburg and Richmond. In the following 
year, Sheridan joined Grant and Lee tried to break through the 
Union lines, but was driven back with severe loss. Lee was again 
beaten at Five Forks and Petersburg was entered by the Union 
army and Richmond shortly after. Lee fled to combine with Johns- 
ton, and, after a number of disasters, surrendered to Grant at Ap- 
pomattox Courthouse, April 9, 1865. 

422. (a) Early attempted to invade the North by way of the 
Shenandoah Valley. Sheridan followed him and defeated him at 
Fisher's Hill and Winchester; and then laid waste the entire valley. 
(&) General Philip Sheridan. 

423. The battle of Mobile Bay. 

424. (a) The North early determined to prevent vessels from 
leaving or entering the Southern ports, thereby shutting off their sup- 
plies, military and otherwise. This resulted in a dearth of guns, 
powder, clothing and other needed things, (b) Any ship which 
ran past the war vessels stationed to blockade the coast, with sup- 
plies, or to take cotton, etc., to England. 

425. The Confederate soldiers were paroled; they were supplied 
with food, and allowed to keep their horses and side arms. 

426. Forrest, Longstreet, Pickett, A. S. Johnston and " Stone- 
wall " Jackson. 

427. Throughout the war the navy co-operated with the army 
wherever possible. The Mississippi River was opened through their 
co-operation ; the blockade was enforced and the seaports were 
closed by attacks by both army and navy. 

PERIOD OF UNITED NATIONAL GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT. 

428. As Lincoln was seated in a box in Ford's Theatre, he was 
assassinated by an actor, John Wilkes Booth, who escaped, but was 
shot on refusing to surrender when later surrounded. Lincoln lin- 
gered for a few hours, and died on the following day, April 15, 
1865. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 311 

429. (a) Andrew Johnson, (b) Democrat. 

430. A civil war also broke out in Mexico at the same time as 
our own Civil War, the rebels being aided by France, Great Brit- 
ain and Spain. Mexico owed some money to these countries, and 
a combined army was sent over to seize the seaports. Great Britain 
and Spain very shortly after withdrew when they saw that Napoleon 
of France had designs on the territory. As soon as peace was de- 
clared, General Sheridan, at the head of an army of fifty thousand, 
marched to the Rio Grande. Our country protested this violation 
of the Monroe Doctrine, and France withdrew her army, leaving 
Maximilian of Austria, who had been set up as the Emperor of 
Mexico, to be captured by the Mexicans and put to death. 

431. Congress said that the Southern States had destroyed them- 
selves and were only territories to be admitted by vote of Congress. 
Lincoln and his successor maintained that since they could not se- 
cede they had not destroyed themselves. They were still members 
of the Union, and could exercise all the functions guaranteed them 
by the Constitution as soon as they had complied with the require- 
ments of the President's orders. 

432. (a) The return of the seceded states to the privileges given 
them by the Constitution and the organization of a state govern- 
ment, (b) (1) The President's proclamations of amnesty; (2) 
the adoption of the XIII Amendment; (3) Freedmen's Aid Bureau 
established; (4) the passage of the XIV Amendment; (5) the 
passage of the XV Amendment. 

433. Some of the former Confederate States had enacted laws on 
" vagrancy " and " labor contracts " which made the blacks prac- 
tically subject to the whites and led Congress to believe that the 
negroes would again be enslaved. 

434. (a) The differences in the views as to the status of the 
Southern States (see 431) was t.-z opening wedge. Johnson de- 
clared that the seceded states could again be entitled to representa- 
tion in Congress (1) on repudiating the ordinance of secession; 
(2) repudiating their war debt; (3) by accepting the 13th Amend- 
ment. Congress added the ratification of the 14th Amendment as 
an additional measure of assurance. Those states that refused these 
terms were placed under military governors. In April, 1867, John- 
son removed Secretary of War Stanton and appointed General 
Grant to that office. Congress declared that the President had no 
power to remove Stanton and refused to confirm Grant's appoint- 
ment. Johnson, thereupon, nominated Gen. Thomas in his stead. 
The Senate notified Johnson that this was in violation of the Ten- 
ure of Office Law and of the Constitution, (b) The House of 
Representatives thereupon impeached the President. The trial was 
long ; but the President escaped impeachment by one vote. 

435. A law passed declaring that the President could not remove 
any appointive officer without the consent of the Senate. 

436. A bill ordering the sale of government land to negroes on 
easy terms and giving them military protection for their rights. 

437. To recognize as citizens all persons born or naturalized in 



312 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

the United States ; to prohibit the states from abridging their privi- 
leges ; to make valid the public debt incurred in putting down the 
Rebellion ; and to invalidate the debts incurred by the rebellious 
states. 

438. Russia, October, 1867, for seven millions of dollars by Sec- 
retary Seward. 

439. (a) General Grant. (&) 1869-1877. 

440. The Tribunal of Arbitration composed of arbitrators appoint- 
ed by the heads of Italy, Switzerland, Brazil, Great Britain and the 
United States, met in Geneva, Switzerland, and adjudicated the 
northwestern boundary question and the fisheries disputes. The former 
question was settled to the satisfaction of our country, while in the 
latter case we were to pay almost a half million dollars annually 
for the privilege of fishing in Newfoundland waters. In addition 
the Alabama question was taken up. 

441. The Alabama was a vessel built and fitted out as a cruiser 
in England and purchased by the Confederates. This vessel preyed 
on American ships. The United States demanded satisfaction and 
after a long trial, the Tribunal of Arbitration (see 440) awarded 
the sum of $15,500,000 in gold for damages sustained from this 

■and other Confederate vessels fitted out in British waters. 

442. Philadelphia, 1876. 

443. The right of the negro to vote. 

444. (a) The vote for president was a very close one and gave 
rise to serious disputes, both Republicans and Democrats claiming 
the election of their nominee. The dispute grew so bitter that it 
almost threatened another civil war. (b) It was finally decided to 
refer the entire question to a commission consisting of five Senators 
and five Representatives, together with five Supreme Court Jus- 
tices. Their decision was rendered on March 2, 1877, in favor of 
the Republican nominee, Rutherford B. Hayes, who took the oath 
of office on the following day. 

445. (a) During the Civil War and after, owing to the limited 
amount of gold and silver coins, the government issued " paper 
money " or " greenbacks," as they were called, and paid in this in- 
stead of in coin. These were freely used by the people as they 
were made " legal tender." Gold, however, was the standard of 
value, and at times the difference was great. On January 1, 1879, 
the difference was nothing, and the banks again resumed paying out 
specie or coin as well as bills or greenbacks, (b) The coinage of 
the silver dollar stopped in 1873 (" Crime of 1873 ") ; the limited 
coinage of silver into dollars resumed in 1878; Grant's veto of a 
bill to issue $50,000,000 in greenbacks ; the fractional currency 
known as " shinplasters " withdrawn and silver dimes, quarters 
and half-dollars again issued ; national bank system organized. 

446. (a) The immigration of Orientals to our western coast had 
increased to an alarming extent. These newcomers worked for 
small wages and thus deprived American workmen of employment, 
except at "starvation wages." (b) A hue and cry was raised that 
the government was finally compelled to negotiate a treaty with 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 313 

China which checked the emigration of the Chinese to our shores. 

447. (a) James A. Garfield. (&) Six months, (c) Vice-Presi- 
dent Chester A. Arthur. 

448. The questions of the Civil War and Reconstruction were dis- 
carded and the questions of revenue, government expenditures, cur- 
rency, trusts and protective tariff and civil service reform were the 
features of the campaign. 

449. The deaths of Grant and Sherman; the cheapening of domes- 
tic postal rates ; the adoption of the " Presidential Succession Bill " ; 
the labor troubles and federal interference; the passage of the In- 
terstate Commerce Act; and the settlement of the Fisheries Dispute. 

450. The tariff was the chief question at issue. The Democrats 
favored a reduction of the high tariff so as to bring income nearer 
to the actual expenditures, while the Republicans favored the con- 
tinued high tariff policy so as to protect American industries. 

451. In the building of the canal across the Isthmus of Panama, 
when De Lesseps appealed to France for aid. 

452. In 1883, Congress passed the Civil Service Act which vested 
in the President the appointment of commissioners, under whose 
direction examinations have been held to test the fitness of appli- 
cants for public service. 

453. President Harrison, by authority of Congress, invited the 
nations of America to meet at Washington for the purpose of de- 
ciding as to the best means of preserving the peace and promoting 
the prosperity of the several American States. Eighteen nations 
were represented and meetings were held from October, 1889, to 
April, i890. Various measures were introduced and adopted tend- 
ing toward the betterment of the Pan-American relations. 

454. Two American sailors were killed and several wounded in 
the streets of Valparaiso while the U. S. S. Baltimore was in the 
harbor, as a sign of the dissatisfaction with the United States in 
not favoring the revolutionists in Chile. War was imminent, but 
full reparation was made. Expressions of regret and an indemnity 
of $75,000 was paid to the families of the dead and wounded. 

455. (a) The question of the high protective tariff, known as the 
"McKinley" Bill, (b) The election of Grover Cleveland, nominee 
of the Democrats, who favored the reduction of the duties. 

456. The wholesale shooting of seals in the Bering Sea by the Brit- 
ish seal catchers threatened the destruction of the seal industry in 
that region and the consequent loss of millions of dollars to the 
American interests. Repeated complaints by our government finally 
brought about the arbitration of this matter. The decision was in 
favor of the American position to restrict the killing of seals in 
certain regions and during fixed seasons, and forbidding the use of 
fire-arms in sealing. 

457. To repeal the silver purchase law, which was said to be the 
cause of the panic occurring during that year. To provide remedial 
legislation in the form of a lower tariff, and an income tax, subse- 
quently declared unconstitutional. 

458. A dispute arose between Venezuela and Great Britain on ac- 



314 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

count of the boundary between British Guiana and the former coun- 
try, due to the recent discovery of gold in the disputed territory. 
The United States applied the Monroe Doctrine and after some 
communication between Great Britain and our government, the 
question was settled by arbitration, as proposed by the President. 
The Monroe Doctrine was again emphasized as a leading principle 
in our governmental relations with the rest of the world. 

459. Intervention in Cuba ; war with Spain ; the settlement of our 
finances on a gold basis ; the annexation of Hawaii ; intervention 
with European powers in the disorders in China. 

460. While the Maine was in the harbor of Havana whither it 
had been sent as a protest against the cruelties of the Cuban War, 
the battleship was blown up on the night of February 15th, 1898. 
A court of inquiry was unable to iix the responsibility for this ex- 
plosion ; but many believed it to have been perpetrated by Span- 
iards. This caused a cessation of diplomatic relations, leading soon 
after to a declaration of war, 

461. (a) Battle of Manila Bay — Admiral Dewey. 

(b) Capture of the Philippines — Admiral Dewey and Gen- 

eral Merritt 

(c) Battle of Santiago Bay — Admiral Sampson and Com- 

modore Schley. 

(d) Capture of Santiago — Gen. Shafter. 

(e) Capture of Porto Rico — Gen. Miles. 

462. (a) April 19, 1898, to April 11, 1899. (b) Spain was to re- 
linquish her claim to Cuba ; to cede Porto Rico and other Spanish 
islands in the West Indies, Guam and the Philippines, to the United 
States; the United States was to pay $20,000,000 to Spain for the 
loss of her territory. 

463. An amendment to the Cuban Constitution forbidding her to 
give or sell any of her territory to a foreign power ; to keep within a 
limited debt; to permit the United States to intervene in case of 
rebellion or a threatened foreign war; and to sell or lease to the 
United States land for a coaling station. 

464. (a) While visiting the Pan-American Exposition at Buffalo, 
N. Y., President McKinley was shot by an anarchist, and died five 
days later, (b) Vice-President Roosevelt, (c) Senator Frye of 
Maine, President pro tern of the Senate. 

465. That the United States has the power to acquire territory ; 
that Congress may make all the laws those territories require; that 
the " Constitution does not follow the flag," and, therefore, laws re- 
lating to the tariff, immigration or other subjects in the United 
States proper do not extend of themselves to the insular possessions 
of our country. 

466. A conference of delegates from all the great powers held at 
The Hague at the suggestion of the Czar of Russia to discuss the 
subject of the arbitration of disputes by the Arbitration Tribunal. 

467. The holding of the Charleston, St. Louis and Jamestown Ex- 
positions ; the formation of the Northern Securities Company ; the 
pacification of the Philippines; the visit of Prince Henry of Ger- 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 315 

many ; the beginning of the rebuilding of the Panama Canal ; the 
prosecution of the trusts ; the signing of the treaty of peace between 
Russia and Japan at Portsmouth. 

468. A French company had begun the building of the canal across 
the Isthmus of Panama ; but failed through bad management. The 
President was authorized to purchase the title and property from 
the Company for forty million dollars (1902). Through revolu- 
tion the province of Panama established an independent govern- 
ment which was recognized by the United States. A treaty was 
soon made and Panama ceded a ten-mile strip across the Isthmus. 
Work was begun and several millions of dollars have since been ex- 
pended on the work. More has been accomplished during the few 
years of American possession than during the whole -neriod of own- 
ership by the French Company. 

469. (a) A trust is a combination of industrial organizations for 
the purpose of monopolizing that industry and destroying competi- 
tion. (&) That the Northern Securities Company, a holding cor- 
poration for parallel railroad lines, was a combination in restraint 
of trade. That illegal combinations had no standing in law and 
could recover no satisfaction. 

470. To revise the " Dingley " tariff. 

SUMMARY AND REVIEW. 

471. Kansas (1861); West Virginia (1863); Nevada (1864); 
Nebraska (1867); Colorado (1876); North and South Dakota 
(1889); Montana (1889); Washington (1889); Idaho (1890); 

Wyoming (1890); Utah (1896); Oklahoma (1908). 

472. The building of railroads ; the discovery of precious and im- 
portant metals ; the increase of population as a result ; the wonder- 
ful crops of grains raised in the western prairie states. 

473. Secret societies of the white Southern property owners whose 
object was to punish the "carpetbaggers" and negroes for plunder- 
ing the state and to prevent them from voting. 

474. A swarm of Northern politicians of the Republican party 
who went South and dominated politics in the South. They secured 
the aid of the negroes by persuading them that their former masters 
were planning to put them back into slavery. 

475. (a) The national debt consisted of bonded and unbonded in- 
debtedness at the end of the war. (6) Congress ordered the stop- 
ping of payment of debt in 1868. (c) In 1870, refunded the debt 
at a lower rate, (d) In 1873, the free coinage of silver vi^as stopped. 
(Crime of 1873.) (e) In 1879, the United States resumed payment 
of specie. (/) In 1878, silver was made legal tender and the coin- 
age of a limited amount of silver was resumed. 

476. The Union Pacific, the Southern Pacific and the Northern 
Pacific. 

477. (a) Enormously increased debt; (&) issuance of bonds and 
greenbacks; (c) the creation of the national banking system; (d) 
the depopulation of the South; (e) the liberation of the negro 
slaves; (f) the industrial revolution of the South. 



316 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

478. In 1893, as a result of the revolution in the Hawaiian Is- 
lands, a republican form of government was set up provisionally. A 
treaty of annexation to the United States was negotiated, but the 
Senate failed to ratify it because of American intervention. In 1898, 
after seeking annexation for five years, Hawaii was made a terri- 
tory of the United States by joint resolution of Congress. 

OFFICERS OF THE UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT 
AND THEIR SALARIES. 

President, $75,000 

Vice-President, 12,000 

Cabinet members, 12,000 

Senators, *7,50O 

Speaker of House of Representatives, * 12,000 

Members of House of Representatives, *7,500 

Chief Justice, Supreme Court, 13,500 

Associate Justice, Supreme Court, 12.500 

Lieutenant-General, 11,000 

Major-General, 8,000 

Brigadier-General, 6,000 

Colonel, 4,000 

Lieutenant-Colonel, 3,500 

Major, 3,000 

Captain, 2,400 

First Lieutenant, 2,000 

Second Lieutenant, 1,700 

Admiral, 13,500 

Rear-Admirals (first nine) , 8,000 

Rear-Admirals (second nine) , 6,000 

Captains, '. 4,000 

Commanders, 3,500 

Lieutenant-Commanders, 3,(K)0 

Lieutenants, 2,400 

Lieutenants (Junior Grade), 2,000 

Ensigns, 1,700 

Midshipmen (at Naval Academy), 600 

Midshipmen (after graduation), 1,400 

Judges Circuit Courts 9,()00 

Chief Justice, United States Court of Claims, 6,500 

Associate Judges, 6,000 

THE UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT. 

President, William H. Taft 

Vice-President, James S. Sherman 

Secretary of State, Philander C. Knox 

Secretary of the Treasury, Franklin MacVeagh 

Secretary of War, Jacob M. Dickinson 

*Plus 20c per mile for traveling expenses to and from the cap- 
ital. 



ANSWERS IN AMERICAN HISTORY. 317 

Attorney-General, Geo. W. Wickersham 

Postmaster-General, Frank H. Hitchcock 

Secretary of the Navy, George Von L. Meyer 

Secretary of the Interior, Walter L. Fisher 

Secretary of Agriculture, James Wilson 

Secretary of Commerce and Labor, Charles Nagel 

President, Protem of the Senate, William P. Frye 

Speaker of the House of Representatives, Champ Clark 

PRESIDENTS OF THE UNITED STATES. 

1. George Washington, Virginia, 1789 Fed. 

2. John Adams, Massachusetts, 1797 Fed. 

3. Thomas Jefferson, Virginia, 1801 Rep. 

4. James Madison, Virginia, 1809 Rep. 

5. James Monroe, Virginia, 1817 Rep. 

6. John Quincy Adams, Massachusetts, 1825 Rep. 

7. Andrew Jackson, Tennessee, 1829 Dem. 

8. Martin Van Buren. New York, 1837 Dem. 

9. William H. Harrison, Ohio, 1841 Whig 

10. John Tyler, Virginia, 1841 Dem. 

11. James K. Polk, Tennessee, 1845 Dem. 

12. Zachary Taylor, Louisiana, 1849 Whig 

13. Millard Fillmore, New York, 1850 Whig 

14. Franklin Pierce, New Hampshire, 1853 Dem. 

15. James Buchanan, Pennsylvania, 1857 Dem. 

16. Abraham Lincoln, Illinois, 1861 Rep. 

17. Andrew Johnson, Tennessee, 1865 Rep. 

18. Ulysses S. Grant, District of Columbia, 1869 Rep. 

19. Rutherford B. Hayes, Ohio, 1877 Rep. 

20. James A. Garfield, Ohio, 1881 Rep. 

21. Chester A. Arthur, New York, 1881 Rep. 

22. Grover Cleveland. New York, 1885 Dem. 

23. Benjamin Harrison, Indiana 1889 Rep. 

24. Grover Cleveland, New York, 1893 Dem. 

25. William McKinley, Ohio 1897 Rep. 

26. Theodore Roosevelt, New York 1901 Rep. 

27. William H. Taft, Ohio, 1909 Rep. 

VICE-PRESIDENTS OF THE UNITED STATES. 

1. John Adams, Massachusetts, 1789 Fed. 

2. Thomas Jefferson, Virginia, 1797 Rep. 

3. Aaron Burr, New York, 1801 Rep. 

4. George Clinton, New York, 1805 Rep. 

5. Elbridge Gerry, Massachusetts, 1813 Rep. 

6. Daniel D. Tompkins, New York, 1817 Rep. 

7. John C. Calhoun, South Carolina, 1825 Rep. 

8. Martin Van Buren, New York, 1833 Dem. 

9. Richard M. Johnson, Kentucky, 1837 Dem. 

10. John Tyler, Virginia, 1841 Dem. 

11. George M. Dallas, Pennsylvania, 1845 Dem. 



318 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

12. Millard Fillmore, New York, 1849 Whig 

13. William R. King, Alabama, 1853 Dem. 

14. John C. Breckinridge, Kentucky, 1857 Dem. 

15. Hannibal Hamlin, Maine, 1861 Rep. 

16. Andrew Johnson, Tennessee, 1865 Rep. 

17. Schuyler Colfax, Indiana, 1869 Rep. 

18. Henry Wilson, Massachusetts, 1873 Rep. 

19. William A. Wheeler, New York, 1877 Rep. 

20. Chester A. Arthur, New York, 1881 Rep. 

21. Thos. A. Hendricks, Indiana, 1885 Dem. 

22. Levi P. Morton, New York, 1889 Rep. 

23. Adlai E. Stevenson, Illinois, 1893 Dem. 

24. Garret A. Hobart, New Jersey, 1897 Rep. 

25. Theodore Roosevelt, New York, 1901 Rep. 

26. Charles W. Fairbanks, Indiana, 1905 Rep. 

27. James S. Sherman, New York, 1909 Rep. 



CHAPTER VII. 

QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND 
RHETORIC 

COMPOSITION. 

1. Define rhetoric. 

2. (a) What is the relation of rhetoric to grammar? 
(&) to composition? 

3. What is composition? 

4. Make a list of five subjects that are suitable for com- 
position work. 

5. (o) What is meant by a title? (b) Of what im- 
portance is the title of a composition? 

6. (a) Name some of the requisites of a good title. 
(b) State the general rules for the writing of titles. 

7. Criticise the following titles, and rewrite them in the 
correct form: 

(a) It is a question for consideration whether Mem- 
bers of the House of Commons of the English Parliament 
should not receive a remuneration for their services. 

(b) Knowledge of arithmetic, algebra and the other 
branches of mathematics and also of history are essential 
qualifications for a man that would call himself educated. 

(c) Decoration in a school are of great value as an aid 
in inculcating a taste for the beautiful and artistic. 

8. State why a topical outline is of value in composi- 
tion work. 

9. What are the essential qualities of an outline? 

10. Make an outline for " The Angler's Cottage." 

11. Expand the outline into a composition. 
Make an outline of the following : 

12. Description of a Portrait. 

13. How to Swim. 

14. Briefly state what are the chief aims in the sen- 
tences of a composition. 

319 



320 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

15. What is the importance of paragraph structure in 
a composition? 

16. State the thought in each of the following para- 
graphs : 

(a) Many years ago, an old Scotch woman sat alone, 
spinning by the kitchen fire, in her little cottage. The 
room was adorned with the spoils of the chase, and many 
implements of war and hunting. There were spears, bows 
and arrows, swords and shields, and, against the side of 
the room, hung a pair of huge antlers, once reared on the 
lordly brow of a " stag of ten," on which were sus- 
pended skins, plaids, bonnets and one or two ponderous 
battle-axes. 

(b) The table, in the middle of the floor, was spread 
for supper, and some oatmeal cakes were baking before 
the fire. But the dame was not thinking of any of these 
things, nor of her two manly sons, who, in an adjoining 
room, were busily preparing for the next day's sport. 

(c) She was thinking of the distracted state of her na- 
tive land, and of the good king, Robert Bruce, a fugitive 
in his own kingdom, beset, on every hand, by open en- 
emies and secret traitors. "Alas ! " thought she, " tonight 
I dwell here in peace, while tomorrow may see me driv- 
en out into the heath ; and even now our king is a wander- 
er, with no shelter for his weary limbs." 

17. Divide the following into paragraphs, and give the 
principal thought in each paragraph : 

Captain John Hull was the mint-master of Massa- 
chusetts, and coined all the money that was made there. 
This was a new line of business ; for, in the earlier days of 
the colony, the current coinage consisted of gold and 
silver money of England, Portugal, and Spain. These 
coins being scarce, the people were often forced to bar- 
ter their commodities, instead of selling them. For 
instance, if a man wanted to buy a coat, he, perhaps, ex- 
changed a bear-skin for it. If he wished for a barrel of 
molasses, he might purchase it with a pile of pine-boards. 
Musket-bullets were used instead of farthings. The In- 
dians had a sort of money, called wampum, which was 
made of clam-shells ; and this strange sort of specie was, 



QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 321 

likewise, taken in payment of debts, by the English set- 
tlers. Bank-bills had never been heard of. There was 
not money enough of any kind, in many parts of the 
country, to pay the salaries of the ministers ; so that they 
sometimes had to take quintals of fish, bushels of corn, or 
cords of wood, instead of silver or gold. 

18. Write a paragraph on one of the following : " The 
Monroe Doctrine," the " Discovery of America," or " The 
Value of Geography as a School Subject." 

19. Why is a good vocabulary necessarily an important 
qualification in a writer? 

20. Enumerate the different ways of increasing your 
vocabulary. 

21. What is meant by style? 

22. Explain what is meant by good use in words. 

23. Mention some of the classes of words that are not 
considered in good use. 

24. (a) What is meant by literary English? (&) by 
colloquial English? {c) by vulgar English? 

25. What is the difference between (a) a barbarism and 
(&) a solecism? 

26. State what are the standards of good use. 

27. What is meant by a synonym? 

28. Mention the value of synonyms. 

29. Show when shall and ivill are properly used. 

30. How are should and would to be used? 

31. Insert the proper words in the following sentences: 

(a) Tom says he go. 

(b) we go tomorrow? 

(c) I drown if nobody save me. 

(d) We find him much improved if his friends 

not influence his actions to siich an extent. 

(e) Were he to make the effort, he do as well as 

his neighbors. 

(f) that the meeting had adjourned. 

32. Define redundancy. 

33. Define tautology. 

34. Define pleonasm. 

35. What is meant by verbosity? 

36. Define circumlocution. 



322 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

37. What is meant by prolixity? 

38. When is it permissible to violate the rule relating 
to barbarisms and solecisms? 

39. State briefly when short sentences should be used. 

40. What are the advantages of long sentences? 

41. Define (a) loose sentence; (&) periodic sentence. 

42. (a) State the advantages of loose sentences, (b) 
what are the disadvantages of a constant use of the loose 
sentence ? 

43. (a) When should periodic sentences be used? (b) 
What are the disadvantages of periodic sentences when 
used too often? 

44. What is a balanced sentence? 

45. Illustrate and show their advantage. 

46. Consolidate the following short sentences into a 
long sentence : 

(a) Novels, as a class, are injurious to young people. 
They destroy the taste for solid reading. They culti- 
vate the taste for books of the day, and for the preponder- 
ance of the emotional. They convey false impressions and 
ideas of life. 

(b) A man crossed the river. With him was his fa- 
vorite dog. They were going on a hunt. The man car- 
ried his gun. He also had a bag. 

47. (o) What is meant by perspicuity or clearness? (&) 
How may this be secured in a sentence? 

48. (a) Define precision, (b) Show how this may be 
secured in a sentence. 

49. Construct a long sentence. 

50. Construct a short sentence. 

51. Give an example of a periodic sentence. 

52. Give an example of a loose sentence. 

53. Write two balanced sentences. 

54. What are the essentials of a good sentence? 

55. State what you understand by incorrect English. 

56. What is the connection between unity and good 
form in a sentence? 

57. (a) What is unity in a sentence? (6) How is unity; 
in thought accomplished? 



QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 323 

58. Rewrite the following so as to have unity in 
thought : 

(a) The automobile has been used for six months and 
cost almost ten thousand dollars. 

(b) He began to read the book as the train started, and 
by the time we reached our destination the weather had 
cleared. 

(c) I was devotedly fond of hunting and accepted my 
friend's invitation, and my packing finished I left on an 
early train. 

59. Show how unity in form may be accomplished. 
Rewrite the following sentences : 

(a) There are several hundred figures on the front of 
the church and the steeples are of unequal height. 

(b) People have the most disagreeable habit of staring 
at me with this hat. 

(c) About the only thing I did of importance was going 
to town last week. 

60. What is meant by force? 

61. Tell how force may be secured. 

62. What is the importance of (a) emphasis ; (b) anti- 
thesis ; (c) climax to secure force? 

63. (a) What is ease in a sentence? (b) What is the 
importance of ease? 

64. State the different ways in which ease may be se- 
cured. 

65. What qualities are more important in a sentence 
than ease? 

66. The following paragraph violates the rules of cor- 
rectness, unity, force and ease. Rewrite correctly: 

The Athenian youth were full of foolish ambition and 
were astounded at the high honors and glory of the three 
Greek heroes, Themistocles, Cimon and Pericles, after 
they had received some lessons from the sophist teachers, 
by whom they were promised to become great and respect- 
ed citizens, that they believed themselves capable of do- 
ing everything possible, and so desired to fill the high 
places. One of the youth by name of Glaucon, firmly be- 
lieved that he had a peculiar genius for political matters 
although he had not reached his majority, so that no one 



324 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

in his family or of his friends had the power to divert him 
from the idea so slightly becoming his age and capacity. 

67. (a) What is a paragraph? (b) State the important 
essentials in a good, well-written paragraph. 

68. What is meant by the topic sentence? 

69. What are some effective means ways of construct- 
ing a paragraph? 

70. Write the topic sentences in the following para- 
graph : 

For an hour or more we watched, from the deck of 
the steamer, the lonely light upon the Monitor's turret ; a 
hundred times we thought it gone forever, — a hundred 
times it reappeared, till, at last, about two o'clock, Wednes- 
day morning, December 31st, it sank, and we saw it no 
more. An actor in the scenes of that wild night, when the 
Monitor went down, relates the story of her last cruise. 
Her work is now over. She lies a hundred fathoms deep 
under the stormy waters off Cape Hatteras; but she has 
made herself a name, which will not soon be forgotten by 
the American people. 

71. How may ease in transition from paragraph to 
paragraph be secured? 

72. Name the essentials of a good composition. 

73. Into what three divisions may any composition be 
divided? 

74. What is the purpose of the introduction? 

75. What should be the nature of the body of discus- 
sion? 

76. Of what importance is the conclusion? 

77. Make an outline of a composition on (a) How to 
Swim, (b) Description of a Portrait. 

78. Mention the different kinds and forms of composi- 
tion. 

79. Define description. 

80. Define narration. 

81. Define exposition. 

82. Define argumentation. 

83. Write some important rules to follow in writing a 
description. 

84. What is the aim in a narrative? 



QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 325 

85. State the importance of the plot in a narrative. 

86. What is the importance of the characters in nar- 
ration ? 

87. How far should description enter into a narration? 

88. Name the requirements of a good exposition. 

89. Of what importance is the proof in argumentation? 

90. Name the different ways of enforcing and strength- 
ening your proof. 

91. State some rules of composition that will especially 
aid in the securing of your aim in argumentation. 

92. Compose a business letter, answering the advertise- 
ment printed below : 

YOUNG MAN.— Wanted, young man, 18 to 20, to 
make himself generally useful ; salary moderate to start. 
E. 147 Times, Times Square. 

93. Write a letter to a friend, asking him to spend the 
week-end with you. 

94. Write a formal letter of introduction for a friend 
who is removing to another city. 

95. Write a formal invitation for a dance. 

96. In what particular will that formal invitation differ 
from the one written in. 

97. Give a specimen of a description of a person. 

98. Give a specimen of a description of a place. 

99. Give a specimen narrative. 

100. Give a specimen of an argumentative selection. 

FIGURES OF SPEECH. 

101. What is meant by a figure of speech? Illustrate. 

102. Name the figures based on resemblance or simi- 
larity. 

103. Define simile and illustrate. 

104. What is metaphor? Give an example. 

105. Define and give an example of a mixed metaphor. 

106. Of what importance are metaphor and simile? 

107. (a) What is meant by personification? (b) Give 
an example of personification. 

108. What is an allegory? 

109. Define antithesis. 

110. Define metonymy. Illustrate. 

111. What is synechdoche? Give an illustrat* jn. 



326 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

112. What is hyperbole? Exemplify. 

113. What is meant by epigram? Illustrate. 

114. State the importance of climax and anticlimax as 
figures of speech. 

115. Give a definition and an example of irony. 

116. What is vision? Illustrate. 

117. Define parable. 

118. What is a fable? 

119. Define interrogation. Illustrate. 

120. What is exclamation? Illustrate. 

121. Explain alliteration. 

122. Explain what is meant by onomatopeia. 

123. Show what is meant by pleonasm. 

Point out the figures of speech in the following: 

124. Henry went over to the nation ; Mr. Lincoln has 
steadily drawn the nation over to him. One left a 
united France; the other, we hope and believe, a re- 
united America. Loivell. 

125. Gavest thou the goodly wings unto the peacocks? 
or wings and feathers unto the ostrich? Job XXXIX. 13. 

126. Let not Ambition mock their useful toil, 
Their homely joys, and destiny obscure ; 
Nor Grandeur hear with a disdainful smile 

The short and simple annals of the poor. Gray. 

127. Weariness 

Can snore upon the flint, when resty sloth 
Finds the down-pillow hard. Shakespeare, 

128. " But, Mr. Speaker, we have a right to ta^ 
America." Oh, inestimable right ! Oh, wonderful, trans- 
cendent right ! the assertion of which has cost this countr)'" 
thirteen provinces, six islands, one hundred thousand lives, 
and seventy millions of money. Burke, 

129. Lee marched over the mountain wall, — 
Over the mountains winding down, 

Horse and foot, into Frederick town. Whittier 

130. There was a sound of revelry by night, 
And Belgium's capital had gathered then 
Her beauty and her chivalry, and bright 



QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 327 

The lamps shone o'er fair women and brave men. 

Byron. 

131. This makes the character complete. Whatsoever 
things are false, whatsoever things are dishonest, what- 
soever things are unjust, whatsoever things are impure, 
whatsoever things are hateful, whatsoever things are 
of evil report — if there be any vice, and if there be any 
infamy, all these things we know were blended in Barere. 

Macaulay. 

132. Who steals my purse, steals trash. Shakespeare. 

133. They are poor 

That have lost nothing; they are poorer far 
Who, losing, have forgotten : they most poor 
Of all, who lose and wish they might forget. 

Jean Ingelow. 

134. Read from some humbler poet, 

Whose songs gushed from his heart, 
As showers from the clouds of summer, 
Or tears from the eyelids start. 

Longfellozv. 

135. I have you fast in my fortress. 

And will not let you depart, 
But put you down into the dungeons 
In the round tower of my heart. 

From Longfellow's " The Children's Hour." 

POETIC FORMS. 

136. What are the principal differences between prose 
and poetry? 

137. Name the different kinds of poetry. 

138. Define didactic poetry. 

139. Define lyric poetry 

140. Define epic poetry. 

141. Define satire. 

142. Define pastoral poetry. 

143. Define the elegy. 

144. Define the drama. 

Classify the following poems : 

145. (a) English Bards and Scotch Reviewers ; (&) The 
Day is Done; (c) The Harp That Once Through Tara's 



328 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK, 

Hall; (d) The Iliad; (e) Arcadia; (/) Elegy in a Coun- 
try Churchyard; (g) The Ring. 

146. Define (a) verse; (b) accent. 

147. (a) What is versification? (b) Upon what does it 
depend? 

148. Explain what is meant by rhyme. 

149. Explain what meant by blank verse. 

150. Define rhythm. 

151. Explain (a) meter; (b) feet; (c) scansion in poetry. 

152. Define a trochee and illustrate. 

153. What is an iambus? 

154. What is a dactyl? Illustrate. 

155. Show what is meant by an anapest. 

156. (a) What is meant by a tetrameter? 

(b) Show what a pentameter is, and illustrate. 

157. Illustrate what a hexameter is. 

158. Define elision. 

159. What is a stanza? 

160. Illustrate what is meant by a couplet. 

161. Illustrate what a triplet is. 

162. Show what a quatrain is. 

163. Explain what is meant by a caesura. 

164. What is the difference between the Chaucerian and 
Spenserian stanzas? 

PUNCTUATION. 

165. (a) What is the connection of punctuation with 
rhetoric and composition? (b) Name the principal punc- 
tuation marks. 

166. State when the period should be used. 

167. Punctuate the following sentences: 

(a) Richard I was called the Lion Hearted 

(b) Rev means Reverend 

(c) You have done what was right 

(d) He has the degrees M S and Ph D 

168. When should the semicolon be used? 

169. State when the colon should be used and illustrate. 

170. Insert semicolons and colons where necessary in 
the following: 

(a) Dear Sir I have your favor of the 7th, etc. 



QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 329 

(b) But O'Connor was Clay, Choate, Everett and Web- 
ster in one. Before the courts, logic at the bar of the 
Senate, and unanswerable on the platform, grace, wit and 
pathos before the masses, a whole man. 

(c) He brought the following with him a coat, a pair 
of shoes and half a dozen shirts. 

171. Tell when the comma should be used. 

172. Explain why commas are used in the following 
sentences : 

(a) Jack, where have you been? 

(b) Lafayette, the friend of Washington, and America 
was received as the nation's guest. 

(c) Carthage has crossed the Alps; Rome, the sea. 

(d) That man, who proved to be the inventor himself, 
was in possession of the missing papers and designs. 

(e) If they find you here, they will certainly arrest you. 

(f) The sea carried men, spars, casks, planks, bulwarks, 
heaps of such toys, into the boiling sea. 

(g) He has, however, promised, to make full restitu- 
tion. 

(h) Sink or swim, live or die, survive or perish, I give, 
etc. 

173. Insert commas in the following sentences : 

(a) The grocer sells apples pears bananas beside the 
regular groceries. 

(b) Mother how have you felt this day? 

(c) Wearied by his London life Irving started on a 
Continental tour. 

(d) I think also that his strength of character, etc. 

(e) The men women and children rushed to the deck. 
(/) James S. Lane Ph. D. vfill give a talk on "The 

Tempest " a play by Shakespeare. 

174. Indicate the use of (a) the question mark; (b) 
the exclamation mark ; (c) the dash. 

175. What is the importance of the parenthesis and 
the brackets? 

176. When should (a) the hyphen, (b) the apostrophe 
be used? 

177. Give the rules for the use of the quotation marks. 



330 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

178. State the principal rules for the use of the capital. 

179. Why are capitals us€d in the following? 

(a) Lafayette, the friend of Washington and America 

(b) He lives in Chestnut Street, Philadelphia, Pa. 

(c) Lincoln was shot while sitting in Ford's Theater, 
on the evening of April 14th, 1865. 

(d) Come Thou, Almighty King — . 

(e) The Civil War lasted from 1861 to 1865. 

(/) President Monroe issued the Monroe Doctrine in 
his message to Congress. 

(.0-) The East is a more prosperous section than the 
West and the South. 

180. Capitalize and punctuate the following paragraph: 
king frederick of prussia was one day travelling when 

he came to a village where he was to stay an hour or 
two so the king visited the school after a time he turned 
to the teacher and said he would like to ask the children 
a few questions on a table near by stood a large dish of 
oranges the king took up one of the oranges and said to 
what kingdom does this belong children to the vegetable 
kingdom replied one of the little girls and to what king- 
dom does this belong said he as he took from his pocket 
a piece of gold to the mineral kingdom she answered 
and to what kingdom then do I belong my child he 
asked thinking of course she would answer to the ani- 
mal kingdom the little girl did not know what answer 
to make she feared that it would not seem right to say 
to a king that he belonged to the animal kingdom well 
said the king can you not answer my little lady the kind 
words and gentle look of the king gave the child cour- 
age and looking up into his face she replied to the king- 
dom of heaven sir and the king deeply moved placed his 
hand upon her head and said god grant that I may be 
found worthy of that kingdom 

DICTION. 

Correct the following sentences and briefly state the rea- 
son for your corrections : 

181. I guess that he aint the party I am looking for. 

182. The man had his Wellingtons or goloshes with 
him. 



QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 331 

183. The smart fellow thought he could come back. 

184. The man discovered a new kind of machine for 
doing- the work. 

185. There was a large crowd at the social. 

186. The gent looked swell in his new pants. 

187. This is the book and which contains the selections 
that you wish. 

188. Collect all the fragmentary pieces. 

189. When the final denouement arrives, the police at- 
tend at the function. 

190. The formation of paragraphs are a most impor- 
tant matter in this work. 

191. The youth stood gazing at the starry canopy, 
tvhich was lighted up with innumerable effulgent orbs 
shedding their radiance on the beholder' vision. 

192. The great author was writing and editing his own 
autobiography. 

193. He made the writing of text-books his avocation. 

194. I don't take but little room. 

Rewrite the following composition, omitting all the 
unnecessary details as enumerated in previous questions : 

195. Seven and one-half hours after the sun had been 
on the meridian it seemed as if the gates of heaven had 
suddenly opened, for an interminable downpour came on, 
lasting for an endless half-hour. At the same time, Nep- 
tune lashed the sea and the god of the winds opened his 
bags wide. The canopy above became black as night, ever 
and anon the radiant orb of night showing her silvery 
outline, and granting us the privilege of beholding far out 
toward the horizon billow after billow of white, — plung- 
ing foam, approaching as if to annihilate us, — an evi- 
dence to the expert eye of the residents of the sea of a time 
when the demons of the earth and sky will be let loose. A 
shroud of darkness covered everything ; the clouds seemed 
to hover over us, threateningly; the pathless ocean was 
moaning with all his limitless might, instilling fear into 
the hearts of the crew. Nevertheless our staunch, brave 
little craft breasted the waves, and was victorious through 
all her obstacles of the srods of the ocean and the winds. 



232 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Rewrite the sentences in the following' paragraph so 
as to secure the greatest amount of clearness, force and ease : 

196. The British could see that Montcalm was making 
preparations to advance, at a little before ten, and, in a 
few moments, all his troops appeared in rapid motion. 
In three divisions, shouting after the manner of their na- 
tion, and firing heavily as soon as they came within range, 
they came on. Not a trigger was pulled in the British 
ranks, nor a soldier stirred. The fatal word was given 
and the British muskets blazed forth at once in one crash- 
ing explosion when the French were within forty yards. 
The ranks of Montcalm staggered, shivered, and broke be- 
fore that wasting storm of lead, like a ship at full career, 
arrested with sudden ruin on a sunken rock. 

197. This is a hot glass of tea that he only drank. 

198. Lost, a book with a red cover on the way from 
Albany. 

199. The spy was executed. 

200. He began to read as the train started, and as he 
reached his destination, the weather threatened to storm. 

201. There are several hundred figures on the front of 
the church, and the steeples are of equal height. 

202. In India infants are immersed into the sacred 
Ganges as a sacrifice to the gods. 

203. Convert the following sentence into a loose sen- 
tence: If flour costs $12 per barrel, what is the cost of 
10 barrels? 

204. Convert the following" sentence into a periodic 
sentence : We came to the cottage in the woods at last, 
with no small difficulty, and after much fatigue, through 
deep woods and bad weather. 

205. Rewrite the following sentence so as to secure 
unity: I was devotedly fond of camping and gladly ac- 
cepted the invitation, and my business arranged, I left on 
an early train. 

206. Show how force may be gained from a conversion 
of the following sentences : 

(a) To forgive is a divine quality, and to err is a human 
failing. 

(b) The less that you say, the sooner it will be set to right. 



QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 333 

TEST QUESTIONS FROM ENTRANCE EXAMINATION PAPERS OF 
VARIOUS COLLEGES. 

NOTE : — The answers to these questions can be found 
in the previous questions and answers. 

1. Make such changes in the following paragraph as 
you think will improve the expression of the thought : 

It was not my intention to stand as a candidate, but 
being requested by such an influential and dignified cata- 
logue of names, all of whom are as deeply interested in the 
welfare of the township as I am, I will accede to your very 
amiable request, hoping the position you desire me to ful- 
fill may merit the kind approbation and hearty concur- 
rence of the people. 

2. Write a sentence illustrating the use of the double 
and single points in quotations. 

3. Form sentences illustrating the proper use of (a) 
or and nor; (b) in and into; (c) sit and set. 

4. What are the different parts of a letter? Give as an 
example a business letter ordering some paper or maga- 
zine. 

5. Prepare an outline for an essay on one of the follow- 
ing topics : Washington's Personal Characteristics ; 
Washington's Life after the Revolution. 

6. Write an essay of at least 200 words based on the 
outline prepared above, paying particular attention to the 
proper division into paragraphs, character of sentences, 
capitalization, spelling and punctuation. 

7. Name and define three kinds of sentences classified 
as to their rhetorical quality, and give an example of 
each. 

8. Tell what you can of emphasis as dependent upon 
position, and illustrate by examples. 

9. Distinguish between strength and clearness, and 
mention principles to be observed in securing each. 

10. What qualities of style are violated in each of the 
following sentences? Correct these violations and give 
reasons for the correction : 

(a) He told him that his friend was dead. 

(b) His conscience of his own innocence was his chief 
support. 



334 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(f) This is almost the only subject about which some- 
thing has not been said. 

11. Write a sentence (original or quoted) illustrating 
pathos, and one illustrating melody. 

12. What objects are attained by the use of figura- 
tive language? In what kinds of discourse is figurative 
language most used? 

13. Write from memory an example of heroic verse; 
scan the verse written, marking the accents and the prin- 
cipal caesura. 

Webster's reply to hayne. 

14. Give an analysis of the oration. 

15. Write an essay on the oration, using not less than 
200 words, and covering the following points : The po- 
litical conditions that led to the "Debate/' the general 
direction, character and spirit of the speech to which 
Webster's oration was the reply; the general constitu- 
tional question discussed by Webster, and the view taken 
by him. 

16. What are the uses of the paragraph? Mention three 
requisites in its construction. 

17. Distinguish between simplicity and clearness. Give 
an example of a violation of each. 

18. Distinguish between wit and humor. Give an ex- 
ample of each. 

19. What quality of style is violated in each of the fol- 
lowing sentences? Correct the violation and give rea- 
sons : 

(a) I will not do this work for nothing. 

(b) The pupil who can not answer seventy-five per 
cent of these questions is not in it. 

(c) There is a great disposition to skate among young 
people. 

20. What objects are attained by the use of figurative 
language ? 

21. Name the figure used in each of the following sen- 
tences, and state what advantage is gained by the use of 
the figure in each case : 

(a) Men may come and men may go 
But I ^o on forever. 



QUESTIONS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 335 

(b) How long will thy unbridled audacity vaunt 

itself? 

(c) Washington was the father of his country. 

22. Define allegory and state the distinction between 
fable and parable. 

23. Name and define each of the three principal species 
of poetry, and mention an example of each. 

24. Mark the scansion of the following lines and name 
the prevailing foot: 

When breezes are soft and skies are fair, 
I steal an hour from study and care. 

25. Write an essay of not less than 200 words on Web- 
ster's power as an orator, as shown by his Reply to Hayne. 

26. State the advantages of the balanced structure of 
sentences. 

27. What is meant by the unity of a sentence? Give 
an example of a violation of unity. 

28. Write examples of the following figures of speech, 
stating the class to which each figure belongs : (a) meta- 
phor; (b) synecdoche; (c) antithesis. 

29. Define the qualities of style which are violated in the 
following sentences, and correct each violation : 

(a) You are not right by a long chalk. 
(6) The suspicious spectators suspected us. 
(c) She always thought more of attending to the 
wants of others than of herself. 

30. What is meant by innuendo or insinuation? Give 
an example. 

31. Distinguish between tautology, redundancy and cir- 
cumlocution. Give an example of each. 

32. What should be the aim of the narrative writer? 
What principles should he observe? 

33. Scan the following verses, giving the name and com- 
position of each measure : 

(a) " Hope is banish'd 

Joys are vanish'd." 

(b) " The strains decay 

And melt away." 



336 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(c) " Take her up tenderly 

Lift her with care." 

(d) " See the snakes that they rear, 

How they hiss in the air." 



ANSWERS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 

1. (a) The art of communication by means of appropriate lan- 
guage whether oral or written, (b) The art of producing some 
literary work by means of related sentences, these sentences formed 
into paragraphs and into groups of paragraphs. 

2. (a) In order to be able to express our thoughts effectively, we 
must speak or write correctly, which means that we are not to vio- 
late any of the rules of grammar, (b) To make our composition 
work effective, we must write or speak so that the reader or hearer 
will fully understand what we think and realize fully what we mean 
him to feel. 

3. A composition is an arrangement of sentences into paragraphs, 
and the paragraphs so arranged as to give a logical sequence about 
the particular thing treated in oral or written speech. Is usually 
applied only to written language. 

4. The Business Life in New York ; The Scene at the Railroad 
Station; The Scenes at the Country Fair; The Book I Like Best; 
The Visit of My Friends. 

5. (o) The name by which the selection is known, (b) If the 
title is attractive the reader will be attracted to the selection and 
show a desire to read it. 

6. (a) Titles should be short, attractive and indicate the nature 
of the work, (b) They should always be written at the head of 
the composition, the principal words being written with capitals. 

7. (a) Should Members of the House of Commons Receive a 

Salary ? 

(b) The Value of Mathematics and History in Education. 

(c) How to Inculcate a Taste for the Beautiful. 
The titles are all too long and wordy. 

8. The outline or skeleton of the composition is then had, and you 
know the line of treatment to follow. The facts are placed in their 
proper relative position, the important ones emphasized and the de- 
tails in minor position. The continuity of thought is maintained 
throughout. 

9. It should be brief, consist of the few absolutely necessary 
topics, concisely expressed and arranged in proper form. 

10. (a) Situation of the angler's cottage. 

(b) The description of the interior. 

1. The appearance. 

2. The objects seen in the center of the room. 

3. The objects seen around the walls. 

(c) His family. 

(d) What it reminded Irving of. 

337 



338 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

11. (a) On parting with the old angler I inquired after his place 
of abode, and, happening to be in the neighborhood of the village a 
few evenings afterwards, I had the curiosity to seek him out. I 
found him living in a small cottage containing only one room, but 
a perfect curiosity in its method and arrangement. It was on the 
skirts of the village, on a green bank a little back from the road, 
with a small garden in front stocked with kitchen herbs and adorned 
with a few flowers. The whole front of the cottage was overrun 
with a honeysuckle. On the top was a ship for a weathercock. 

(b) The interior was fitted up in a truly nautical style, his ideas 
of comfort and convenience having been acquired on the berth-deck 
of a man-of-war. A hammock was slung from the ceiling, which 
in the daytime was lashed up so as to take but little room. From 
the center of the chamber hung a model of a ship, of his own work- 
manship. Two or three chairs, a table, and a large sea-chest formed 
the principal movables. About the wall were stuck up naval bal- 
lads, such as "Admiral Hosier's Ghost," "All in the Downs," and 
" Tom Bowling," intermingled with pictures of sea-fights, among 
which the battle of Camperdown held a distinguished place. The 
mantelpiece was decorated with sea-shells, over which hung a quad- 
rant, flanked by two wood-cuts of most bitter-looking naval com- 
manders. His implements for angling were carefully disposed on 
nails and hooks about the room. On a shelf was arranged his li- 
brary, containing a work on angling, much worn, a Bible covered 
with canvas, an odd volume or two of voyages, a nautical almanac, 
and a book of songs. 

(c) His family consisted of a large black cat with one eye, and a 
parrot which he had caught and tamed and educated himself in the 
course of one of his voyages, and which uttered a variety of sea- 
phrases with the hoarse brattling tone of a veteran boatswain. The 
establishment reminded me of that of the renowned Robinson Crusoe ; 
it was kept in neat order, everything being " stowed away " with the 
regularity of a ship of war ; and he informed me that he " scoured 
the deck every morning and swei t it between meals." — Irving. 

12. (a) Introduction. 

1. Subject of the portrait. 

2. How you came to Vv'rite about it. 
(b) Body. 

1. Description of the portrait as a whole. 

2. Description of the posture as a whole. 

3. Description of the costume as a whole. 

4. Description of the features as a whole. 
Conclusion. 

What the portrait suggests. 

13. The Bath House. 

Location. 
How to reach it. 
Getting ready for the lesson. 
The teacher. 
The pupils. 



ANSWERS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 339 

The aids. 
The lesson itself. 
The results of the instruction. 

14. The sentence should be so written and arranged that the 
thoughts expressed will be easily and readily understood by the 
reader. 

15. Each paragraph should contain so many sentences as to con- 
vey the thought clearly and precisely. There should be only one 
main idea in the paragraph, and every part of the paragraph should 
help to express that idea effectively. 

16. (a) The Scotch woman and the room in which she was sit-- 

ting 

(b) What the woman was not thinking about. 

(c) What she was thinking about. 

17. The coining of money in Massachusetts a new business. 

(a) Captain John Hull was the mint-master of Massachusetts, 
and coined all the money that was made there. This was a new 
line of business ; for, in the earlier days of the colony,, the current 
coinage consisted of gold and silver money of England, Portugal 
and Spain. 

The people in the earlier days were forced to barter their com- 
modities. 

(b) These coins being scarce the people were often forced 
tc barter their commodities, instead of selling them. For instance, 
if a man wanted to buy a coat, he, perhaps, exchanged a bear-skin 
for it. If he wished for a barrel of molasses, he might purchase it 
with a pile of pine-boards. Musket-bullets were used instead of 
farthings. 

Payments made in wampum and in goods, because there was not 
motley enough. 

(c) The Indians had a sort of money, called wampum, which was 
made of clam-shells ; and this strange sort of specie was, likewise, 
taken in payment of debts, by the English settlers. Bank bills had 
never been heard of. There was not money enough of any kind, 
in many parts of the country to pay the salaries of the ministers ; 
so that they sometimes had to take quintals of fish, bushels of corn, 
or cords of wood, instead of silver or gold. 

18. Spain's colonies in South America and Brazil had revolted 
and been recognized as independent states by our government in the 
year 1822. In 1815 a combination of European powers had formed 
what was known as the " Holy Christian Alliance " for the purpose 
of maintaining the monarchical form of government in Europe. 
Spain appealed to this Alliance for aid. As soon as our government 
heard of their_ promised assistance, and, at the same time of the at- 
tempt of Russia to plant a colony on the west coast of what is now 
the United States, Secretary of State John Quincy Adams sug- 
gested to the President that the United States protest against inter- 
fereiice in American affairs by European countries. Accordingly, 
President Monroe, in his message to Congress in December, 1823, 
enunciated the doctrine of non-interference in affairs in the western 



340 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

hemisphere by foreign nations, since known as the Monroe Doc- 
trine. The three fundamental principles emphasized are (1) that the 
American continents are not open to European colonization; (2) 
that the American government will not meddle in European politics, 
and (3) that the European states must not extend their systems of 
government to this continent. 

19. The English language is so full of words having similar mean- 
ings, synonyms, that it is often a difficult thing to select the word 
that will express our thoughts concisely unless we have at our com- 
mand a good working vocabulary. Variety of expression will also 
be secured. 

20. By reading extensively and consulting the dictionary to learn 
the meanings of difficult and unknown words ; conversation with 
educated people ; listening to good addresses ; the study of a foreign 
language will also aid in the acquisition and permanence of a good 
vocabulary. 

21. Style is the manner of expressing one's thoughts orally or in 
writing by means of words. 

22. The words used must be such as to be understood clearly 
wherever the language is spoken. 

23. Obsolete and obsolescent words ; words from foreign lan- 
guages ; colloquialisms ; local or provincial words; slang; technical 
words ; incorrectly formed compounds. 

24. (a) Literary English is the language found in the works of 
the great English authors. (5) Colloquial English is that used 
among educated persons, (c) Vulgar English is the English used 
among the uneducated class and includes all slang expressions, etc., 
not sanctioned by good usage. 

25. (a) Any violation of the use of a word or phrase not in good 
use. (&) Any violation of a rule of grammar. 

26. Works of the great authors and of standard reference books; 
and frequently the adoption by the masses of such words as edu- 
cated persons will use and will find their way into good books. 

27. A word having the same or almost the same meaning as an- 
other word. 

28. To avoid monotony in the use of words ; to secure exactness 
by selecting the word that will convey the meaning exactly. 

29. Shall is used in the first person, both numbers, when futurity 
is expressed, and in the second and third persons when volition is 
expressed, and in all cases where the interrogative form is used. 
Will is used to express determination in the first person and mere 
futurity when in the second and third persons. 

30. Generally follows the rule of shall and wi'Z/. Should also im- 
plies a sense of obligation and is used in the. sense of ought. It also 
is used after lest. Would refers to habit, wish. 

31. (a) Tom says he will go. (&) Shall we go tomorrow? 
(c) I shall drown if nobody will save me. (d) We shall find him 
much improved if his friends should not influence, etc. (c) Were 
he to make the effort, he would do as well as his neighbors. (/) 
Would that the meeting had adjourned. 



ANSWERS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 341 

32. The use of words not necessary to the sense of the sentence, 

33. Repetition of thought unnecessary. 

34. The use of unnecessary words to the meaning. 

35. A circuitous or round-about way of expressing any manner 
of thought. 

36. A round bombastic manner of expressing something that can 
be said in a few words. 

37. The inclusion of many details not necessary to the clearness 
of the thought. 

38. For emphasis, irony, to avoid repetition, and for ease in state- 
ments. 

39. For force ; directness, vividness of expression ; in rapid nar- 
ration ; when only the facts are to be presented. 

40. For dignity of expression ; heightened style ; fulness ; to bring 
out the importance of a fact with the presence of a mass of details ; 
for climax. 

41. (a) One so constructed that it may be brought to a close at 
one or more places before the end. (b) One in which the thought 
is not completed until the end of the sentence is reached. 

42. (a) They are natural; ease of style, (b) The style becomes 
too monotonous, and gives idea of carelessness ; tends to loose 
thoughts. 

43. (a) For emphasis ; force, precision, lucidity and exactness, 
and for contrast. (&) The style may become stiff and monotonous, 
the thoughts disconnected. 

44. One composed of two or more members or parts, similar in 
form, but contrasted in meaning. 

45. (a) " If the flights of Dryden therefore, are higher. Pope 
continues longer on the wing. If of Dryden's fire the blaze is 
brighter, of Pope's the heat is more regular and constant. Dryden 
often surpasses expectation, and Pope never falls below it. Dryden 
is read with frequent astonishment, and Pope with perpetual de- 
light ..." 

(b) For contrast, comparison, emphasis, force, climax and irony. 

46. (a) Novels, as a class, are injurious to the young, because 
they destroy the taste for more solid reading, and cultivate a taste 
for the fiction of the day and for the emotional ; and finally, they 
convey false impressions of life. 

(&) The man, bound on a hunt, and accompanied by his favorite 
dog, crossed the river in a boat, in the bottom of which he placed 
the gun and his shooting bag. 

47. (a) That condition of the sentence in which the meaning is 
clear to the reader. 

(b) By using words with the exact meanings; modifiers should 
be placed as near the words or parts of sentences they modify; 
conjunctions should be arranged so as to show the connection of 
the parts joined; pronouns should refer to their antecedents; 
the proper use of participles ; using short sentences where long ones 
will cause obscurity. 



342 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

48. (a) That quality in a sentence which not only makes the 
meaning clear but conveys the idea exactly. 

(b) In addition to the means of securing perspicuity, the word 
which will convey the idea exactly should be used; be careful of 
the synonyms ; use specific words, not general words. 

49. He paced up and down, forgetful of everything around him, 
and intent only on some subject that absorbed his mind, his hands 
behind him and his tall form bent forward. 

50. Honor thy father and thy mother. 

51. Not until he had exhausted all the means at his command 
and had drawn upon the resources of his friends, did he give up 
the unequal struggle. 

52. There in the west was the Great Pyramid, hiding the sun 
from view, and utilizing the last departing rays to cast a great sharp 
shadow eastward across the necropolis of the desert. 

53. (a) "Train up the child in the way he should go; and when 
he is old, he will not depart from it." 

(b) "Worth makes the man; the want of it, the fellow." 

54. Perspicuity or clearness, unity, force, and ease. 

55. Violations of the rules of grammar, and of rhetorical usage. 
(For violations of the rules of grammar, see Questions and An- 
swers in Grammar.) 

56. A sentence lacking in unity does not make the impression that 
the writer wishes to make. It violates the principles of effective- 
ness in the sentence. The mind is drawn away from the essential 
thought by the unrelated ideas. 

57. (a) Unity is the arrangement of the parts of the sentence so 
that the ideas conveyed shall be related to form one unified thought 
or idea. 

(b) Correctness in grammatical construction; the avoidance of 
parenthetical constructions ; by combining only related ideas ; avoid- 
ing sentences with too many members or too many ideas ; the prin- 
cipal thought should be made dominant and the details subordinate; 
keeping only one point of view in the sentence. 

58. (a) The automobile has been used for only six months. It 
cost almost ten thousand dollars. 

(b) He began to read the book as the train started. By the time 
we reached our destination the weather had cleared. 

(c) I was devotedly fond of hunting, and accepted my friend's 
invitation. My packing being finished, I left on an early train. 

59. By making the principal thought stand out prominently; by 
avoiding a change in the point of view. 

(a) There are several hundred figures on the front of the church. 
The steeples are unequal in height. 

(b) People have the most disagreeable habit of staring at me 
when I wear this hat. 

(c) About the only thing I did of importance last week was to 
go to town. 

60. Force is that element in the sentence that conveys the idea 
impressively. 



ANSWERS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 343 

61. By means of periodic and short sentences; rearrangement of 
the words ; avoiding all unnecessary details ; avoiding unnecessary 
words, phrases, long words ; using specific words, the exact word ; 
beginning sentences with important v»^ords ; avoid all the less im- 
portant parts of speech at the end of the sentence, a climactic ar- 
rangement of the sentence ; repetition of important details in varied 
forms, and above all, grammatical correctness. 

62. All three are valuable means of securing force. 

63. (a) The pleasant effect that the sentence has upon the reader. 
(b) Pleasantness in an expression retains our interest even though 

it is not forcible. 

64. By avoiding disagreeable or harsh combinations of sounds; 
avoiding the unnecessary repetition of words ; grammatical correct- 
ness ; adopting the sound to the sense ; the use of figures of speech 
wherever possible. 

65. Correctness, unity, perspicuity and force. 

66. The young people of Athens, amazed at the glory of Themis- 
tocles, of Cimon, of Pericles, and full of a foolish ambition, after 
having received some lessons from the sophists, who promised to 
render them very great politicians, believed themselves capable of 
every thing, and aspired to fill the highest places. One of them, 
named Glaucon, believed that he had such a peculiar genius for pub- 
lic affairs, although he was not yet twenty years of age, that no 
person in his family, nor among his friends, had the power to di- 
vert him from a notion so befitting his age and capacity. 

67. (a) A group of sentences closely related and referring to one 
topic. 

(6) Correctness, perspicuity, unity, force, and ease. 

68. The sentence embodying the underlying thought in the para- 
graph. 

69. Select the topic sentence ; amplify that ; expand it ; making 
the first sentence in the paragraph act as the introduction to the 
principal idea ; have the first sentence refer back to the idea in the 
previous paragraph, if there is any ; the last sentence should be the 
conclusion of the idea, and lead to the following paragraph ; making 
a climax in the paragraph. The single idea is to be developed by all 
the sentences in that paragraph. 

70. The sinking of the Monitor off Cape Hatteras. 

71. By having the first sentence refer back to the idea in the pre- 
vious paragraph and the last sentence lead up to the idea in the 
following paragraph. By repetition, the use of connectives, close 
connection between sentences. 

72. The essentials of a good sentence or a good paragraph are 
the same essentials required in a good composition. In addition, 
the title should be appropriate to the subject matter, and there 
should be the three parts to the composition. 

73. The introduction, body, discussion or development and con- 
clusion. 

74. The introduction leads up to the subject of the composition, 



344 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

to prepare the mind of the reader for what is to come in the sec- 
ond part. 

75. All the facts, illustrations, arguments bearing on the theme 
of the composition should be placed in the body. The purpose of 
the work should be made apparent in every sentence and the ideas 
to be conveyed impressed upon the reader. 

76. The conclusion is the summing up of the arguments in the 
discussion and the impressing and rounding out of the theme. 

n. See 12 and 13. 

78. Description, narration, exposition and argumentation. 

79. The arrangement of the sentences and paragraphs in a com- 
position so as to bring before the mind of the reader persons and 
things as they appear to the writer. 

80. The giving an account of things and events as they happened. 

81. An explanation of something. 

82. A composition that tries to convince the reader of the truth 
or error of something with the purpose of making him believe as 
the writer does. 

N. B. The four forms may be used in one composition. 

83. Observe carefully the important details ; use striking particu- 
lars ; have a viewpoint ; follow the description in regular order ; 
appeal to the emotions, fancy and imagination ; speak of the effect 
produced by the cause, in some cases, to drive home the causes ; use 
figures of speech wherever possible, but not too profusely; give a 
complete picture. 

84. To tell a story or give an account of something effectively. 

85. Without the plot the narration would in all probability be a 
mere description. The reader will lose all interest in the narrative 
without the good plot. 

86. Those who take part in or bring about the actions ; the ac- 
tions, incidents or events ; and the circumstances under which the 
actions are effected. 

87. The actors and the circumstances under which the persons 
act can be made most effective by means of the descrip- 
tions. The salient points in the narrative can be forced home by 
means of the description. Descriptions, too, can make the char- 
acters lifelike. 

88. Clearness, unity and force and emphasis, and ease, as in other 
written forms of composition. Good definition and differentiation 
of meaning. The positive assertion should be made rather than the 
negative because oi its value as emphasis. 

89. It helps to make the reader believe as the writer does. 

90. Induction, deduction, iteration, reiteration, persuasion and 
compulsion. 

91. The principal argument should be made the compelling force; 
the subordinate and dependent arguments should help to drive home 
the compelling idea ; the ideas should all centre round one topic to 
convey the idea of unity; only important arguments should be se- 
lected ; secure climax where possible ; ease and lucidity should be 
had; the necessary statements and assertions should be reiterated 



ANSWERS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 345 

from every point of view to make the point forcible and without 
a shadow of doubt. 

92. 324 W. 156th Street, 

E., New York, July 26, 1909. 

9 Times, 

Times Sq., City. 
Dear Sir : — 

I beg leave to apply for the position advertised for in this morn- 
ing's paper. 

I am nineteen years of age, reside with my parents at the address 
given above, and can furnish references and testimonials as to my 
character, ability and efficiency from my High School teachers and 
my former employer, Messrs. Donaldson & White, 424 Bway., who 
have since retired from business. 

Trusting that you will favor me with the opportunity to show; 
my worth, I am 

Very truly yours, 

Thomas Lane. 

93. Elberon, N. J., 
Dear Jack:— April 14th, 1910. 

Can you make it convenient to pay me a visit on Friday and stay 
over until Tuesday or Wednesday when we shall both go to New 
York? We are to have a number of friends at the house whom I 
am anxious for you to meet. 

Please let me know as soon as you can. 

Sincerely, 
Mr. Jack London, James Russell. 

The Plaza, 

New York City. 

94. 35 W. 19th Str., 
Messrs. Carson, Pirie, Scott & Co., New York, Aug. 15, 1907. 

Chicago, 111. 
Gentlemen : — 

At Mr. John R. Day's request, I take pleasure in handing him 
this letter of introduction to you. 

Mr. Day has been in my employ for the past fifteen years, having 
risen from the position of office boy to that of assistant manager, in 
charge of the rug and carpet department. He has decided to start 
business for himself, and I feel sure that he will render the same 
services to his patrons that he has shown to us. 

Any favors that you may render him will be greatly appreciated 
by 

Very truly yours, 

Daniel Low & Co., 

by Daniel Low. 

95. Your presence is requested at the Dance given by the Misses 
Mitchell, on Friday evening, September 3rd, at The Willows, Tux- 
edo Park, New York. 

96. All formal letters and invitations are written in the third per- 
son, while personal invitations are in the first person. 



346 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

97-100. Answers will vary. 

FIGURES OF SPEECH. 

101. A form of expression differing intentionally from the usual 
mode of expression for the sake of effect ; as, " So, like a shattered 
column lay the king," for " The king lay wounded and helpless." 

102. Simile, metaphor, personification, apostrophe, allegory. 

103. A simile is an expressed and stated resemblance between two 
different objects, the resemblance usually introduced by some word 
like as, like, etc. ; as 

" The day is done, and the darkness 
Falls from the wings of night 
As an arrow is wafted downward 
From an eagle in his flight " 

104. A metaphor is an implied resemblance between two things; as, 

" In the bright lexicon of youth 
There's no such word as fail." 

105. A confusion of metaphors in the same sentence ; as, 

(a) " Gentlemen of the jury, the case for the crown is a mere 
skeleton for, as I shall presently show you, it has neither flesh, 
blood nor bones in it." 

(b) A slumbering volcano which at any moment a spark might 
set aflame. 

106. They emphasize the comparison desired and where no com- 
parison was expected ; they maintain the interest and make the 
thought more easily understood. 

107. (a) That figure of speech whereby inanimate objects are 
made to act as though they were living objects with the attributes 
of human characters ; as, 

"A gourd wound itself round a lofty palm, and in a few days 
climbed to its very top." 

108. A metaphor extended in the form of a story. 

109. That figure of speech in which things or persons are con- 
trasted or balanced against each other ; as, " Fools rush in where 
angels fear to tread." 

110. The figure of speech where one thing stands for another; the 
relation between the two helping to make the meaning and idea 
clear ; as, " Have you read Burns ? " the question really being " Have 
you read the works of Burns? " 

111. That figure where a part of an object is taken to represent 
the entire object; as, "He owns ten sails;" "Give us this day our 
daily bread," meaning thereby, " He owns ten ships," " all food." 

112. An exaggerated description of some person, thing or event; 
as, " Rivers of water run down my eyes because they keep not thy 
lav.;." 

113. Epigram, a brief, pointed saying, usually involving a con- 
tradiction between the form of the expression and the meaning ; as, 
" Beauty, when unadorned, adorns the most." 

114. (a) That figure in which there is an ascending series of 
thoughts or assertions or comparisons gradually increasing in im- 
portance. 



ANSWERS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 347 

" The cloud-capt towers, the gorgeous palaces, 
The solemn temples, the great globe itself, 
Yea, all which it inherit, shall dissolve." 
(&) The opposite of climax, in which the most important is placed 
first and the least important placed last; as, 

"And thou, Dalhousie, thou great god of war. 
Lieutenant-colonel to the Earl of Mar ! " 
lis. That figure of speech in which we praise a person or thing 
but intend to ridicule it or make it absurd; as, 

" Here, under leave of Brutus and the rest. 
For Brutus is an honorable man ; 
So are they all, all honorable men ; 
Come I to speak in Caesar's funeral." 

116. Vision describes things which are past, absent or imaginary 
as though they were present before the reader ; as, 

" I see before me the lights of the village 
As they gleam through the rain and the mist." 

117. A brief descriptive allegory, founded on real life and con- 
veying a moral. 

118. A story conveying a moral, the characters of which are gen- 
erally other than of humankind. 

119. That figure of speech in which a question is asked though an 
answer is not expected to it; as, "Will they do it? Dare they do 
it?" 

120. That figure in which emotion is expressed in an exclamatory 
sentence ; as. How wonderful are the works of nature ! 

121. This consists in the repetition of the same letter in succes- 
sive words ; as, "An Austrian army awfully arrayed," " Many men 
of many minds." 

122. That figure where the words indicate the sounds ; as, 

" How they tinkle, tinkle, tinkle. 
In the icy air of night ! 



Keeping time, time, time. 

In a sort of Runic rhyme. 

To the tintinabulation that so musically wells 

From the bells, bells, bells, bells . . " 

123. The figure of speech in which redundant words are reiter- 
ated for the sake of giving emphasis to the thought : " Know ye 
that the Lord, He is God." 

124. Antithesis. 

125. Interrogation. 

126. Personification. 

127. Personification, metonymy and antithesis. 

128. Irony. 

129. Metonymy and synechdoche. 

130. Metonymy. 

131. Climax. 

132. Metonymy. 

133. Climax. 



348 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

134. Simile. 

135. Metaphor. 

POETIC FORMS, • 

136. They diflfer in diction, in purpose and aim and in the use of 
the figurative expressions, as well as in the form. 

137. Didactic, lyric, epic, satire, pastoral, elegy and dramatic 
poetry. 

138. Poetry which aims to instruct. 

139. Short poems in which the emotions and feelings are dom- 
inant, and which have a certain harmony of sound to them. 

140. Poetry which deals with the life and adventures and deeds 
of some heroic figure, real or imaginary, the treatment being ma- 
jestic. 

141. In which all human passions, weaknesses and foibles are held 
up to ridicule either with a view to correction or for the purpose 
of vengeance. 

142. Deals with the scenes of rural life and its occupations. 

143. The elegy, in which some dead person's virtues are extolled. 

144. That which has been written for production on the stage. 

145. (a) Satirical; (b) didactic; (c) lyrical; (d) epic; (e) 
pastoral; (f) elegy; (g) dramatic. 

146. (a) The form in which poetry usually is printed or written; 
a number of lines of poetry, (b) The emphasis placed upon a syl- 
lable in a word or upon a monosyllabic word. 

147. (a) That part of poetry which has to do with the rhyme, 
meter, and stanza of poetry, with its construction or composition. 
(&) Meter, rhyme, stanza. 

148. The agreement of sounds at the ends of the lines. 

Blessings on thee, little man. 
Barefoot boy with cheeks of tan. 

149. Blank verse is poetry without rhyme. 

Weariness 

Can snore upon the flint, when rusty sloth 

Finds the down-pillow hard. 

150. The regular recurrence of accented and unaccented sylla- 
bles in the verse. 

But to see her was to love her, 
Love but her, and love forever. 

151. (a) Meter is the measure of the kind and number of feet 
in a verse (line). 

(b) The divisions of the verse determined by the number of ac- 
cented and unaccented syllables following in order in a line of 
poetry. 

(c) The division of a verse of poetry into its feet, and the deter- 
mination of the kind of feet. 

152. One accented and one unaccented syllable in the foot; as. 
Stately ships were lulled to rest. 

153. The opposite of the trochee; one unaccented followed by an 
accented syllable ; as. 

Then talked my crew among themselves and said. 



ANSWERS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 349 

154. The opposite of the anapest; the accented syllable being 
first, the last two unaccented; as, Cannon to the right of them. 

155. Three syllables in a foot, the first two of which are un- 
accented; as. At the dead of night a sweet vision I saw. 

156. (a) A verse containing four feet; as. Art is long and time is 
fleeting. (&) Five feet in a verse; as, Abide with me; fast falls the 
eventide. 

157. A verse of six feet; as, 

" This is the forest primeval ; the murmuring pines and the forest." 

158. The omission of a syllable to make the line agree with all 
the other lines as to number of feet ; as. 

Now morn, her rosy steps in th' eastern clime. 

159. A stanza is a fixed division of a poem consisting of at least 
two lines of poetry, generally having an even number of lines. 

160. A couplet or a distich is a stanza of two verses only; as, 

Maud Muller on a summer's day 
Raked the meadow sweet with hay. 

161. The triplet consists of three lines. 

162. The quatrain consists of four lines : 

Lives of great men all remind us 

We can make our lives sublime, 
And, departing, leave behind us 

Footprints on the sands of time. 

163. A pause or a rest in some part of the verse, not indicated by 
a punctuation mark. 

164. The Chaucerian stanza or the rime royal consists of seven 
verses to the stanza, the meter being the iambic pentameter. The 
Spenserian stanza consists of eight iambic pentameters followed by 
an iambic hexameter. 

PUNCTUATION. 

165. (a) Punctuation is of importance in that it aids in the clear 
expression of our thoughts, (b) The period, comma, colon, semi- 
colon, apostrophe, quotation marks. 

166. To mark the end of the declarative sentence, and after all 
abbreviations. 

167. (a) Richard I. was called the Lion-Hearted. 

(b) Rev. means Reverend. 

(c) You have done what was right. 

(d) He has the degrees M. S. and Ph. D. 

168. To separate the clauses in a compound sentence when the 
connective is not used or when the principal clauses are subdivided 
by means of a comma; as. To err is human; to forgive, divine. 
To mark the beginning of an illustration introduced by the word 
as or vis.; as, in this instance. 

169. (a) To show that a list or statement is to follow ; as. The 
following are what he had to do : to sweep the room, to put the 
stock in order, etc. (b) In a very long compound or complex sen- 
tence, when the groups are to be separated by punctuation marks. 



350 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(c) After the salutation at the beginning of a letter; as, see next 
answer. 

170. (a) Dear Sir:— 

I have your favor of the 12th inst, etc. 

(b) But O'Connor was Clay, Choate, Everett and Webster in one. 
Before the courts, logic ; at the bar of the Senate, unanswerable ; on 
the platform, grace, wit, pathos ; before the masses, a whole man. 

(c) He brought the following with him: a coat, a pair of shoes, 
and half a dozen shirts. 

171. (a) To separate the name of the person addressed from the 
rest of the sentence; (b) to separate clauses that are not restrict- 
ive; (c) to separate independent elements and words or expres- 
sions in apposition, from the rest of the sentence; (d) in a series 
of words; (e) when the conditional clause is at the beginning of 
the sentence; (/) to separate explanatory words, phrases or clauses; 
(g) inverted expressions; (h) words or phrases in pairs; (i) with 
short quotations or expressions used in the course of the sentence. 

172. (a) Noun of address; (b) phrase in apposition; (c) omis- 
sion of verb in second clause; (d) relative clause used for expla- 
nation ; (e) subordinate dependent clause introduced by if at the 
beginning of the sentence; (f) words in a series; (g) however is 
used; (/t) words in pairs. 

173. (a) The grocer sells apples, pears, bananas, beside the reg- 
ular groceries, (b) Mother, how have you felt today? (c) Wear- 
ied by his London life, Irving started on a continental tour, (d) I 
think, also, that his strength of character, etc. (e) The men, wom- 
en and children rushed to the deck. (/) James S. Lane, Ph. D., 
will give a talk on " The Tempest," a play by Shakespeare. 

174. (a) At the end of sentences asking direct questions, (b) 
After all exclamatory words, phrases or sentences, (c) To mark 
sudden changes in thought or sentiment ; to enclose parenthetical 
information ; to indicate emphasized parts ; to mark pauses for the 
sake of rhetorical effect ; to mark omissions of letters and figures. 

175. To enclose expressions or remarks having no grammatical 
connection v/ith the sentence. The brackets are generally used to 
enclose remarks, criticisms, corrections, etc., used as quotations. 

176. (a) The hyphen is used to separate the syllables or the com- 
pound elements in a compound word. (&) To show possession. 
To indicate the omission of a letter in a word. 

177. When quoting the exact words uttered or written by another 
person. 

178. (a) The first word of the sentence; (&) I, O; (c) all prop- 
er names; (d) the names of the Deity; (e) any title of honor 
used in connection with a particular name; (f) names of places 
and streets ; (g) the names of the days of the week and the months 
of the year; (/;) the first word of a line of poetry; (i) titles of 
books; (/) important historical events; (k) first words of direct 
quotations ; (/) the cardinal points of the compass when they re- 
fer to sections of the country. 



ANSWERS IN COMPOSITION AND RHETORIC. 351 

179. (a) First word of the sentence, names of persons and of 
country; (b) names of streets, city and state; (c) names of per- 
son, particular building and month; (rf) names of the Deity; (<?) 
names of the historical periods ; (/) title with name of person, title 
of particular doctrine and of legislative body; (g) section of the 
country meant in each case. 

180. King Frederick of Prussia was one day travelling, when he 
came to a village where he was to stay an hour or two. So the 
king visited the school. After a time he turned to the teacher and 
said he would like to ask tlie children a few questoons. On a table 
nearby stood a large dish of oranges. The king took up one of the 
oranges and said, " To what kingdom does this belong, children ? " 
" To the vegetable kingdom," replied one of the little girls. "And 
to what kingdom does this belong?" said he, as he took from his 
pocket a piece of gold. " To the mineral kingdom," she answered. 
"And to what kingdom then do I belong, my child ? " he asked, 
thinking, of course, she would answer, to the animal kingdom. The 
little girl did not know what answer to make. She feared that it 
v;ould not be right to say to a king that he belonged to the animal 
kingdom. " Well," said the king, " can you not answer, my little 
lady? " The words and gentle look of the king gave the child cour- 
age, and, looking up into his face, she replied, " To the kingdom of 
Heaven, sir." The king, deeply moved, placed his hand upon her 
head and said, " God grant that I may be found worthy of that 
kingdom ! " 

DICTION. 

181. I feel sure that he is not the person for whom I am looking. 
Slang. 

182. The man wore his rubbers. Provincialisms. 

183. The clever man thought that he could regain his former 
ability. Slang expressions. 

184. The man invented a machine to do this work. Redundancy 
and incorrect word. 

185. The attendance at the sociable was very large. Words not 
in good use. 

186. The new trousers made the gentleman look very neat. 

187. This is the book which contains the selections you wish. 
"And which " construction is improper. 

188. Gather all the pieces. Redundancy. 

189. When the denouement is reached, the police attend the so- 
ciable. Redundancy and incorrect expressions. 

190. The formation of paragraphs is a most important matter in 
this work. Singular verb should be used to agree with number of 
the noun. 

191. The youth stood gazing at the starry sky. Tautological and 
prolix. 

192. The author was writing his autobiography. Tautology and 
redundancy. 



352 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESiTION BOOK. 

193. He made the writing of text-books his vocation. Incorrect 
word. 

194. I take but little room. Two negatives. 

195. At half-past seven, a heavy shower fell, lasting about twenty- 
minutes. At this time the gale increased ; black, heavy clouds cov- 
ered the sky, through which the moon glittered fitfully, allowing us 
to see in the distance a long line of white, plunging foam rushing 
toward us, — sure indication, to a sailor's eye, of a stormy time. A 
gloom overhung every thing; the banks of cloud seemed to settle 
around us ; the moan of the ocean grew louder and more fearful. 
Still our little boat pushed doggedly on, victorious through all. 

196. "At a little before ten, the British could see that Montcalm 
was preparing to advance, and, in a few moments, all his troops 
appeared in rapid motion. They came on in three divisions, shout- 
ing after the manner of their nation, and firing heavily as soon as 
they came within range. In the British ranks, not a trigger was 
pulled, not a soldier stirred. It was not till the French were within 
forty yards that the fatal word was given, and the British muskets 
blazed forth at once in one crashing explosion. Like a ship at full 
career, arrested with sudden ruin on a sunken rock, the ranks of 
Montcalm staggered, shivered and broke before that wasting storm 
of lead." — Parkman : Conspiracy of Pontiac. 

197. This is only a glass of hot tea that he drank. 

198. Lost: a book with a red cover (while on the way from 
Albany). 

199. The spy was hanged. Not clear. 

200. He began to read as the train started. As he reached his 
destination, the weather threatened a storm. Two thoughts in one 
sentence. 

201. On the front of the church, whose steeples are of equal 
height, there are several hundred figures. 

202. In India very young children are often cast into the sacred 
river Ganges as a sacrifice to the Hindu gods. Lack of ease due to 
the excessive alliteration. 

203. What is the cost of 19 barrels of flour if a barrel costs $12? 

204. At last, with no small difficulty through deep woods and bad 
weather and after much fatigue, we came to a cottage in the woods. 

205. Having arranged my business affairs, I left on an early train 
to accept the invitation to go camping, as I was devotedly fond of 
this form of outdoor life. 

206. (a) To err is human, to forgive divine. 
(b) Least said, soonest mended. 



CHAPTER VIII. 

SPELLING AND DICTATION. 

i 

The following method is suggested in the conduct of spelling and 
dictation. lessons. The selection should be read aloud by the prin- 
cipal or teacher, the pupils listening. Then the individual words or 
sentences should be read once and the pupils be told to write. 
There should be no repetition. Thus through the selection. At 
the end the selection should again be read aloud and the pupils 
permitted to make corrections where necessary. 

Our (l)city, (2) though (3) laid out with a (4) beauti- 
ful (5) regularity, the (6) streets large, (7) straight, and 
(8) crossing each other at right (9) angles, had the (10) 
disgrace of (11) suffering those streets to (12) remain long 
(13)unpaved, and in wet (14) weather the (15) wheels of 
(16) heavy (17) carriages (18)ploughed them into a (19) 
quagmire, so that it was (20) difficult to (21) cross them; 
and in dry weather the dust was (22) offensive. I had 
lived (23)near what was (24)called (25)Jersey Market, 
and saw with (26) pain the (27) inhabitants (28) wading 
in mud while (29) purchasing their (30) provisions. A 
strip of ground down the (31) middle of that (32) market 
was at length paved with (33) brick, so that being (34) 
once in the market they had firm (35) footing, but were 
(36) often over (37) shoes in (38) dirt to get there. By 
(39) talking and (40) writing on the (41) subject I was at 
(42) length (43) instrumental in (44) getting the street 
paved with stone (45) between the market and the bricked 
foot (46) pavement, that was on each side next the houses. 
This, for (47) some time, gave an (48) easy (49) access to 
the market (50) dry-shod; but the (51) remainder of the 
street not being paved (52) whenever a carriage came out 
of this mud upon the pavement it (53) shook off and left 
its dirt upon it, and it was soon (54) covered with (55) 
mire which was not removed, the city not (56) having 
(57) any (58) scavengers. After some (59) inquiry, I 
found a poor, (60) industrious man, who was willing to 

353 



354 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(61) undertake (62) keeping the pavement (63) clean, by 
(64) sweeping it (65)twicea (66)week,(67)carryingoff the 
dirt from before (68) all the (69) neighbors' (70) doors, for 
the (71)sum of (72)sixpence per (73)month, to be (74) 
paid by (75) each house. I then wrote and printed a (76) 
paper (77)setting (78)forth the (79) advantages to the 
neighborhood that (80) might be (81) obtained by this 
small (82) expense; the (83)greater ease in keeping our 
houses clean, so much dirt not being (84)brought in by 
people's (85) feet; the (86)benefit to the shops by more 
custom, etc., as (87)buyers could more easily get at them. 
All the inhabitants of the city were (88) delighted with 
the (89) cleanliness of the pavement that (90) surrounded 
the market, it being a (91) convenience to all, and this (92) 
raised a (93) general (94) desire to have all the streets 
paved. Just before I went to (95) England, in 1757, I 
drew a bill for paving the city and brought it into the 
(96) Assembly. It did not pass till I was gone, and then 
with an (97)alteration in the mode of (98)assessment 
and with an (99) additional (100) provision for lighting 
the streets. — Benj. Franklin. 

II 
If (l)anything be (2)found in the (3)national constitu- 
tion (4)either by (5)original (6)provision or (7)subse- 
quent interpretation, (8) which (9) ought not to be in it, 
the (10) people (11) know how to get (12) rid of it. If 
any (13)construction be (14) established (15) unacceptable 
to them, so as to (16)become (17) practically a part of 
the constitution, they will (18) amend it, at (19) their (20) 
own sovereign (21) pleasure. But (22) while the people 
(23) choose to (24) maintain it as it is, while (25) they are 
(26) satisfied with it, and (27) refuse to (28) change it, 
who has given, or who can give, to state (29)legislatures 
a (30)right to (31)alter it, either by interference, con- 
struction or (32) otherwise? (33) Gentlemen do not (34) 
seem to (35) recollect that the people have any (36) power 
to do anything for (37) themselves. They (38) imagine 
(39)there is no (40)safety for them, any (41)longer than 
they are under the (42) close (43) guardianship of the 
state legislatures. Sir, the people have not (44) trusted 



SPELLING AND DICTATION. 355 

their safety, in (45) regard to the (46) general constitu- 
tion to (47) these hands. They have (48) required other 
(49) security and (50) taken other bonds. They have 
(51) chosen to trust themselves, first, to the (52) plain 
words of the instrument, and to such construction as the 
(53) government itself in (54) doubtful (55) cases, (56) 
should put on its own powers, and under their (57)oaths 
of (58) office, and (59) subject to their (60) responsibility 
to them. (61) Secondly, they have (62) reposed their trust 
in the (63) efficacy of (64) frequent (65) elections, and in 
their ow^n power to (66)remove their own (67) servants 
and (68) agents (69) whenever they (70) see (71) cause. 
(72)Thirdly, they have reposed trust in the (73)judicial 
power, which in (74) order that it (75) might be (76) trust- 
worthy they have (77) made as (78) respectable, as (79) 
disinterested, and as (80) independent as was practicable. 
(81) Fourthly, they have (82) seen fit to (83) rely, in case 
of (84) necessity, or (85) high (86) expediency, or on their 
known and (87) admitted power, to alter or amend the 
constitution, (88) peaceably and (89) quietly, whenever 
(90) experience shall point out (91) defects or (92) imper- 
fections. And, (93) finally the people of the United States 
have at no time, in no way, directly or (94) indirectly, 
(95) authorized any state legislature to (96) construe or 
(97) interpret their high instrument of government; much 
less to interfere, by their own power, to (98) arrest its 
(99) course and (100) operation. 

Ill 
When in the (1) course of (2) human (3) events, it (4)be- 
comes (5) necessary for (6) one (7) people to (8) dissolve 
the (9)political (lO)bands which have (ll)connected them 
with another, and to (12)assume among the powers of 
the (13) earth, (14) separate and (15) equal (16) station 
to which the laws of nature and (17) nature's (18) 
God (19) entitle them, a (20) decent (21) respect to the 
(22)opinions of (23)mankind (24)requires that they (25) 
should declare the (26)causes which (27)impel them to 
the separation. We hold these (28) truths to be (29) self- 
evident, that all men are created equal, that they are 
(30) endowed by their (31) Creator with (32) certain 



356 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(33) unalienable (34) rights, that among these are life, 
(35) liberty and the (36) pursuit of (37) happiness. That 
to (38) secure these rights, (39) governments are (40) in- 
stituted among men, (41)deriving (42)their just powers 
from the (43) consent of the governed. That (44)when- 
ever any form of government becomes (45) destructive of 
(46)these ends, it is the right of the people to (47)alter 
or (48) abolish it, and to institute a new government, 
(49) laying its (50) foundation on such (51) principles and 
(52)organizing its (53)powers in such form as to them 
shall (54) seem most (55) likely to (56)efifect their (57) 
safety and happiness. (58) Prudence, (59) indeed, will 
(60) dictate that governments long (61) established should 
not be (62)changed for (63)light and (64)transient 
causes; and (65) accordingly all (66) experience hath 
(67) shown that mankind are more (68) disposed to sufifer 
while (69) evils are (70)sufferable, than to right (71) them- 
selves by abolishing the forms to which they are (72) ac- 
customed. But when a long (73) train of (74) abuses and 
(75) usurpations, pursuing (76) invariably the same (77) 
object (78) evinces a (79) design to (80) reduce them 
(81) under (82) absolute (83) despotism, it is their right, 
it is their (84) duty, to (85) throw (86)of¥ such govern- 
ment and to (87) provide new (88) guards for their (89) 
future (90)security. Such has (91)been the (92)patient 
sufferance of these (93) colonies ; and such is now the 
necessity which (94) constrains them to alter their former 
(95) systems of government. The (96) history of the (97) 
present king of Great (98) Britain is a history of (99) re- 
peated (100) injuries and usurpations. — Declaration of In- 
dependence. 

V 

(l)Veterans! you are the (2)remnant of (3)many a 
well (4)fought (5)field. You bring with you (6)marks 
of (7)honor from (8)Trenton, and (9)Monmouth, from 
(]0)Yorktown. (11) Camden, (12) Bennington and (13) 
Saratoga. Veterans of (14)half a (15)century! (16) 
When in your (17)youthful days, you put (18) every- 
thing at (19) hazard in your (20) country's cause, good as 
that cause was, and (21) sanguine as youth is, (22) still 



SPELLING AND DICTATION. 357 

your (23) fondest (24) hopes did not (25) stretch (26) on- 
ward to an (27) hour like this. At a (28) period to 
(29) which you could not (30) reasonably have (31) ex- 
pected to (32) arrive; at a (33) moment of (34) national 
(35)prosperity, such as you could never have (36) 
foreseen, you are now met here to (37) enjoy the 
(38) fellowship of old (39) soldiers, and to (40) receive the 
(41) overflowings of an (42) universal (43) gratitude. But 
your (44) agitated (45) countenances and your (46) heav- 
ing (47) breasts (48) inform me that even this is not an 
(49)unmixed joy. I (50)perceive that a (51)tumult of (52) 
contending (53)feelings (54)rushes upon you. The (55)im- 
ages of the dead, as well as the (56) persons of the (57) 
living, (58) throng to your (59) embraces. The (60) scene 
(61) overwhelms you, and I turn from it. May the (62) 
Father of all (63) mercies (64) smile upon your (65) de- 
clining years, and bless them. And when you shall here 
have (66) exchanged (67) your embraces; when you shall 
(68)once more have (69)pressed the (70)hands which 
have been so (71) often (72) extended to give (73) succor 
in (74) adversity, or (75) grasped in the (76) exultation of 
(77)victory; then look (78)abroad into this (79)lovely 
land, which your (80)young (81)valor (82)defended and 
mark the (83)happiness with which it is (84)filled; (85) 
yea, look abroad into the (86) whole (87) earth and see 
(88)what a name you have (89) contributed to give to 
your country and what a (90) praise you have (91)added 
to (92) freedom, and then (93) rejoice in the (94) sympathy 
and gratitude which (95) beam upon your (96) last (97) 
days from the (98)improved (99)condition of (lOO)man- 
kind. — Daniel Webster. 

VI 

It was about the (1) middle of April that (2) Columbus 
(3) arrived at (4) Barcelona, where every (5) preparation 
had been made to give him a (6) solemn and (7) magnifi- 
cent (8) reception. The (9)beauty and (10) serenity of 
the (ll)weather, in that (12)genial (13)season and (14) 
favored (15)climate, (16)contributed to give (17)splen- 
dor to this (18) memorable (19) ceremony. As he drew 
near the place, many of the more (20) youthful (21) court- 



358 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

iers of (22) gallant (23) bearing came forth to meet and 
(24) welcome him. His (25) entrance into this noble city 
has been (26) compared to one of those (27) triumphs 
(28)which the Romans were (29)accustomed to (30)de- 
cree to (31)conquerors. First, were (32)paraded the 
(33) Indians, (34)painted (35)according to (36)their (37 
savage (38) fashion, and (39) decorated with (40) tropical 
(41) feathers and with their (42) national (43) ornaments 
of gold; after these were (44)borne (45) various kinds of 
live (46) parrots, (47) together with (48) stuffed birds and 
animals of (49)unknown (50)species, and rare plants (51) 
supposed to be of (52)precious (53)qualities ; while great 
care was taken to make a (54) conspicuous display of In- 
dian (55)coronets, (56)bracelets, and other (57)decora- 
tions of gold, which might give an idea of the (58) wealth 
of the newly (59) discovered (60) regions. After these fol- 
lowed Columbus on (61) horseback, (62) surrounded by a 
(63)brilliant (64) cavalcade of (65) Spanish (66) chivalry. 
The streets were (67)almost (68)impassable, from the 
(69)countless (70) multitude ; the windows and (71)bal- 
conies were crowded with the (72) fair, the very roofs 
were (73) covered with (74) spectators. It seemed as if 
the (75)public eye could not be (76)sated with (77)gaz- 
ing on these (78) trophies of an unknown world, or on 
the (79) remarkable man by whom it had been discovered. 
There was a (80) sublimity in this event that (81) mingled 
a solemn feeling with the public joy. It was looked upon 
as a vast and (82) signal (83) dispensation of (84) Provi- 
dence in (85) reward for the (86) piety of the (87)mon- 
archs, and the (88) majestic and (89) venerable (90)ap- 
pearance of the discoverer, so (91) different from the 
youth and (92) buoyancy that are (93) generally (94) ex- 
pected from (95) roving (96) enterprise, seemed in (97) 
harmony with the (98) grandeur and (99) dignity of his 
(100) achievement. — Washington Irving. 

IV 

Look around upon these (l)fields; they are (2)verdant 

and (3)beautiful, well (4) cultivated, and at this (5)mo- 

ment (6)loaded with the (7)riches of the (8)early (9) 

harvest. The hands (10) which till them are those of the 



SPELLING AND DICTATION. 359 

free (11) owners of the soil, (12) enjoying equal (13) 
rights, and (14) protected by law from (15)oppression and 
(16)tyranny, Look to the (17)thousand (18)vessels in our 
(19)sight, (20)filling the (21)harbor, or (22)covering the 
(23)neig'hboring (24) sea. They are the (25) vehicles 
of a (26) profitable (27) commerce, (28)carried on by men 
who (29)know that the (30)profits of their (31)hardy 
(32)enterprise * * * are (33)their own; and this 
commerce is (34) encouraged and (35) regulated by wise 
laws, and (36) defended when need be, by the (37) valor 
and (38) patriotism of the (39) country. Look to that 
(40) fair city, the (41) abode of so (42) much (43) diffused 
(44)wealth, so much (45)general (46j^happiness and (47) 
comfort, so much (48)personal (49) independence, and so 
much general (50) knowledge, and not undistinguished, 
I may be (51) permitted to add, for (52) hospitality and 
(53)social (54) refinement. She (55)fears no (56)forced 
(57) contributions, no (58) siege or (59) sacking from (60) 
military (61) leaders of (62) rival (63) factions. The (64) 
hundred (65)temples in which her (66)citizens (67)wor- 
ship God are in no (68) danger of (69) sacrilege. The 
(70) regular (71) administration of the laws (72) encoun- 
ters no (73) obstacle. * * ^= The (74) English (75) 
colonists in (76) America, generally (77) speaking, were 
men who were (78) seeking new homes in a new world. 
* * * This was (79) especially the case with the col- 
onists of (80) Plymouth and (81) Massachusetts. * * * 
The (82) distinctive characteristic of their settlement is 
the (83) introduction of the (84) civilization of (85) Eu- 
rope into a (86)wilderness, (87)without (88)bringing 
with it the (89) political (90) institutions of Europe. The 
(91)arts, (92)sciences and (93)literature of (94)England 
came over with the (95) settlers. * * * A general so- 
cial (96) equality (97) prevailed among the settlers, and 
an equality of political rights (98) seemed the natural, if 
not the (99) necessary (100) consequence. — Daniel Webster. 



CHAPTER IX. 
QUESTIONS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 

1. What elements enter into the formation of the lan- 
guage and literature of England? 

2. By what is the Teutonic element indicated in the lit- 
erature? 

3. By what characteristics is the Celtic or Norman- 
French element marked? 

4. Name the periods into which English literature is 
generally divided, and give their approximate dates. 

5. Why is poetry the earliest form of the ancient litera- 
tures? 

6. Give the essential characteristics of Old English po- 
etry. 

7. State the characteristics of Anglo-Saxon literature. 

8. What was the influence of Christianity on the forms 
of literature? 

9. Name the principal works of the Anglo-Saxon writ- 
ers. 

10. Give a brief account of Beowulf. 

11. Who was Caedmon? For what is he noted? 

12. Show the influence of King Alfred the Great on 
English literature. 

13. Why are there very few or no literary works fol- 
lowing the reign of Alfred the Great? 

14. Discuss briefly the influence of the Norman invasion 
on the language and literature of the country. 

15. What other important influences did the Norman 
invasion have that modified the literature? 

16. Discuss the French influence upon English litera- 
ture. 

17. What were the Arthurian Romances? 

18. Identify (a) Walter Mapes; (b) Robert Wace; (c) 
Geoffrey of Monmouth. 

360 



V- 



QUESTIONS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 361 

19. What was the middle English tongue? 

20. Name the most noted of the authors in the middle 
English tongue and the titles of their works. 

21. Discuss the metrical romances, and name the most 
famous of them. 

22. Give a summary of the characteristics of the period. 

23. Name some of the influences upon the literature 
during the first English period. 

24. Give a brief account of Chaucer's life, with a view 
to showing the influences on his writings. 

25. Name the most important of his works. 

26. Describe the plan of the Canterbury Tales. 

27. Make a list of the characters in the Canterbury 
Tales. 

28. Name the most important of the Tales. 

29. What are the characteristics of Chaucer's poetry? 

30. Name some of the other writers of the same period. 

31. State some important facts about Mandeville. 

32. State some important facts about Langland. 

33. State some important facts about Wyclif. 

34. Give some important facts about Gower. 

35. Discuss the importance of the ballad in this period. 

36. Make a list of some of the best known ballads. 

37. What was the importance of the invention of print- 
ing upon literature? 

38. Describe the Morte de Arthur, naming its author. 

39. What was the influence of "Morte de Arthur"? 

40. Discuss the Renaissance influence upon England's 
literature. 

41. What were the other influences upon the literature? 

42. Name some of the prose works of the period. 

43. For what are (a) Surrey, (b) Wyatt, (c) Sackville 
noted? 

44. Give a brief account of the life of vSpenser. 

45. Give an account of the " Faerie Queene." 

46. Name the other important works of Spenser. 

47. States the characteristics of Spenser's works. 

48. What can you say of English prose of the period? 

49. Name some of the great prose writers of the period, 



362 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

and state the titles of their most important works, and 
their nature. 

50. Name the titles of leading- works and their charac- 
teristics of Sir Philip Sidney. 

51. Discuss Bacon's position in English literature. 

52. (a) What special form of prose did he introduce? 
(b) Give the titles of his most important works and their 
nature. 

53. State a few important facts about (a) Chapman; 
(b) Drayton. 

54. Name the various steps in the development of the 
drama up to Shakespeare's time. 

55. (a) What were the Miracle plays? (b) Discuss 
their characters, (c) Name the most important known. 

56. In what way were the Moralities an advancement 
upon the Miracle plays? 

57. What was the Interlude? 

58. Briefly discuss the first comedies. 

59. Mention the characteristics of the first tragedy. 
Who were its authors? 

60. Discuss the classical influences upon the drama. 

61. Give a short description of the theaters in the 
Elizabethan era. 

62. State fully the characteristics of the Elizabethan 
drama. 

63. (a) What was the historical play? (b) Name the 
most important of them. 

64. (a) Describe the masque. (b) What was its 
purpose ? 

65. (a) Give a short account of the life of Christopher 
Marlowe, (b) Discuss his influence on the drama. 

66. Give an account of the life of Shakespeare. 

67. (a) Into how many classes are his plays generally 
divided? (b) Name the plays in each class. 

68. (a) What is Shakespeare's position as a poet, aside 
from his dramatic works? (b) Name his most famous 
poems. 

69. Name the sources of his plays. 

70. Briefly discuss his portrayal of characters. 



QUESTIONS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 363 

71. Name (a) ten of his best known male characters, 

(b) ten female characters. 

72. Briefly sum up the qualities of his works. 

73. Name some of the later contemporaries of Shakes- 
peare. 

74. Give a brief account of the life of Ben Jonson, and 
show his influence on the drama. 

75. Make a list of the most important of his works. 

76. What were (a) the excellencies; (b) the defects in 
his works? 

77. Name one work of each of the following play- 
wrights : (a) Ford; (b) Massinger; (c) Webster; (d) 
Beaumont and Fletcher. 

78. For what kind of work are (a) Greene, (b) Lodge, 

(c) Dekkar, (d) Drayton, (e) Herrick noted? Name 
some of the best works of each. 

79. Summarize tihe general character of the Elizabeth- 
an literature. 

80. Discuss the tendency toward Puritanism in En- 
glish literature and its influences. 

81. Identify (a) Lovelace; (&) Suckling; (c) Cowley; 

(d) Waller, and (e) Marvel. 

82. Who was the poet of the Puritan period? Give an 
account of his life. 

83. Name the most noted of Milton's poetical works, 

84. Mention his best known prose writings. 

85. Discuss the quality of his poetry. 

86. (a) What are the qualities of his prose? (b) What 
are his limitations? 

87. Name the other important prose writers of the 
period, and mention one important work of each. 

88. Describe the effect of the Restoration upon the 
literature. 

89. Name (a) the chief poets, and (b) prose writers of 
the period. 

90. What rank does Dryden hold as a poet? Why 
should he be called the chief writer of the period? 

' 91. (a) Enumerate his important works. (&) For 
what special characteristics is Dryden noted? 

92. What influence did Dryden have on later prose work ? 



364 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

93. Discuss the changes in the poetic style during the 
period. 

94. (a) What can you say of the drama of the Restora- 
tion? (b) Name the leading dramatists. 

95. (a) Describe " H'udibras." (b) Who was its au- 
thor? 

96. Tell what you can of Bunyan and his work, 

97. Summarize the general characteristics of the period 
of the Restoration. 

98. What was the Augustan period in English litera- 
ture? 

99. (a) Name the leading writers of the period, {b) 
What did their work generally consist of? 

100. Give a brief sketch of the life of Addison. 

101. Describe " The Spectator." 

102. Describe Addison's other works. 

103. Show Steele's connection with Addison. 

104. Sketch briefly Pope's career as a poet. 

105. (a) Make a list of the characteristics of Pope's 
poetry, (b) Name the principal works. 

106. (a) With what writers does the change from the 
French influence begin? (b) Discuss the work of one 
of them. 

107. (a) State Swift's position in literature, (b) Men- 
tion his principal works and their characteristics. 

108. Identify (c) Collins; (b) Gay; (c) Prior; (d) 
Young. 

109. (a) Give a short account of Defoe's work, (b) 
Mention his important writings and for what they are 
noted. 

110. What were the influences making for a change 
in the Georgian period? 

111. Name the most prominent of the authors of the 
period. 

112. (a) Discuss Samuel Johnson's position as a writ- 
er, (b) Name the works for which he is most known. 

113. For what is Oliver Goldsmith noted? Name his 
chief works. 

114. (a) State Burke's rank in literature, (b) Give 
the characteristics of his work. 



OUESTIONS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 365 

115. Name the other prose writers of the period and 
mention their leading works. 

116. Tell for what (a) Sheridan, (b) Gray, (c) Cow- 
per and (d) Crabbe are known. 

117. Give a short sketch of Burns's life. 

118. (a) Show the influence of his life on his work. 
(&) Name the most famous of his works. 

119. (a) With whom is the modern novel said to be- 
gin? (b) Give a brief sketch of the first modern novel, 

120. Make a list of the novelists of the period and one 
important novel of each. 

121. Summarize the characteristics of the Augustan 
Age. 

122. Define (a) classic; (b) romance; (c) novel as ap- 
plied to literary writings. 

123. What was Romanticism? 

124. Name the most prominent poets and prose writ- 
ers of the period. 

125. Give a short sketch of Wordsworth's life. 

126. (a) Make a list of his important works, (b) Sum- 
marize the characteristics of his works. 

127. Discuss Coleridge's poetry as to its qualities. 

128. For what excellencies are Coleridge's prose writ- 
ings noted? 

129. Briefly mention the quahties of Southey's writings. 

130. What was the Lake School of Poets? 

131. Give a short sketch of Byron's life, particulariz- 
ing his revolutionary spirit. 

132. (a) Show the influence in his works, (b) Name 
the most important of them, (c) Give the characteris- 
tics of his poetry. 

133. (a) What were the characteristics of Shelley's 
works? (&) Name the best known of them. 

134. For what poems is Keats best known ? 

135. Give an account of Lamb's works. 

136. Name the other important prose writers of the 
period. Mention a principal work of each. 

137. Discuss DeQuincey's rank as a writer. 

138. Name some other poets of the age and their most 
famous poems. 



366 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

139. Who are the prominent novelists of the period? 

140. Give an account of the Hfe of Sir Walter Scott. 

141. Name his most famous poems, and enumerate 
their excellent points. 

142. (a) Discuss his rank as a novelist. What was the 
nature of his novels? (b) Make a list of the ten best 
known of his novels. 

143. Show the influence of the French Revolution on 
the literature of England. 

144. (a) What two great periodicals were founded 
during this period? (b) What was their purpose? (c) 
Name some of the distinguished writers connected with 
them. 

145. Contrast the Revolutionary Period with that of 
the Elizabethan Age. 

146. Name the important elements that were the fore- 
runners of the Victorian Age, 

147. Give a short account of the characteristics of the 
literature of the Victorian Age. 

148. (a) Name the great historians of the Age. 

(b) Name the great scientists. 

(c) Make a list of the most famous poets. 

(d) Name the leading novelists. 

149. (a) Give a short sketch of Macaulay's life, (b) 
Name his principal works. 

150. Mention the qualities of his works, their ex- 
cellences and their defects. 

151. Discuss Carlyle's rank as a writer, mentioning 
the qualities of his works. 

152. Enumerate his most important works. 

153. Discuss Newman's connection with the literature 
of the age. 

154. (a) For what qualities in his works is Matthew 
Arnold noted? (b) Name his works. 

155. Briefly mention Walter Pater's importance as a 
prose writer. 

156. (a) What were the characteristics of Browning's 
poetry? (b) Mention some of his famous works. 

157. Make a list of the works of Elizabeth Barrett 
Browning. 



QUESTIONS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 367 

158. Give a short sketch of Tennyson's life. 

159. Briefly discuss Tennyson's work as a poet with a 
view to showing that he is the poet of the age. 

160. Make a list of his important works. 

161. (a) Give an account of the " Idylls of the King." 
(b) What was their source? 

162. Who were the Pre-Raphaelite Brotherhood? 

163. Mention a work of each of the minor poets. 

164. For what are (a) Clough and (b) Fitzgerald 
noted? 

165. Identify (a) Darwin; (b) John Stuart Mill; (c) 
Huxley; (d) Spenser in connection with the literature of 
the period and tell the nature of their writings. 

166. Give a short account of Dickens's qualities as a 
novelist. 

167. (a) Name his most famous works and tell the 
subjects treated. (&)What was Dickens's aim in writ- 



ing 



168. Mention the qualities of Thackeray's novels. 

169. Make a list of the ten best works of Thackeray. 

170. (a) Discuss George Eliot's rank as a novelist. 
(&)In what respects does she differ from the preceding 
writers in her work, (c) Make a list of her best known 
works. 

171. (a) Briefly state Trollope's connection with the 
novels of the period, (b) Name his best known works, 
and their characteristics. 

172. Mention the qualities of Stevenson's work and 
show his importance as a writer. 

173. Discuss Ruskin's works and name some of his 
most important works, 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATtf^E. 

1. The Teutonic or Anglo-Saxon (Old English) and the Nor- 
man-French or Celtic influences. 

2. The Teutonic element is indicated by its sense of fatalism, se- 
riousness, strength, ruggedness, vigor and its progressiveness, with 
its high ideals ; its love of honor and respect for womankind. 

3. The Celtic element is recognized by its fancy, its lightness, its 
imagination, gaiety, mental alertness, capacity for emotion, enthusi- 
asm, word painting, rhythm and sense of the realistic. 

4. (1) The Anglo-Saxon Period, 450-1066 A. D. 

(2) The Norman-French Period, 1066-1350 A. D. 

(3) The Age of Chaucer, 1350-1400 A. D. 

(4) The Renaissance Period: The Revival of Learning, 1400- 
1500 A. D. 

(5) The Ehzabethan Age, 1500-1625 A. D. 

(6) The Puritan Period, 1625-1660 A. D. 

(7) The Period of the Restoration, 1660-1700 A. D. 

(8) The Augustan and Georgian Ages, 1700-1750 A. D. 

(9) The Romantic and Revolutionary Ages, The Age of Ro- 
manticism, 1750-1837 A. D. 

(10) The Victorian Age, 1837-1901 A. D. 

5. Because of the absence of writing among the early English 
tribes, and the necessity for memorizing the songs, in order to trans- 
mit them to later generations. Metrical and rhythmical forms were 
of the utmost aid in doing this. With the invention of printing, the 
songs, ballads, etc., were committed to writing and the necessity for 
these aids was lessened and prose took a high place. 

6. Language was highly inflected ; alliteration was common ; the 
line was made up of two shorter lines with four accents, and sep- 
arated by a pause; powerful descriptions of the natural elements; 
sense of fatalism ; presents the old English national ideal. 

7. See 2 and 6. 

8. The subjects of the literature were changed; paraphrases, songs, 
ecclesiastical chronicles took the place of the war songs ; the harsh- 
ness of the old Teutonic songs was tempered by the Christian spirit. 

9. Song of Widsith, the Far-Traveler, Beowulf, the Anglo-Saxon 
Chronicle, the Fight at Finnesburgh, the Fight at Maldon, Caed- 
mon's Paraphrase, Bede's Ecclesiastical History, the Wanderer, the 
Wife's Complaint. 

10. A terrible monster, named Grendel, attacks the palace of 
Hrothgar, King of the Gar-Danes, where he holds high festival 
with his thanes. On one occasion thirty of them are carried off by 

368 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 369 

this monster with no one able to defeat her. Beowulf, the hero of 
the Geats, hears of the calamity, and volunteers to defeat the plans 
of the Grendels. He is feasted by the Danish King. Grendel ap- 
pears again during the night and kills one of Beowulf's companions 
whom Beowulf seeks to save. In the contest he pulls off one of the 
creature's arms. The following night, in revenge for the injury done to 
her son, Grendel's mother comes and carries off one of the Danish 
knights. The following day Beowulf seeks to put an end to these 
inroads, and tracks the monsters to their dweUing in a swampy den. 
After a long and terrible contest duel, the monster and his mother 
are killed. Beowulf then returns to his native land. Fifty years 
later, while serving on the throne of the Geats, a monster fire- 
breathing dragon devastates his lands and carries off vast treasures 
to add to his already vast hoards. Aided by one of his faithful 
thanes, Beowulf kills the dragon, seizes the riches and divides the 
treasures. In the combat, however, the hero is fatally injured and 
dies. His body is burned and a sea-mark is raised in his honor. 

11. An untutored Anglo-Saxon, who in his later years received 
divine inspiration and wrote a paraphrase of the Bible (Genesis) in 
verse. 

12. An lo-Saxon prose received its great impetus with Alfred the 
Great. He translated the Consolations of Beothius, History of 
Orosius, Ecclesiastical History of Bede, wrote several text-books 
for his people, and began the writing of the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle. 

13. Because of the fighting in England after the death of Alfred 
the Great through the Norman Conquest, in 1066. 

14. The Norman-French became the rulers of England ; the cen- 
tral authority was taken possession of by William I., Duke of Nor- 
mandy; all the high positions were occupied by those speaking the 
French language ; the mass of people, the English, became serfs and 
vassals ; French became the official language, but English remained 
the language of the mass of people. 

15. In bringing England into closer connection with the continent 
of Europe ; the institution of chivalry was introduced ; the Celtic 
element was injected into the literature; the legend, the chanson de 
geste, and the poetic romances became a part of the literature of 
the inhabitants. 

16. The literature became varied ; a large number of works were 
written ; works written in dialects ; the Arthurian romances and 
other forms of literature became common ; the characteristics of 
the Celtic people (see 3) made their influence felt in the liter- 
ature; the sole object became to amuse and entertain. 

17. The Celtic legends of Arthur became the subject of several 
metrical romances, all involving love, romance, adventure. Cour- 
age, fidelity, ideaHsm were the ethics of the poetry. The legend of 
the Holy Grail became assimilated, giving the poetry a backbone 
for the plot in the entire series. These were translated into the 
French and were introduced again into England where they were 
translated and became the source of the works of some of the poets 
of the Victorian Age. 



370 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

18. (a) Mapes was a churchman who wrote " Courtiers' Tri- 
flings " and several satirical poems. It is thought that he wrote 
the " Quest of the Holy Grail." 

(&) A resident of the islands of Jersey who wrote a " Roman de 
Brut," based on the History of Geoffrey of Monmouth. 

(c) A churchman who wrote the " Chronicle History of Britain," 
a history of Britain traced back to the days of Brutus the Roman. 

19. There were three dialects in England, the Northern, the Mid- 
dle and the Southern English. The mass of the people spoke the 
Middle dialect, and it was this dialect that Chaucer made the basis 
of modern English as a result of his literary work. The Middle 
dialect was a fusion of the Anglo-Saxon and the Norman-French 
languages. 

20. Layamon's " Brut " ; Orm's " Ormulum " ; Robert of Glou- 
cester's " Chronicle." 

21. Toward the end of the 13th century, the French romances and 
shorter songs were translated into the Middle English tongue, and 
written in verse. The most famous of these are Alexander, Guy of 
Warwick, Richard Coeur de Lion, Amys and Amylon. The char- 
acters are those of the knighthood, and the ladies of the court; all 
treat of love and adventure. These works contain a large number 
of the French words. 

22. The formation of the Middle English or national language; 
the Celtic and French elements find their way prominently into the 
literature of the period ; the topics treated are of wide range ; the 
ideals of knighthood are made prominent in the metrical romances; 
it becomes possible to have a more varied, more brilliant and deli- 
cately expressed literature than was possible before the Norman 
Conquest. 

23. England becomes unified as a nation with a national language ; 
the foundations of English constitutional liberty have been laid; the 
refinements of chi .airy and knighthood are at their highest ; the 
feudal system begins to break down ; the common people come for- 
ward as a class of society; people begin to do their own thinking; 
the industrial and social revolutions take place for the first time in 
English history. 

24. Life of Chaucer. Geoffrey Chaucer, born in London, 
about 1340; ancestors of the upper class of merchant; first infor- 
mation about him as a page in the household of Princess Elizabeth, 
daughter-in-law of Edward III. ; lived among the nobility ; went 
with an English army to France; captured and later ransomed by 
the English ; given a position in the king's household ; was sent 
abroad on several occasions as commissioner of the king on diplo- 
matic missions ; visited Italy and the rest of the continent ; was 
made Comptroller of the Customs of the Wool, and later executor 
of the estate of one of the king's wards ; was a skilled diplomat and 
an excellent business man ; was pensioned by three kings, Edward 
III., Richard II., and Henry IV. ; was a member of Parliament, 
1386; retired to Westminster where he died in 1400. 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 371 

25. Works. Minor poems — Dethe of Blanche the Duchesse ; 
The Compleynte unto Pite ; Compleynt of Mars ; The Parlement of 
Foules. More important works — Canterbury Tales, Romaunt of 
the Rose, Troilus and Criseyde, the House of Fame, Legend of 
Goode Wimmen. 

26. Plan of Canterbury Tales. In Southwark, at the end 
of the London Bridge, once stood the Tabard Inn. This was 
the point of departure for all pilgrimages to the tomb of Thomas a 
Becket, in Canterbury. Harry Baily, the innkeeper, accompanies 
the band of pilgrims and suggests that each member of the party 
tell four tales, two on the way to the Cathedral and two on the re- 
turn home, and that the one telling the best story should have a 
supper at the expense of the rest. There are only twenty-four out 
of the proposed one hundred twenty-eight stories and tales that 
Chaucer proposed to write. The first tale that is told is the 
Knighte's Tale of Palamon and Arcite. 

XJ . Members of the Pilgrimage. The Innkeeper, the Knight, 
the Friar, the Merchant, the Clerk of Oxford, the Pardoner, 
the Sheriff, the Nun, the Squire, the Yeoman, the Priests, the Frank- 
lyn, the Haberdasher, the Weaver, the Carpenter, the Dyer, the 
Tapycer, the Cook, the Physician, the Plowman, the Miller, the 
Sergeant-at-law, the Manciple, the Summoner and Chaucer himself. 

28. Tales. Palamon and Arcite by the Knighte; the Chanti- 
cleer and the Fox by the Nun's Priest; Patient Griselde by the 
Clerk of Oxford ; Hugh of Lincoln by the Prioress. 

29. Characteristics of Chaucer's Works. He uses the rhymed 
pentameter or terza rima, the rime royal (seven-line stanzas 
of ten syllables each) and the eight syllable line with four 
accents ; uses the heroic couplet ; descriptions clear and vivid, strik- 
ing and detailed ; a gentle, sympathetic humor pervades his works ; 
portrays characters of all classes, all modeled after the people of 
his time ; love of outdoor nature ; power of description and proper 
appreciation ; the chivalric ideal ; fixed the middle English tongue 
as we now know it, writing as he did in the Midland dialect. 
Sources of his tales and poems are the French and the Italian, 
especially Boccaccio. 

30. Mandeville, Langland, Wyclif and Gower. 

31. John Mandeville. born about 1300, author (?) of Voy- 
age and Travail of Sir John Maundevil, written in middle English 
dialect ; a compilation of travellers' tales ; original work in French, 
translated into Latin and English ; popular style, simple, direct, vivid 
descriptions. 

32. Wdliam Langland. (1332- ?) Wrote Piers Plowman, 
a poem in mixture of the Southern and Midland dialects ; largely 
allegorical ; a social satire of the age ; voices the social discontent of 
the age, and preaches the equality of man and the dignity of labor; 
poet of the lower classes; uses many words of French origin. 

33. John Wyclif, 1324P-1384; a religious man of deep edu- 
cation; the first great figure in the English Reformation; translated 



372 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

the Bible in the vernacular; fixed the prose language; influential on 
the people of his age and the EngUsh prose. 

34. John Gower, 1325?-1408; man of learning; wrote in French, 
Speculum Meditantis; in Latin, Vox Clamantis; in English 
Middle dialect, Confessio Amantis; a large number of dull tales, 
few entertaining; wrote against Wyclif's preachings. 

35. During this period some of the ballads best known in the 
history of English literature were written, the authors in most cases 
being unknown. These have been collected in the two compilations 
of Bishop Percy and Professor Childs. They have served as mod- 
els for the later and more modern ballads; they treat of the his- 
torical events, the adventures of the well known people, love and 
depict the events of the time; written in quatrains, each line con- 
taining four meters and three meters alternating and rhyming on 
the vowel e; they have been handed down by word of mouth, and 
have been changed from their original wording; they are most pro- 
lific in the north of England and the southern part of Scotland, the 
region of the continuous struggle between England and Scotland. 

36. Chevy Chase, Robin Hood, Sir Patrick Spens, Bevis of 
Hampton, the Bishop and Robin Hood. 

37. The writing of manuscripts, a costly and tedious process, was 
done away with, with the result that the cost of books was cheap- 
ened and the reading public became larger, and the influence of lit- 
erature was broadened and made more democratic. 

38. This is a compilation (by Thomas Malory) and adaptation 
from the French romances about Merlin, Vivian, Launcelot and 
Tristram, so arranged as to form an epic series of stories. 

39. They have served as the source for Tennyson's Idylls of the 
King, Swinburne's Tristram of Lyoness, Arnold's Tristram and 
Morris's Defence of Guinevere. 

40. The continued broadening of the national feeling in England; 
the position reached by England among the powers in Europe; the 
Church of England established; the discovery of America and the 
voyages of the Cabots ; the strengthening of the royal house ; the 
increased wealth of the nation; the poorer classes making their sur- 
roundings better. 

41. The capture of Constantinople by the Turks in 1453 gave to 
the civilized world the masterpieces of the ancient writers; these 
were introduced into western Europe, copied, translated and imi- 
tated. Greek was introduced into the universities ; travel to the 
Italian country became common. 

42. Plutarch's Lives by North; Homer's Iliad by Chapman; Ital- 
ian tales and stories. 

43. (a) Surrey was the first to introduce the unrhymed five-met- 
ered verse; the first to use blank verse. (&) With Surrey intro- 
duced the Italian sonnet, (c) Wrote a poetical work, descriptive 
of his time, The Mirrour for Magistrates, and wrote the first En- 
glish tragedy, Gorboduc. 

44. Born in 1552 and died in 1599; of poor parents; assisted by 
a wealthy man ; received his education at the Merchant Taylora 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 373 

School in London, and was a sizar at Cambridge ; became a tutor 
after his graduation ; became a friend of Sidney and Raleigh ; ap- 
pointed secretary to Lord Gray, Lord Lieutenant of Ireland in 1580; 
later years received a grant of several thousand acres of land in the 
south of Ireland; in 1598 his castle was destroyed by fire set by the 
Irish ; crossed over to England, and died the following year in pov- 
erty; lies buried in Westminster Abbey. 

45. The Faerie Queene is an allegory; the Red Cross Knight rep- 
resenting Holiness ; Una, Truth ; Duessa, Falsehood ; the Knight 
likewise may represent the Reformed Church, Duessa the Roman 
Catholic Church. The living characters are Sir Artegal, typical of 
Justice, and the Lord Grey de Wilton. The Queene represents 
Queen Elizabeth, and others of a similar nature in the book; the 
false Florimel represents Mary Queen of Scots. 

46. Works. Shepheardes Calender, Faerie Queene, Colin Clouts 
Come Home Again, Epithalamion, Four Hymns and Prothalmion. 

47. Characteristics. Next to Shakespeare, Milton and Chaucer. 
Spenser ranks as the greatest English poet ; allegorical in 
the Faerie Queene ; harmonious and melodious musical combina- 
tions of words ; nine-lined stanzas intricately rhymed in the Faerie 
Queene ; lofty and ideal sentiments ; love of the beautiful ; full of 
obsolete forms of expression, and lacks fire and energy and enthusi- 
asm ; is the poet's pet, and has had remarkable influence on the 
poets ; is the forerunner of the great Elizabethan poetry. 

48. The prose of the day was usually written in the Latin because 
it was the language of politics and diplomacy and of the scholarly 
and serious work done on the continent. The church used that lan- 
guage solely in its works and its correspondence and communica- 
tions with the clergy and the foreign countries. The Utopia of More, 
the philosophical works of Bacon, Milton's polemics all were writ- 
ten in that language. However, the English prose was made the 
vehicle of communication of literary work by such men as Hooker, 
Chaucer (Tale of Meliboeus), Wilson (Arte of Rhetorike), all of 
which were in a heavy, cumbrous style. Later the use of prose be- 
came more common and attention was given to its structure and 
polish. Sidney's Arcadia, Malory's Morte de Arthur and Jonson's 
Tim.ber were written in prose, besides a very large number of other 
works. 

49. Richard Hooker, an ecclesiastic, wrote the Laws of Ecclesias- 
tical Polity; Raleigh, History of the World; some few letters and 
sonnets ; Lyly, Euphues, or the Anatomy of Wit ; and Eupheus and 
England ; rambling narratives, alliteration, balanced sentences, fan- 
ciful, roundabout rhetoric, style for style's sake ; long, tedious sen- 
tences. 

50. Philip Sidney (1554-1586), the ideal gentleman, wrote 
the Defense (Apologie) of Poesie, Astrophel and Stella, a collec- 
tion of songs and sonnets, and the Arcadia, a pastoral romance in- 
terspersed with eclogs, portraying the beauties of rural life. 

51. Bacon holds one of the highest ranks accorded to a writer of 
prose. His works consist of philosophical work, the essay form 



374 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

which he introduced into literature, and his insistence upon the in- 
ductive method in science, thus becoming one of the greatest scien- 
tific writers. He adds to the breadth of the Hterary horizon of the 
Elizabethan or Renaissance Period. Most of his works were writ- 
ten in Latin. 

52. (a) The essay. (&) The Novum Organum, The Advance- 
ment of Science Learning, The Novum Organum being a part of 
the second book. Natural History, the New Philosophy, Essays on 
Truth, Friendship, Death, etc. 

53. (a) Chapman (1559-1634), translated the Odyssey and 
the Iliad in meter, and finished Marlowe's Hero and Leander. 

(b) Drayton (1563-1631), most voluminous of the pre- 
Shakespearian poets; Polyolbion, a lengthy description of the towns, 
rivers and mountains of Britain, with the legends connected with 
each ; the Barons' Wars and the Heroic Epistle of England ; minor 
ballad. Battle of Agincourt. 

54. The Drama took rise in the portrayal of the Biblical events at 
the religious festivals ; is one of the elemental instincts of human 
nature; man's love for dramatic representation. The Miracle and 
Mystery plays, the Morality and the Interlude. 

55. The Miracle and Mystery Plays. Miracle play is the 
dramatic portrayal of some saint or religious man and his 
miracles. Mystery play is the dramatic representation of some 
biblical incident. Name miracle play is applied to both forms. Some 
of the subjects: the ascent into heaven, the descent of the Holy 
Ghost, the temptation in the Garden of Eden, the Flood, the Coming 
of the Wise Men ; cf. the Passion Play at Oberammergau every 
tenth year ; at first spoken in Latin ; played on scaffolding in front 
of the Cathedrals, were very popular in the 14th to 16th centuries ; 
four collections or cycles according to place where manuscripts 
were kept ; York, 48 plays ; Chester and Coventry Cycles ; actors 
originally priests from the churches in the vicinity; later lay actors 
and then actors selected by the guilds when they took charge of 
their presentation; became magnificent spectacles and very popular. 

56. The Moralities developed from the former; the char- 
acters were abstract qualities such as Faith, Hope, Charity, Old 
Age, Vice, Goodness, the Flesh, the Devil, who was generally the 
buffoon of the play; they were allegorical of real life, portrayed 
some comic action and contained coarse humor ; generally uninter- 
esting; were generally in rhyme and contained some little songs. 

57. The Interlude was originally any short, dramatic in- 
cident in which the incident was closer to real life ; sometimes 
given at banquets and contained some singing, and at other times 
were introduced between the acts in a morality to offset some par- 
ticularly serious act ; and to give interest and variety ; the fore- 
runner of the present drama ; they lack artistic finish and were 
written in mingled prose and doggerel verse ; they trained actors 
and were the forerunners of the true drama. Originated with John 
Heywood (1497-1580), whose "The Four P's " is the best known. 

58. True Drama. The first comedies are: Ralph Royster Doy- 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 375 

ster, produced in 1551, written by Nicholas Udall, master of Eton; 
based on a comedy by Plautus, characters artificial, plot clear and 
connected, natural dialogue, characters of the middle class, written 
in rhyme. Gammer Gurton's Needle (1562), by Bishop Still, in 
which characters are from the lowest classes, and shows nothing 
of the classical influence; language and humor coarse. 

59. Gorboduc or Ferrex and Porrex, by Thomas Norton and 
Thomas Sackville, acted in 1561, is the first tragedy; written in 
blank verse ; source of plot early British annals ; fashioned after 
the tragedies of Seneca; little action on the stage, large amount of 
bloodshed, messenger announces battles, etc., chorus gives moral 
observations at end of acts. 

60. Classical Influence upon the Drama, principally in the 
three unities of time, place and action ; due to revival of 
Latin and Greek and introduction into England as result of Re- 
vival of Learning ; . unity of time, and action, all that is conceived 
in one day only; action occurs in one place or very near it; char-- 
acters remain the same throughout the play; battles and other im-* 
portant events were announced by messengers ; chorus at the end of 
acts; no humor in tragedy and vice versa. 

61. The Elizabethan Theatre and its Actors. Theatres built 
of stone or wood, round or octagonal in shape; open 
to the sky ; the stage on one side, the pit where the audience stood 
was directly in front of it ; those that paid for seats were in gal- 
leries protected against inclement weather ; actors and auditors in 
pit exposed to the weather ; nobles and wealthy sat on the stage ; 
the stage a bare platform with curtain across the middle, separating 
the front from the rear of the stage ; little or no scenery used, signs 
being used to denote change of scene ; in first plays female parts 
taken by boy actors ; superior acting to please the audience ; actors 
licensed by the King. The first theatres in London were the The- 
atre and the Globe. 

62. In the broadening out of the national spirit, the people de- 
manded the production of dramas, which would show them life not 
only in England but in the far-off foreign lands. Human nature and 
all sorts of elements were taken up — wit, learning, vulgarity, blood- 
shed and love of combat, affection, songs, dances, England's great- 
ness — every kind of a subject from every source was taken up. The 
drama was a true reflection of the spirit of the time. 

63. (a) The historical plays found their sources in the Chron- 
icles and Histories that had come down to the people of the age, 
and generally treated of the British Kings, some of the traditions 
being still within the memory of those living, (b) The True Trag- 
edy of Richard III., the Troublesome Rayne of King John, Edward 
II., Richard TI., Richard III., Henry IV., Henry V. 

64. (a) The masque was an elaborate scenic reproduction of al- 
legorical pageants, tableaux, with gorgeous scenery and heavy mech- 
anisms, accompanied by lyric and declamatory songs, (b) They 
generally served as a means of entertainment for the King and the 
wealthier nobles, on account of their enormous cost. 



376 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

65. (a) Christopher Marlowe was born in Canterbury, in 1564, 
the son of a shoemaker. His education was received at the King's 
School, Canterbury, and at Corpus Christi College, Cambridge, 
where he received his bachelor's degree at the age of nineteen. The 
first play was written three years later and achieved for him suc- 
cess beyond his expectations, Tamburlane the Great. The play is 
grandiose eloquence, full of word pictures of great strength, force 
and beauty ; the verse stately and magnificent. He was killed in a 
brawl in a London tavern in 1593. 

(&) Marlowe gave dignity to the drama; he was the first to use 
blank verse in the drama, and thus paved the way for Shakespeare. 

66. Shakespeare was born at Stratford-on-Avon, on April 26th, 
1564, the son of a prosperous citizen and leather dealer and glove 
maker. His education was received at the grammar school of his 
native town, from which he was taken away when about fourteen 
years old. He married Anne Hathaway when he was about eighteen 
years of age, and three years later went to London to make his 
fortune. He became an actor in a minor part, but gradually rose 
till he filled the position of manager. During this time, from a 
writer of plays, he became the foremost dramatist of the world. In 
his later years, with the wealth that he had accumulated, he retired 
to his birthplace and there spent the remainder of his natural life. 

67. According to Professor Dowden : 

I. Pre-Shakespearian group, touched by Shakespeare, Titus An- 
dronicus, and 1 Henry VI. 

II. Early Comedies, Love's Labor Lost, Comedy of Errors, Two 
Gentlemen of Verona, Midsummer Night's Dream. 

III. Marlowe-Shakespeare group, early history, 2 and 3 Henry 
VI. and Richard III. 

IV. Early Tragedy, Romeo and Juliet. 

V. Middle History, Richard II. and King John. 

VI. Middle Comedy, Merchant of Venice. 

VII. Later History, history and comedy united, 1 and 2 Henry 
IV., Henry V. 

VIII. Later Comedy, rough and boisterous comedy, Taming of 
the Shrew, Merry Wives, — joyous, refined, romantic, — Much Ado 
About Nothing, As You Like It, Twelfth Night, — serious, dark 
ironical, — All's Well, Measure for Measure, Troilus and Cressida. 

IX. Middle Tragedy — Julius Csesar, Llamlet. 

X. Later Tragedy— Othello, Lear, Macbeth, Antony and Cleo- 
patra, Coriolanus, Timon of Athens. 

XI. Romances — Pericles, Cymbeline, Tempest, Winter's Tale. 

XII. Fragments — Two Noble Kinsmen, Henry VIII. 

XIII. Poems — Rape of Lucrece, Venus and Adonis, Sonnets. 

68. (a) As a poet, Shakespeare holds first rank. He never re- 
peats himself in treatment, phrase or word picture; his descriptions 
of persons, places, natural events are realistic; there is a fulness of 
figures of speech throughout his poetry; he sees the world and 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 377 

nature in all their aspects, somber, bright, highly colored and color- 
less* 

(&) See 67, XIII. 

69. Shakespeare took his plots wherever he could find them; 
he used stories which were not unfamiliar to his audiences. North's 
" Plutarch," Holinshed's " Chronicle," stories founded on or. 
adapted from the Italian novels; old plays were worked over and 
sometimes whole parts were literally taken from other works. 

70. His character delineation is perfect and realistic; every per- 
sonage grows and develops along natural, human lines as the play 
prosfresses. All phases of human character are treated ; the noblest 
and the lowest ; the person of high rank and those in the very dregs 
of society are portrayed ; his characters come from every land and 
act as they would in their own environments ; every phase of char- 
acter development is illustrated, and no character is repeated. 
Shakespeare has portrayed the largest number of distinct characters. 

71. (a) Hamlet, Julius Caesar, Brutus, Cassius, Othello, lago, 
Falstaff, Prince Hal, Romeo, Richard III., Shylock, Bottom, Ariel, 

(&) Ophelia, Portia, Desdemona, Isabella, Jessica, Imogen, Kath- 
erine, Cleopatra, Miranda, Juliet. 

72. See 68, 69, 70. 

73. Ben Jonson, Francis Beaumont, John Fletcher, John Webster, 
John Ford, Philip Massinger. 

74. Ben Jonson was born in 1573. He was brought up by his 
stepfather and received his education at Westminster School. Find- 
ing the trade to which his stepfather apprenticed him unendurable, 
he escaped to Flanders and enlisted in the English army. In 1596 
he produced his first tragedy. Two years later appeared his first 
comedy. Every Man in His Humor. He became very learned in 
history and literature and was looked upon as the authority in the 
drama in his later days. He was made the first official poet-laureate. 
He died, and was buried in Westminster Abbey. 

75. Every Man in His Humor, Sejanus, Catiline, Volpone, The 
Alchemist, Epicene, or the Silent Woman, Timber, and an English 
Grammar for the Benefit of All Strangers, and several Masques. 

76. (o) Never takes liberties with historical facts; is accurate; 
works abound in learning and sweet lyrics; realistic. 

(&) Heavy, tedious, marred by low intrigues; pessimistic humor. 

77. (a) The Broken Heart; (b) A New Way to Pay Old Debts; 
(c) The Duchess of Malfi; (d) Philaster and the Maid's Tragedy. 

78. (a) Greene was a dramatist of Shakespeare's time. He is 
remembered for his slander of the latter and some beautiful lyrics 
appearing among them. The Song of the Shepherdess is the best 
known, (b) Thomas Lodge was a dramatist and novelist. Rosa- 
lind or Euphues' Golden Legacy, a story by him served as the basis 
for Shakespeare's As You Like It. His works are full of beautiful 
lyrics, (c) Dekkar, another of Shakespeare's contemporaries. His 
plays contain a number of pretty songs, (d) Drayton was a poet 
and is best remembered for his ballads. The Ballad of Agincourt, 
is the best known, {e) For his beautiful lyrics in book form, 



378 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

" Hesperides." The best known are To the Virgin, To make Use 
of Time, Noble Numbers, To Daffodils. 

79. The literature of the period is a reflection of the manysided- 
ness and complexity of the life of the period. The many dis- 
coveries and inventions, the spread of learning and knowledge, the 
broadening out of the national spirit, all found their expression in 
the literary works of the day. Foreign literatures were introduced, 
translated and imitated. 

80. James I. succeeded Elizabeth to the throne of England. Dur- 
ing the latter's reign the Puritan element was gaining in strength. 
The folly of the two kings, James I. and Charles I., precipitated the 
movement. The old spirit of acquiescence to sovereign authority 
as exemplified in the persons of Henry VII. and Henry VIII., was 
not to be satisfied any longer. Autocratic as she was, Elizabeth 
always surrendered gracefully when the people made themselves 
heard. Culture and learning remained in the people's mind but they 
were no longer productive. They had worked themselves out dur- 
ing the Elizabethan Age. As soon as the Puritans came to power, 
the forms of harmless amusement were forbidden by law. Play- 
houses were ordered closed ; actors were forbidden to play on 
penalty of imprisonment or death. Everything that smacked of 
pleasure was repressed. The old styles of light, fantastic poetry, 
comedies, burlesques were no longer produced. The Puritanic 
movement may be called the reaction to the Age of Elizabeth or 
the Renaissance movement. 

81. (a) Noted for his beautiful songs and poetry, the most fa- 
mous being To Althea from Prison, To Lucasta on Going to the 
Wars; (b) for his lyrics, none of which is remarkable, (c) In- 
troduced the Pindaric ode. The Davideis is an unfin- 
ished epic; (d) one of the metaphysical poets, best known for his 
Go Lovely Rose, (e) A Puritan poet and politician. The Song of 
the Emigrants in Bermuda is his best work. 

82. John Milton, the poet of the Puritan Period, was born in 1609, 
the son of a scrivener in comfortable circumstances. His education 
was received at home, at the St. Paul School, and at Christ's Col- 
lege, Cambridge. At the age of twenty he received his B. A. and 
the Master's Degree three years later. Being destined for the 
Church he remained at home and continued his studies, but later 
decided not to take orders. A period of travel then followed, dur- 
ing which time he traveled over the Continent. On his return he 
decided to make literature his work, in which determination his 
father agreed. He later joined the Puritan forces, and became Sec- 
retary of State under Cromwell. He retired on the restoration of 
Charles II. to the throne and lived in seclusion with his three daugh- 
ters. During the time he was at work on his most famous poems, 
Paradise Lost and Paradise Regained, he became blind. He died 
in 1674. 

83. Paradise Lost, Paradise Regained, L' Allegro, II Penseroso, 
Lycidas, Ode on the Nativity, Comus, a Masque, Samson Agonistes, 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 379 

Sonnets, " On His Blindness " ; " On the Late Massacre in Pied- 
mont." 

84. Eikonoklastes, Tractate on Education, Areopagitica. 

85. Poetry-verse full of harmony and melody; charm of musical 
combination of words, high spirituality, of chastity and sublimity 
of his thinking ; pictures are gigantic and embodiments of his high 
ideals; for strength of imagination, delicate accuracy, and sug- 
gestiveness of language and harmony of versification he is un- 
rivalled, almost unapproached ; blank verse is majestic. 

86. (a) Prose — generally written in Latin and primarily for the 
state; these were full of personal invective; unfinished orations in 
their high Puritanic ideals and magnificent passages ; other works in 
English and on personal topics, e. g. Divorce, Marriage. 

(b) He has no dramatic power and little sense of humor; his 
range is narrower than Shakespeare's ; lacks the keen perception of 
individuality in others ; too much of a controversialist and personal in 
his invective and argumentation ; lived childhood in a large city 
and hence shows a lack of love of nature. 

87. (a) Thomas Fuller, "Church History" and "Worthies of En- 
gland"; (b) Jeremy Taylor, "Holy Living," "Holy Dying," "Lib- 
erty of Prophesying"; (c) Sir Thomas Browne, " Religio Medici"; 
(d) Izaak Walton, " The Compleat Angler." 

88. The intellect took the place of the imagination. Controversy 
and disputations were the nature of the chief prose works. Religion 
and the liberties of the people was the fundamental subject in these. 
The style is forcible, and the Anglo-Saxon element predominates, 
excepting in the small number of beautiful songs and lyrics, which 
seem to belong rather to the previous period. King Charles II. 
had spent his intervening years in France and had kept his court 
there. The period was a reaction on the Puritan period. The 
dominant tone of the literature was licentious, immoral, vulgar and 
most degrading. The dramas of the time are corrupt, and corrupt- 
ing, with no artistic sense ; the structure is poor. During this period 
we have the foundation of the Royal Society with the publication 
of the scientific works of Newton and others. 

89. (a) Dryden, Butler, Collins. 

(b) Congreve, Wycherly, Vanbrugh, Etheridge, John Bunyan. 

90. Dryden is the literary figure of the Restoration. He is vig- 
orous, forcible, uses the end-stopt line ; the plays are without any 
artistic structural merit, though they are remarkable for their 
literary workmanship. He is a master of sarcasm. He was the 
first to show the value of prose as a medium of forcible expression. 

91. (a) (1) poetry — Astrea Redux, Annus Mirabilis, Absalom 
and Achitophel, Mac Fleckno, Religio Laici, Alexander's Feast, St 
Cecilia's Day, a translation of Virgil's ^nid. 

(2) Dramatic — All's for Love. 

(3) Prose — Essay on Dramatic Poesy, Of Heroic Plays, Dis- 
course on Satire. 

(&) For his masterly scarcasm and biting satire. 



380 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK 

92. He set the model of a clear, strong, natural prose for his 
successors, instead of the highly latinized and cumbrous prose of 
the previous writers. He wrote letters, epistles, dedications and 
prefaces that are in a natural easy style, full of wit, sense and that 
served as models for the next century. 

93. It soon became the tendency to write after a model agreed 
upon by the literary authorities of the day. Good sense, good taste 
and the classic works were the models employed. The intellect was 
appealed to instead of the emotions. Formal correctness, style, 
structure were aimed at instead of the content, thus lacking in 
strength and real sentim.ent. 

94. (a) The drama of the Restoration contains very little that 
is good for study. The subjects treated are of the most degraded 
and degrading. The artistic element is at a low ebb, and the struc- 
ture of the poorest. Rather than forming a part of the true liter- 
ature, they form a hiatus in the literary development of the poetry. 
There is nothing lasting in them, and they are not read or even 
glanced at today except by the student of the drama, (b) The 
leading dramatists were Congreve, Dryden, Wycherly, Etheridge 
and Vanbrugh. 

95. (a) Hudibras is a burlesque on the popular amusements of 
the day. The leading character is the justice of peace and knight 
Hudibras who, with the aid of his clerk Ralpho, is engaged in 
ludicrous adventures against the harmless amusements of the popu- 
lace and at the same time engaged in courting a lady, consulting a 
lawyer and the like, (fo) Samuel Butler. 

96. Bunyan's " Pilgrim's Progress " was written while he was 
languishing in prison, as a punishment for maintaining his religious 
beliefs. He was brought up the son of a tinker, following in the 
same trade as his father. He served in the Puritan army. While 
a young man he was seized with a religious mania, and became a 
Baptist preacher. 

The value of the work lies in the naturalness of the characters 
and the simplicity of the style. The language is of the plainest and 
homeliest. The diction is more Anglo-Saxon than Celtic or Nor- 
man. He set a high ideal in religious duty. 

97. See 90-96. 

98. The period from 1702 to 1744. 

99. (a) Joseph Addison, Richard Steele, Alexander Pope, Jona- 
than Swift, James Thompson, William Collins, John Gay, Matthew 
Prior, Edward Young, Daniel DeFoe. 

(b) The development of social prose and the novel, and the 
breaking away from the stylistic form in poetry. 

100. Addison was born in 167^, the son of a clergyman of 
learning. His education was received at the Charter House School 
and at Oxford where he distinguished himself as a scholar. He al- 
lied himself with the Whig party, then in power, and used his pen 
in their behalf, thus securing for himself a pension from the govern- 
ment. This enabled him to travel on the continent. He returned 
to England in 1702. Two years later he gained the favor of the 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 381 

Duke of Marlborough on account of his poem, The Campaign, in 
which he celebrated the latter's victory at Blenheim. He held several 
political positions. During this time he, with Richard Steele, es- 
tablished the Spectator, after the Tatler had been discontinued, 
to which latter paper both Addison and Steele contributed articles. 
In 1716 he married the Countess of Warwick, and was made Sec- 
retary of State. Three years later he died and was buried in West- 
minster Abbey. 

101. The Spectator was a daily paper established by Addison and 
his friend, Steele, in the early part of 1711. In all 555 numbers of 
the paper appeared, it was to thio paper that he contributed the 
famous De Coverly Papers. 

102. His poems, paraphrases and Cato, his best known 
dramatic work. It was distinctly a political drama and fitted 
in with the times. The style is heavy, but is a poor selection as a 
drama. The classic idea of unity of place is strictly followed. The 
play is not read excepting by students of the drama. His prose is 
simple and intelligible, and thougn finished and polished to the 
highest degree, it is natural and graceful. Humor pervades all his 
prose work. The topics of the times, the weaknesses and foibles of 
society of his day are treated with a grace and felicity and humor 
that robs them of their sting. 

103. Established The Tatler and was a coworker with Addison 
on The Spectator. 

104. Alexander Pope was the son of an English Catholic. His 
education was rather desultory, but a natural aptitude made up for 
the loss in opportunities. At the age of 21, in 1709, his Pastorals 
were published. Two years later the Essay on Criticism was pub- 
lished. He translated the Iliad and the several classical works. 
He retired to his villa at Twickenham, where he resided for the 
rest of his natural life. He died in 1744. Pope was deformed, and 
was a man of jealous, suspicious character. He had a number of 
staunch friends. Swift, Gay and Atterbury. 

105. (a) His works are full of epigram and point, balanced 
structure ; the poetry is in the heroic couplet, with the end-stop, 
resulting in somewhat of a monotony of style ; the diction is select, 
a change in a word resulting in the value of the couplet ; witty, 
forcible and full of apt quotations ; the diction is somewhat arti- 
ficial, and his poetry contains a large number of stock phrases. 
Notwithstanding, he is the poet of the period. 

(&) Translations of the Iliad and the Odyssey, the Dunciad, 
Rape of the Lock, Essay on Man, Epistles. 

106. (a) Thomson, Young, Gay, Blake, Gray. 

(b) Gray was one of the earliest to break away from the formal- 
ism of English literary style, which movement resulted in the Ro- 
mantic movement. His best known poems are " The Elegy," 
" Ode to Spring," " Ode on a Distant Prospect of Eton College," 
" Progress of Poetry," and " The Bard." They arouse a sympa- 
thetic feeling in every reader ; rhythmical, splendid imagery, intense 
love of humankind and of nature; though classic in form the verse 



382 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

is musical and there is a grand harmony between word and 
thought. 

107. (a) Swift ranks as the greatest master of satire and ridicule 
in the English language. 

(&) Tale of a Tub, Drapier's Letters, Letters to Stella, Gulliver's 
Travels. He is scornful, bitter and sarcastic; uses the homeliest and 
most direct phrases ; simple English words ; direct and straightfor- 
ward in his style. 

108. (a) Collins, a poet, noted for his Ode to Evening, Dirge 
in Cymbeline. (b) Gay was the author of a number of comedies, 
The Beggar's Opera and his Fables, (c) Prior, a poet remembered 
for his burlesque on Dryden's " Hind and the Panther," the " Town 
Mouse and the Country Mouse." (d) Young wrote " Night 
Thoughts," a poem on life, death, immortality. 

109. (a) Daniel Defoe was a contributor to the newspapers and 
periodicals of the day on all sorts of topics. (&) He is remembered 
chiefly for his " Robinson Crusoe," " History of the Plague," and 
several novels and tales of realism, but of an unsavory character, 
" Captain Singleton," '' Colonel Jacques," and " Moll Flanders." 
He is sometimes said to be the father of the English novel. His 
works are characterized by such a minuteness of detail as to make 
them appear real and lifelike. 

110. The political advance made by the people against the narrow 
minded Hanoverian kings, the right to publish the debates in the 
House of Commons, the rise of the latter House, a broader national 
enthusiasm, the awakening of Methodism and the Established 
Church, the agitation against slavery, all of these made it the age 
of the orator and the debater. The industrial world was being rev- 
olutionized. Science was making its way by leaps and bounds, and 
England took her position as the leading nation in the world. Her 
dominion was extending to all parts of the earth. 

111. Samuel Johnson, Oliver Goldsmith, Edmund Burke, David 
Hume, Edward Gibbon, Richard Brinsley Sheridan, Thomas Gray, 
William Cowper, George Crabbe, Robert Burns, Henry Fielding, 
Samuel Richardson, Tobias Smollett, and others. 

112. (a) His style is ponderous, formal, balanced, full of Latin 
words and sayings, full of good sense. 

(&) London, the Vanity of Human Wishes, the Rambler, and 
the Idler, his Dictionary of the English Language, Journey to the 
Hebrides, and the Lives of the Poets. 

113. The Traveler, the Deserted Village, the novel, the Vicar of 
Wakefield, the two comedies, She Stoops to Conquer and The Good- 
Natured Man, several compendiums of knowledge, reviews and 
books on order, History of Animated Nature, History of Rome and 
Life of Beau Nash. 

114. (a) Burke ranks as one of the masters of political prose. 
He was an orator in the sense that his speeches were on political 
questions of the highest class, involving a reasoning and philosophy 
on the conception of society. He was broad and philosophical in 
his treatment, ornate and picturesque in his style. He conceived of 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 383 

the political democratic condition as it is today. (&) His chief 
works are an essay *' On the Origin of the Sublime and the Beau- 
tiful " ; " Reflections on the Revolution " ; " Speech on Concilia- 
tion " ; " Trial of Warren Hastings " ; " Letters on a Regicide Peace." 

115. David Hume, "A Treatise of Human Nature," "Essays," 
" Pohtical Discourses " ; Adam Smith, " Wealth of Nations " ; Ed- 
ward Gibbon, " Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire," " Essay on 
the Study of Literature." 

116. (a) Sheridan is noted for his two comedies, "The Rivals" 
and " The School for Scandal," and " The Critic." (&) Gray is a 
poet remembered for his poems, the " Elegy Written in a Country 
Churchyard," " Ode to Spring," " Ode on a Distant Prospect of 
Eton College," " The Bard." (c) Cowper is famous for his " Task," 
a series of essays in verse, "John Gilpin's Ride," (d) George 
Crabbe wrote " The Library," " The Village," " The Borough " and 
" The Tales of the Hall." 

117. Burns was born near Ayr in Scotland, the son of a poor, 
hard-working peasant, yet intelligent, upright, God-fearing, from 
whom Robert inherited these sterling qualities. His education was 
very meagre. At an early age he was compelled to assist his par- 
ents in the work, and when after his father's death, his efforts to 
earn a comfortable living were fruitless, he determined to emi- 
grate to the West Indies. His reputation as a writer of songs had 
become known and a small volume of his poetry was issued. He 
went to Edinburgh, did more writing and then returned to his 
native place to marry Jean Armour. He was appointed an excise 
officer and continued his farming, but was unsuccessful. He was 
compelled to sell his farm and take a mean small house in Dum- 
fries. He died in 1796, at the age of 38. 

118. (a) His low birth, his life among the peasantry, his strug- 
gles to make both ends meet, the sterling virtues inherited in his 
parents, all are shown in his works. He treats of these in his 
poems. He appeals to us as a man, enthusiastic in his Scotch pa- 
triotism and love of country, the love for his fellow-beings, the 
sweetness of his melody, these are the chief characteristics of his 
works. His pictures of the homely life of the Scotch peasantry are 
famous. 

(b) The Cotter's Saturday Night, Tam O'Shanter, To a Mouse, 
To a Mountain Daisy, Bannockburn, The Twa Dogs, Highland 
Mary, Duncan Gray, The Mountain Daisy, A Man's a Man for A' 
That, Should Auld Acquaintance Be Forgot, Auld Lang Syne, these 
make him the national poet of Scotland and give him high rank 
as a poet of the poor and common folk. 

119. Samuel Richardson. The modern novel is a development 
from the tales and stories, both in poetry and prose, that were 
handed down to the period. In the previous period, the tales of 
adventure written by Defoe and the story written by Goldsmith 
lacked the essential qualities that go to make up the modern novel. 
The plots in the former were merely strings of incidents ; the plot 
in the latter is a weak one. The plots in the novels that appear in 



384 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

this period by Richardson, Fielding, and the other novehsts are 
consecutive, develop gradually, and grow out of the nature of the 
characters ; human nature is considered in the v^^orkings of the 
individuals. 

120. Fielding — Tom Jones, Joseph Andrews, History of Jonathan 
Wild the Great. 

Richardson — Clarissa Harlowe, Pamela, Sir Charles Grandison. 
Tobias Smollett — Roderick Random, Peregrine Pickle, Hum- 
phrey Clinker. 
Laurence Sterne — Tristram Shandy, Sentimental Journey. 

121. The general tone of the eighteenth century literature is its 
conservatism and formalism, a tendency to observe certain models 
for style, diction and construction. Prose takes a leading place. 
New forms, such as the novel, are used and find currency. The 
style is generally ponderous in the beginning, but gradually becomes 
lighter. The subjects treated are those of the homely life of En- 
gland, its scenery and human sympathies ; a tendency becomes no- 
ticeable to leave the demand for correctness in art ; poetry is brought 
nearer to nature; the view of life becomes broader. 

122. (a) Belonging to the first rank in literature or generally ap- 
plied to the works of the Greek and Latin authors; (b) a form of 
prose fiction dealing with idealized and imaginative characters and 
not keeping to verisimilitude or reality; (c) a fictitious tale, por- 
traying real life, and especially the emotions of the character ; it 
deals with ordinary people and their natural actions. 

123. Romanticism or the Romantic Movement resulted in the 
emancipation of the individual from the bonds of the corrupt and 
slavish government of England into the democracy of the Reform 
Bill of 1832, and the desire in literature for all work to reflect 
spontaneously and unaffectedly all the qualities in nature and in 
man, and be free to follow its own fancy in its own way. It is a 
movement of emancipation in all directions. 

124. (o) William Wordworth, Samuel Taylor Coleridge, Robert 
Southey, Lord Byron, Percy Bysshe Shelley, John Keats, Leigh 
Hunt, Thomas Moore, Thomas Campbell, Thomas Hood. 

(&) Charles and Mary Lamb, William Hazlitt, Sydney Smith, 
Thomas De Quincey, Walter Scott, Jane Austen. 

125. Wordsworth was born in Cumberland County, England, in 
1770. He was brought up by his uncle, sent to St. John's, Cam- 
bridge, where at the age of twenty-one he took his degree. He 
was so ardent about the French Revolution that he determined to 
join the Revolutionary forces but his relatives compelled him to 
desist. A few of his poems attracted the attention of the public. 
He was appointed a stamp collector, which position required very 
little of his time, but brought him in a comfortable income. He 
devoted all his time to literature. In 1843, on the death of Southey, 
he was appointed Poet Laureate, to which position Tennyson suc- 
ceeded him in 1850. 

126. (a) An Evening Walk and Descriptive Sketches, Intima- 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 385 

tions on Mortality, Excursion, the Highland Reaper, She Was a 
Phantom of Delight. 

(b) Was a master of the sonnet form; used the Spenserian stan- 
za ; prolix in his poems, simplicity and beautifying, a keen love of 
nature; a good deal of work is tedious and lacking in enthusiasm. 

127. Some of the subjects are supernatural, imagery, musical, 
lack of effort, natural, an imaginative creative power of the highest 
order. He was a master of literary criticism. 

128. See 127. 

129. Southey was not a great poet, though he is generally asso- 
ciated with Coleridge and Wordsworth, and he was made Poet 
Laureate from 1813 till his death in 1843. His prose excels his 
poetry, which is greatly exaggerated and unreal, yet contains a few 
excellent passages. 

130. The Lake School of Poets consisted of Wordsworth, Cole- 
ridge and Southey, all three of whom lived in the " lake district." 

131. Byron was born in 1788, the son of a profligate army officer 
and Catherine Gordon, a Scotch woman with a fitful and passionate 
temper which he inherited. His education was received at a private 
school and the public grammar school at Aberdeen. He then went 
to Harrow and later to Cambridge, where he made an indifferent 
scholar. His first work was the " Hours of Idleness," which was 
caustically reviewed in the Edinburgh Review. This brought forth 
a most bitter invective in the form of reply from Byron, under the 
title of " English Bards and Scotch Reviewers." A trip on the 
continent was then taken. For the next five years he wrote some 
of his best work. He married in 1814, and a year later deserted his 
wife and their child. He went to Italy where he stayed for several 
years, during which time he wrote a great deal of poetry. In 1823 
he went to Greece to enlist in the aid of the revolutionists, but 
contracted fever and died shortly after. 

132. (a) (c) He possesses the qualities of a great poet, vigor, 
descriptive power, great emotional capacity, but he lacks thought 
and sympathy with his fellow men. He is revolutionary; he seeks 
to describe his own passionate nature in his works. They may be 
said to be his own poetic biography. He is selfish, to the extreme; 
he possesses no adequate conception of beauty, his beauty is riotous ; 
he portrays no beautiful feminine character. 

(b) Childe Harold, the Corsair, Giaour, Lara, the Bride of 
Abydos, Cain, Manfred, Visions of Judgment. 

133. (a) His works show a distinct hatred for the conventional, 
and customary ; he was revolutionary by nature ; they show a won- 
derful rhythm and beauty of description; a remarkable lyrical gift, 
a spiritual sadness hovers over all his work, and a keen love of 
nature. 

(b) Revolt of Islam, Queen Mab, The Cenci, Prometheus Un- 
bound, the Skylark, the Sensitive Plant, Adonais. 

134. Endymion, Lamia, Eve of St. Agnes, Hyperion, Ode on a 
Grecian Urn. 



386 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

135. Lamb is noted principally for his essays, which are character- 
ized by a vein of pleasantry and a fancy, pathetic in some instances. 
He is unaffected and natural and adopts a somewhat archaic style. 
A gentle sense of humor pervades all of his works. " The Tales 
from Shakespeare," " Essays of Elia," are the best known of his 
writings. 

136. (a) William Hazlitt was a brilliant essayist, reviewer and 
critic; Characters of Shakespeare, (b) Sidney Smith, an essayist 
remarkable for the expository and argumentative features of his 
works; essays, (c) Hunt, a poet and essayist, noted for his poems, 
Abou Ben Adhem, Imagination and Humor, Solomon's Ring, Wit 
and Fancy. 

137. An essayist of great individuality and interest. His writings 
are voluminous. The characteristics of his works are their forced 
humor, keen and delicate irony, wonderfully impassioned, and as a 
critic, his prose ranks very high. Murder Considered as a Fine 
Art, The Revolt of the Tartars, Confessions of an English Opium 
Eater, Autobiographical Sketches. 

138. (a) Moore, The Harp That Once Through Tara's Hall, 
Lalla Rookh, Oft in the Stilly Night, The Last Rose of Summer, 
Life of Sheridan, the Epicurean, (b) Campbell, Ye Mariners of 
England, Hohenlinden, Exile of Erin, Gertrude of Wyoming, The 
Battle of the Baltic, Lochiel's Warning. (c) Hood, Dream of 
Eugene Aram, The Song of the Shirt, Plea of the Midsummer 
Fairies, Bridge of Sighs. 

139. Jane Austen and Sir Walter Scott. 

140. Walter Scott was born in Scotland. His father was an at- 
torney. His health being poor he was instructed at home. In his 
early youth he showed a marked predisposition to read ballads and 
the poems of ancient days and the historical and romantic 
tales, especially of Old France and his native country. In 1792 he 
was admitted to the bar and seven years later became the sheriff of 
Selkirk. A collection of border ballads was issued by him and a 
translation of a drama of feudal history, Gotz von Berlichingen. 
He wrote a good deal of poetry. In 1814 was issued his first novel, 
Waverly, without his name. A number of other novels followed, and 
when later, the printing house with which he was connected failed 
he set himself to paying off the enormous debt of $650,000. He 
wrote volume after volume in order to clear his name, and finally 
succeeded. But this effort had so impaired his health that he was 
compelled to travel in order to regain his strength. He died very 
shortly after, in 1832, a martyr to his idea of honor. 

141. The Lay of the Last Minstrel, the Lady of the Lake, Mar- 
mion, Rokeby, Lord of the Isles. His poetry is simple, straight- 
forward narrative, vigorous and energetic, vivid descriptions, forci- 
ble portrayals of character. 

142. (a) Scott was a natural story-teller, and may be considered 
the father of the historical novel. His delineation of Scotch life 
and customs, the portrayal of the Scotch characters, the description 
of the country, its grandeur, are incomparable. He does not hesi- 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 387 

tate to distort facts in carrying his points, making the plots not 
strictly accurate. He treats of life not only in his native land, but 
of the life in foreign countries, France and the East. His stories 
are full of movement, life and vigor. His characters are realistic, 
their acts lifelike. 

(&) Waverly, The Bride of Lammermoor, Ivanhoe, The Talis- 
man, Woodstock, Fair Maid of Perth, Anne of Geierstein, Guy 
Mannering, The Antiquarj^ the Betrothed. 

143. It excited in the writers of the period a revolutionary feeling, 
a spirit of emancipation, a longing for freedom, and inculcated a 
boldness and radicalism of thought. It had the opposite influence 
upon Burke, who looked upon his Revolution as an anarchistic 
movement. 

144. (a) The Edinburgh Review, The London Quarterly, Black- 
wood's Magazine, the Westminster Review, (b) Political and liter- 
ary, (c) Francis Jeffrey, William Hazlitt, Coleridge, Lamb, Words- 
worth, Shelley, Southey, De Quincey, Landor. 

145. See 40, 41, 43, 47, 48, 50, 51, 54, 60, 61, 62, 64, 68, 69, 70, 72, 
79 for Elizabethan literature; see 121, 123, 126, 127, 129, 131, 
133, 134, 143, 144 for the literature of the Revolutionary or Ro- 
mantic Period. 

146. The railway car was first used, the electric telegraph and 
telephone invented, the first cable under the ocean laid, the first 
steamship crossed the ocean, the people received the political 
franchise, the wide spread of education and knowledge. 

_ 147. The great variety of the literary effort in prose, poetry, fic- 
tion, science, essays, history, philosophy, all of a high standard; 
prose surpasses poetry ; is more extensive ; the growth and develop- 
ment of the novel in all its phases, psychological, problematic, 
ethical, social and ethical ; no one great typical figure ; the spread 
of education and the commonness of the public school, library, 
newspaper, periodicals of all classes ; the great power of literature 
in the improvement of the social, industrial and political con- 
ditions ; the Victorian poets, more finished, realistic and philo- 
sophical than those of the preceding periods ; prose the commoner 
and more usual vehicle of thought, due largely to the spread of the 
scientific spirit. 

148. (a) Macaulay, Froude, Green, Hallam, Carlyle, Freeman. 
(&) Darwin, Wallace, Spencer, Huxley, Tyndall, Lyell. (c) Tenny- 
son, Browning, Elizabeth Barrett Browning, Swinburne, Morris. 
(d) Dickens, Bulwer-Lytton, Thackeray, Eliot, Meredith, Reade, 
Trollope, Bronte. 

149. (a) Born in 180O, the son of a merchant and early agitator 
against slavery; educated at a private school, then in Trinity Col- 
lege, Cambridge; made remarkable progress in literature and letters, 
taking all the prizes ; very poor in the sciences and mathematics ; 
obtained a fellowship; admitted to the bar, but turned his attention 
to politics and literature; became a member of the House of Com- 
mons from a " rotten borough " and readily forged to the front 
rank; well known as an orator and debater; obtained a lucrative 



388 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

position in the Indian service on the bankruptcy of his father ; on 
return to England he again entered Parliament; lost his seat soon 
after and retired from public life ; in 1852 he again became a mem- 
ber representing Edinburgh ; died in 1859. 

(b) Works. History of England, in five volumes; Essays on 
Warren Hastings, Milton, Clive, Bosw^ell's Johnson, Sir William 
Temple, William Pitt, Earl of Chatham, Lays of Ancient Rome, 
Battle of Naseby and Battle of Ivry. 

150. History is not thoroughly accurate, but is exceedingly in^ 
teresting; minute method and novelistic in his treatment; partisan; 
does not recognize the true bearing of social and industrial develop- 
ment; contrasts in character are crude, violent; a Whig history; 
no true authority; displayed the true worth of the Stuart and the 
Puritan; positive in his statements and finds great enthusiasm in his 
English nationality; style sprightly and enlivened. 

General qualities — judgments are not authoritative or reliable; 
style clear and lucid ; sentences and paragraphs are models of 
structure; sentences full of contrast and balance, repetition to 
elucidate ideas ; concrete in illustration ; knowledge of detail re- 
markable ; climax and hyperbole ; descriptions are vivid and strik- 
ing; lack of spirituality; epigrammatic; often sacrifices truth to 
get the " novelistic " effect. 

151. Influence powerful upon thought of his age; style in- 
tensely strong, vivid and picturesque ; utterly unconventional ; 
erratic and eccentric; a philosopher able to grasp the true bearing 
of underlying social and economic forces upon the people; de- 
nounces the materialism of his age; a reformer who denounces the 
shams of his day ; caustic wit ; satiric ; characters of heroic magni- 
tude, none of the ordinary size, disjointed, forceful, explosive; 
recitals stirring, rugged metaphors and hyperbolic figures of speech ; 
dramatic; coins words wherever he finds it necessary (German 
influence) ; sentences are loose, earnest and with Anglo-Saxon 
diction. 

152. Life of Schiller, translation of Wilhelm Meister, Sartor 
Resartus, Heroes and Hero Worship, Life and Letters of Oliver 
Cromwell, History of Frederick the Great, the French Revolution, 
Past and Present, Reminiscences, Essay on Burns. 

153. Cardinal Newman is by far the greatest of the spiritual 
writers of the Age. He did much to break down the religious 
prejudices by showing the underlying beauties and strength of 
the Roman Catholic religion. His 'principal works are Lyra 
Apostolica, Tracts for the Times, Parochial and Plain Sermons, 
Apologia Pro Vita Sua, the Idea of a University and Loss and 
Gain. Newman is exact and concise in his style, wonderfully simple 
and direct ; in his controversial writings he is slightly ironical and 
satiric. He is the most perfect prose writer of the period. 

154. (a) Characteristics. Poetry — is thoughtful, cultured and 
intellectual with little feeling; lacks enthusiasm; rather thoughtful 
and pessimistic ; is analytical, and shows a struggle between faith 
and reason; marked by calm repose. Prose — full of intellect; in- 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 389 

cisive, lucid, critical; most disagreeable things are stated in pleas- 
ing manner, without any sting; master of irony; humor, light and 
fanciful; style is classic and refined; judgments well balanced. 
(&) Poetry — Sohrab and Rustum, Balder Dead, The Scholar 
Gypsy, Memorial Verses, Stanzas from Grande Chartreuse, Dover 
Beach and Thyrsis, Tristram and Iseult, the Forsaken Merman. 
Prose — On translating Homer, Culture and Anarchy, Literature and 
Dogma, Introductions to Ward's English Poets, and on educational 
topics. 

155. Pater's prominence is due to his extremely fastidious and 
scholarly tastes as a writer. He is a stylist, whose ideal was a 
perfection of finish, an apt and novel use of words, and his sen- 
tences are replete with cadences and harmonies. His best known 
works are Marius the Epicurean, Imaginary Portraits, Apprecia- 
tions and Studies in the History of the Renaissance. 

156. (a) Browning was never a popular poet, because of the in- 
tellectuality of his subjects; they were too far beyond the sympathy 
of his readers; deals largely in baffling, psychological problems, and 
the treatment difficult and obscure; characters are all strong; 
dramatic monologs ; cannot portray a commonplace man or woman ; 
exhibits a wide sympathy and an optimistic philosophy; style is 
markedly individualistic, and lacks the graceful, artistic finish. 

(&) Paracelsus, A Blot in the 'Scutcheon, The Ring and the 
Book, Dramatic Idylls, and the shorter poems. Rabbi Ben Ezra, The 
Pied Piper of Hamelin, A Grammarian's Funeral, How They 
Brought the Good News from Ghent to Aix. 

157. The Seraphim and Other Poems, Sonnets from the Portu- 
guese, Poems before Congress, Last Poems. 

158. Born in 1809, son of a cultured rector of Somerby, Lincoln- 
shire; educated at the Louth Grammar School, where he came to 
hate the master because of his severity; at the age of 11 returned 
home and received further education at the hands of his father, who 
prepared him for entrance into Trinity College, at the age of 19, 
but he did not remain to take a degree; he devoted all his time to 
study and poetry ; had many friends among the literary class ; great 
sorrow on account of death of Arthur Henry Hallam ; married in 
1850; became poet-laureate and published In Memoriam the same 
year ; lived a retired life ; died in 1892. 

159. A lyricist of the highest order; poetry in the early period 
was light and marked rather by a beauty of expression than a depth 
of thought; the death of Hallam brought forth the profoundest 
feeling within him, and he began to write of deeper and more serious 
subjects; poetry is marked by a wide outlook and intense sympathy 
with the aspirations of humanity ; thoroughly English, his characters, 
scenes and topics all viewed from his English standpoint; exquisite 
sense of beauty; marvellous power of vivid and minute descrip- 
tion; perfect matching of sound and sense; general loftiness and 
purity of tone; lover of nature; careful in the selection of words 
and phrases; metrical structure perfect; lacks the highest type of 



390 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

creative imagination; recurrence to the thoughts of the classical 
writers ; becomes too conventional at times. 

160. Poems by Two Brothers, In Memoriam, The Princess, Ode 
on the Death of Wellington, Charge of the Light Brigade, Idylls of 
the King, Enoch Arden, dramas of Queen Mary, Harold, The Fal- 
con, the Cup, Becket and Robin Hood, Locksley Hall, Death of 
Oenone, the Revenge, Maud. 

161. (a) The general subject of the Idylls is the Celtic legends 
of King Arthur and his knights of the Round Table. The stories 
in this collection are The Coming of Arthur, Gareth and Lynette, 
Geraint and Enid, Merlin and Vivien, Lancelot and Elaine, The 
Holy Grail, Pelleas and Ettarre, The Last Tournament, Guinevere 
and the Passing of Arthur. Instead of becoming the great national 
epic that Tennyson had in mind, it is rather a string of stories, the 
thread of Arthur's interest running through them all and emphasiz- 
ing his unsuccessful attempt to found an ideal kingdom. 

162. The term is generally identified with a group of seven — 
William and Dante Gabriel Rossetti, William Holman Hunt, John 
Everett Millais, James Collinson, George Frederick Stevenson and 
Thomas Woolner — whose literary efforts make their appearance in 
The Germ, in which most of the early work of Morris and Rossetti 
appeared. Their aims were to encourage simplicity and naturalness 
in art and literature; and to bring forth the inherent qualities of 
medieval art. 

163. Rossetti, The Blessed Damozel, Ballads and Sonnets; Mor- 
ris, Sigurd the Volsung, The Dream of John Ball; Swinburne, 
Atalanta in Calydon. 

164. (a) Amours de Voyage, a collection of poems original and 
simple in style, thoroughly scholarly, though modern in tone and 
thought, (b) For his paraphrase of the Rubaiyat of the Persian 
poet, Omar Khayyam. 

165. (a) Darwin was a great scientist and naturalist whose ex- 
position of the doctrine of evolution in his " Origin of Species " and 
" Descent of Man " have made him the leader of the " evolutionists." 

(b) One of the leading philosophers of the Age. He is noted for 
his Elements of Political Economy, History of British India, A 
System of Logic, Liberty, and Principles of Political Economy; 

(c) Huxley was another one of the scientists and philosophers for 
whom the Age is remarkable. His Essays fill nine volumes, and 
though technical are clear and lucid and can easily be read by lay- 
men, (d) By far the best known of the Victorian philosophers and 
scientists. His Education emphasized the value of the sciences in 
education. His best known books are his Data of Ethics, First 
Principles, Education, 

166. Extraordinary wealth of invention shown in the number and 
variety of characters portrayed; child characters are natural and 
true, depicting scenes from his own childhood ; artist of child 
world ; broad sympathy with humanity ; keenness of observation 
and descriptive powers ; a social reformer who did much with 
the pen to improve social and industrial condiJ:ions of the slum; 



ANSWERS IN ENGLISH LITERATURE. 391 

quaint humor, fantastic imagination, caricature, a love for the 
pathetic to heighten effects; characters of heroes are colorless; 
plots poorly constructed but run along easily and smoothly; gram- 
mar sometimes poor; style clear and graphic, though not finished 
or elegant ; inspired his readers with a love for their fellow men in 
the lowest strata of life, thus becoming a powerful social and 
ethical force. 

167. (a) Works. Sketches by Boz, Oliver Twist, David Copper- 
field, Little Dorritt, Bleak House, A Tale of Two Cities, Dombey 
and Son, Nicholas Nickleby, American Notes, Martin Chuzzlewit, 
Our Mutual Friend, Old Curiosity Shop. 

(b) See 166. 

168. He possessed an inimitable irony and a supreme power of 
sarcasm, which was aimed at whatever was base and mean ; unex- 
celled pictures and portrayals of the characters of the middle classes 
and the upper classes ; described their society, workings of their 
minds, prejudices and foibles; realistic in action and character; 
lenient and tender to human weaknesses which he often satirized ; 
plots in many works are of superior excellence; style is natural, 
genial and graceful, and individualistic in the extreme. 

169. Vanity Fair, Barry Lyndon, Henry Esmond, The Virginians, 
The Newcomers, History of Penedennis, The Roundabout Papers, 
and The Four Georges and English Humorists of the Eighteenth 
Century; some poems of minor importance. 

170. (a) (&) Her power lies in her delineation of character, 
chiefly among the lower middle classes of the Midlands ; purpose is 
ethical ; analytic ; portrays the inner workings of their minds to their 
minutest detail ; general view of life is pessimistic ; wishes to im- 
press the inexorableness of nature's laws and the moral laws ; 
characters develop as real human characters do ; traces of humor ; 
characters deliver aphorisms ; exactness and scholarliness in style ; 
descriptions of nature have a wonderful charm ; full of figures of 
speech ; diction is often too scientific and abstract ; plots develop 
naturally. 

(c) Scenes from Clerical Life, Adam Bede, Silas Marner, FeHx 
Holt, Radical, The Mill on the Floss, Middle-march, The Im- 
pressions of Theophratus Such, and translations from the German 
metaphysical works. 

171. (a) Trollope is a reflection of Thackeray in his realism. He 
has written about a wide range of characters, all varied and diverse, 
(fc) Barchester Towers, The Warden and The Eustace Diamonds. 

172. Stevenson's works mark a decided return to the romanticism 
of Scott's novels. His works are full of the spirit of youth, 
bravery, cheerful, wholesome spirit that so characterized his noble 
life. His best known works are Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde, Treasure 
Island, Kidnapped, St. Ives, The Master of Ballantrae, Familiar 
Studies of Men and Books, A Child's Garden of Verses. 

173. (a) He was a man of noble character, and generous impulses 
which he showed in his works, which are a mixture of art criti- 
cism and social economy ; a humanitarian in all things ; preaches 



392 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

against the spirit of commercial and material things so rife in his 
age; has an ornate, flowery style, detailed, with vivid, striking and 
forcible description of Italian, Swiss and English and Scotch 
scenes; urges the beauty that appeals to the spiritual side of man's 
existence, not the sensual ; an interpreter of the social and ethical 
forces of the period ; a word painter of poetry in prose. 

(&) Modern Painters, The Seven Lamps of Architecture, The 
Stones of Venice, Lectures on Architecture and Painting, the Po- 
litical Economy of Art, Unto this Last, Munera Pulveris, The 
Crown of Wild Olives, Sesame and Lilies, Fors Clavigera, Praete- 
rita. 



CHAPTER X. 

QUESTIONS IN BOOKKEEPING. 

1. What is m'eant by bookkeeping? 

2. What is a business transactions 

3. Give a definition of value. 

4. (a) Name the two kinds of bookkeeping. (&) Tell 
the essential differences between them. 

5. Make a list of the accounts that generally appear in 
all sets of books. 

6. What is meant by an account ? 

7. What are personal accounts? 

8. State some of the accounts that are not personal ac- 
counts, 

9. What is meant by (a) the debit side; (b) the credit 
side of an account? (c) What do they show? 

10. What do ledger accounts show ? 

11 Tell what is meant by closing an account. 

12. What does the cash account show? 

13. What does the interest account show? 

14. What does the discount account show? 

15. What does the expense account show? 

16. What does the proprietor's account show? 

17. What does the merchandise account show? 

18. What does the bills account show? 

19. Distinguish between (a) the bills receivable account 
and (b) the bills payable account. 

20. When the debit side of a personal account is greater 
than the credit side, what does the balance express ? 

21. Explain the difference between (a) resources and 
(b) liabilities. 

22. Classify as a resource or a liability each of the fol- 
lowing: (a) Bills payable; (b) bills receivable; (c) real 
estate; (d) cash; (e) merchandise; (/) balances of ac- 
counts due to others. 

393 



394 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

23. What is a trial balance? 

24. What is a balance sheet? 

25. What does a balance on (a) the debit side of the 
cash account show? (&) a balance on the credit side? 

26. What does a balance (a) on the debit side of the 
expense account show? (6) on the credit side? 

27. The balance on the credit side of the bills payable 
account is $450. (a) What does that mean? (b) The 
balance is $240 on the debit side, what does that show ? 

28. When the balance on the debit side of the bills re- 
ceivable account is $50 (a) what does that indicate? (b) 
on the credit side? 

29. (o) What is the meaning of a balance of $10 on the 
credit side of the interest account? (&) If the balance is on 
the other side, what difference is that? 

30. Why is the day book the most important of all books ? 

31. (a) In single entry bookkeeping, where should all 
the original entries of transactions on account be made? 
(b) In which book should all transactions in which cash 
is either paid or received on account be entered ? 

32. Which of the three books in single entry bookkeep- 
ing are books of "original entry"? Why so called? 

33. (a) Name the most important books in single entry; 
(&) in double entry. 

34. What is the purpose of the day book? 

35. What is the purpose of the cash book? 

36. What is the journal? What is meant by journaliz- 
ing? 

37. Is a journal necessary? Give the reasons for your 
answer, 

38. What is the ledger? What is meant by posting? 

39. Is the ledger an essential book? Why? 

40. Make out the form for a day book, 

41. Make out the form for a journal. 

42. Make out the form for a sales book. 

43. Make out the form for the cash book. 

44. Make out the form for the ledger. 

45. Define (a) inventory; (b) balance; (c) acceptance. 

46. Give the meaning of each of the following conven- 



QUESTIONS IN BOOKKEEPING. 395 

tions and abbreviations: (a) 40 off; (b) %o — 60^or %o 
(c) per; (d) f.o.b.; (e) L. P.; (/) B. L. 

47. What is meant by "goods sent on memo"? 

48. What is meant by (a) gross receipts; (b) net gain; 

(c) indexing the ledger? 

49. Give the meanings of the following abbreviations or 
conventions: (a) @; (&) exch.; (c) pd; (d) shpt. ; (^) 
ult.; (0 prox.; (g) E. E. ; (/?) do.; (i) frt. 

50. Write the abbreviations or conventions in common 
use for (a) cash book; (&) debit; (c) amount forward; 

(d) pieces; (e) collect on delivery; (f) posted; (g) bal- 
ance. 

51. (fl) What is meant by commercial paper? (b) Give 
an example. 

52. What is a note or a promissory note? 

53. Name five necessary or important items or parts of 
a promissory note, 

54. What is the difference between (a) a negotiable and 
(b) a non-negotiable note? 

55.. (a) Write a negotiable note to the order of Charles 
A. Schieren for $500 due in 4 mos. with interest at the 
rate of 6%, (b) Write the check in payment of the note 
in (a). 

56. (a) How many parties are necessary to a note? (&) 
Give the technical terms applied to each, (c) How many 
are necessary to a draft? (d) Give the technical names ap- 
plied to each. 

57. Draw a draft. 

58. What is the difference between (a) an indorsement 
in blank, an indorsement in full and an indorsement with- 
out recourse; (&) a joint and several promissory note and 
an ordinary promissory note? 

59. Write a joint and several promissory note payable to 
the order of Henry Norr, at the Park National Bank of 
Albany, N. Y, 

60. Write the indorsement of the note in answer to No. 
59 (a) in full; (b) in blank; (c) without recourse. 

61. (a) What is an invoice? (b) Give an illustration. 

62. Write out in proper form the invoice for the fol- 
lowing: Brinkers & Co., Grocers, New York, N. Y., bought 



396 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

of Philips-Jones Co., Buffalo, N. Y., on March 24th, 1911, 
the following goods (terms J^ cash and the balance a note 
for 60 days, with interest) : 25 cases of canned fish at 
$2.70; 20 cases canned tomatoes @ $2.00; 15 cases canned 
corn $3.50; 50 cases canned peas, @ $2.50; 100 bags cof- 
fee @ 15c (50 lb. to a bag). 

63. Write out in proper form the note mentioned in the 
above transaction. 

64. Endorse the note to George Caswell & Co., Olean, 
N. Y. 

65. (a) Make out a check on the Chatham National 
Bank, New York, same date in payment of the half amount 
of the bill, and (b) show the endorsement of Philips- 
Jones Co., when they deposit same check in their bank. 

66. (a) How is the present worth of a business found? 
(b) The net gain or loss? Illustrate. 

67. The books of Amos Weatherby show the following 
entries : 

(a) Albert Horton Dr. 

To suit of clothes and overcoat $ 45.00 

(&) The Park Amusement Co. Dr. 

To cash on account 350.00 

(c) Cash Cr. 

Expenses, postage and printing 5.00 

Park Amusement Co., as per check . . . 300.00 

(d) Cash Dr. 

To Henry Linter's Note 300.00 

Interest 25.00 

(e) Dr. Amos Waters Cr. 



Dec. 



To mdse. 
To labor 



10 



Jan. 



By Cash 
" Mdse 



$35 
25 



Explain in full the transactions represented above and 
name the books in which each should be found. 

68. Interpret, i. e., give the meaning of each of the fol- 
lowing entries taken from the books of James L. Ronalds, 
and name the book in which it is found, and also all the 
other books where it should appear in some form: 



QUESTIONS IN BOOKKEEPING. 397 

(a) Elon Remington Dr. 

To Mdse $100.00 

(b) Cash Cr. 
Account of Henry Wood $ 75.50 

(c) Robert Harrington Cr. 

By 50 bbl. flour @ $5.50 275.00 

(d) To cash Dr. 190.00 

(e) Cash Dr. 

Note of Hiram Briggs 88.00 

Interest 2.00 

69. The following facts are gathered from the books of 
Thomas R. Malone: 

Investment, $5,000; ledger balances: John Smith, Dr., 
$1,350, B. L. Coon, Dr., $123, G. B. Norat, Cr., $65; 
cash on hand, $1,212.50, bills payable, $450, bills receivable, 
$350, merchandise per inventory, $3,250. Make a statement 
showing resources and liabilities. 

70. Make a statement showing present worth of the 
business. 

71. Explain each of the following italicized words or 
phrases : 

Ames & Wyatt have drawn on us, at lo days' sight, for 
the net proceeds of their consignment. We must honor 
their draft by our acceptance and raise the money on our 
note secured by collateral or an indorser. 

72. Write a letter to Messrs. Patterson and Hunter, 
Chicago, 111., acknowledging the receipt of an invoice, and 
enclosing a check in payment. Write regarding the dis- 
count allowed. 

73. Enter in the proper book the stock account of Charles 
Hamilton, Chicago, October 1, 1911. 

Resources : Merchandise, as shown by the inventory, 
$6,450. Cash on hand and in bank, $2,575. Account of 
Joseph Reed, $225. Note of James Ewing, dated May 
3, 1911, time 4 months, for $150. 

Liabilities: Account of John R. Coons & Co., Buffalo, 
N. Y., $850. My note in favor of Henry Young, New 
York, for $500, dated Oct. 1, due Jan. 1, 1912. 

Oct. 2. Sold George Steams a suit of clothes for $28, 



398 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

receiving cash $12 in part payment. Sold William Went- 
worth on account, coat and vest, $14. Paid for work on 
store, $7.50. Cash sales, $48.25. 

Oct. 3. Bought of Peck & Co., Syracuse, N. Y., 8 suits 
of men's clothing, @ $7.50 per suit. Sent in payment, 
check on the First National Bank of Chicago. Sold J. 
Crane on note for 30 days one suit, $22.50, and overcoat 
$20.00. Cash sales $49.80. James Ewing paid his note 
in full. 

Oct. 4. Accepted draft of John R. Coons & Co., at 3 
days' sight in favor of John Morrison, in payment of my 
account. Paid rent, $50. Sold Fred Green on account, 
1 pr. trousers, $6, 2 work suits @ $8, 2 work shirts @ 
$.50. Cash sales $22.40. 

Oct. 5. Joseph Reed paid his account in full. Paid 
clerk hire $15.00. John Henderson bought on account, 
furnishing goods amounting to $2.75, suit and overcoat, 
$40. Cash sales $54.25. 

Oct. 6. Paid acceptance of Oct. 4th. Sold George Boyn- 
ton, on account, 1 waterproof coat, $7, 1 hat, $3. Paid 
sundry expenses, $9. Cash sales, $41.50. 

Oct. 6. Inventory of stock at close of week shows mer- 
chandise on hand, $6,200. 

74. In the same book make all other entries. 

75. Make all the cash book entries and balance the book. 

76. Post the non-Persor>al accounts. 

77. Post the Personal accounts. 

78. Balance the ledger. 

79. Make a formal statement of the condition of the 
business, showing the resources and liabiHties, and losses 
and gains. 

80. Make a balance sheet. 

81. What is the present worth of the business? 

82. Write the note mentioned in the transaction of Oct. 3. 

83. Write the draft mentioned in the transaction of Oct. 
4, showing the acceptance. 



ANSWERS IN BOOKKEEPING. 

1. The recording of all the necessary facts and transactions con- 
cerning a business. 

2. A business transaction is an exchange of things or services, 
having equal values. 

3. Value is the worth of a thing or services estimated in money 
of the country. 

4. (a) Single entry and double entry, (b) In single entry book- 
keeping each item or transaction is entered in one account while in 
double entry each item or transaction is entered in two accounts, 
on the debit side in one account, and on the credit side of another. 

5. Cash, merchandise, the personal, the proprietor's account, the 
bills payable and bills receivable, the interest and discount, the ex- 
pense, real estate, and others that may be needed according to the 
business. 

6. A record or statement of debits and credits, or of receipts and 
disbursements, or of other business transactions involving these. 

7. Personal accounts are those accounts that are kept with per- 
sons, individuals or business firms, and show what, we owe others 
and others owe us. 

8. Cash, merchandise, bills receivable and payable, real estate, ex- 
pense, interest, discount, profit and loss, etc. ; in other words ac- 
counts that do not stand in the name of any person or firm. 

9. (a) The left side of any account; (b) the right side, (c) The 
debit shows that things or services have been received by the per- 
son or thing in whose name the account stands, and the credit shows 
that things or services have been given out by the account. 

ID. They show either loss or gain, resources or liabilities. 

11. When the account shows loss or gain, what we owe or what 
is due us, in a single sum, we say the account is closed. 

12. The cash account shows the amount of cash including checks, 
sight drafts, money orders, etc., on hand. 

13. This account shows the loss or gain in interest paid out or 
received. 

14. This account shows the amounts of discounts received and 
allowed to others. 

15. In the expense account are entered all the expenditures in 
connection with the conduct of the business for which no material 
return is received. All items relating to services and labor, printing, 
postage, etc. (unless separate accounts are kept for these items), are 
entered in that account. 

16. This account shows the value of the proprietor's interest in 
the business. 

17. The merchandise account is that account in which all entries 

399 



400 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

or transactions in connection with the goods that the merchant buys 
and sells are entered. 

i8. All transactions involving written promises to pay, either on 
the part of the proprietor or on the part of the debtor, are entered. 

19. (a) In the bills receivable account are entered all the trans- 
actions involving the written promises of others to us. (&) In the 
bills payable all our written promises to pay others are entered. 

20. A resource. See answer 21. 

21. (a) Resources show the value of the things on hand and what 
others owe us. {b) Liabilities show that we are indebted to others. 

22. Resources : — Bills receivable, real estate, cash, merchandise. 
Liabilities : — Bills payable, balances due others. 

23. A list of the accounts in the ledger with their totals or dif- 
ferences to show the accuracy of the posting. 

24. A complete statement of the accounts, showing losses and 
gains, resources and liabilities and present worth of the business ; 
in a word, the present condition of the business. 

25. (a) That we have cash on hand, (b) That we have over- 
drawn the cash account, i. e., we have paid out more cash than we 
have received. 

26. (a) A loss. See 15. (b) That the expense account is a 
gain, due probably to the return of greater value than the value of 
moneys expended. 

27. (a) The firm owes notes to the amount of $450. (&) The 
firm has paid out $240 unwittingly, or an error has been made in 
posting. 

28. (0) That there is due on promises of others the amount of 
$50. (&) Error in posting. 

29. (o) That it has produced $10 more than the interest it paid 
out. (&) That more interest was paid out than the amount of 
interest received. 

30. Because it is the only original book of entry, and is the 
foundation, as it were, of the entire set of books. Were all the 
other books destroyed, this book would furnish the means of re- 
constructing the entire set of books. 

Note: Many business houses do not keep one day book. Their 
" day book " may consist of a cash book, a sales book, a merchan- 
dise (invoice) book, and such other books that they may find neces- 
sary to use very frequently, and in which it is advisable to keep 
the transactions separated from all other transactions. 

31. (a) In the day book, (b) In the cash book. 

32. The day book, because this is the first book in which all items 
of transactions are entered. 

33. The day book, the cash book and the ledger. 

34. All the transactions of the firm arranged in chronological 
order are entered. 

35. All the transactions involving cash are entered in the book. 

36. The journal is that book in which all transactions are pre- 
pared for their proper entry in the ledger accounts. This prepara- 
tion is called journalizing. 



ANSWERS IN BOOKKEEPING. 



401 



ZT. No. Many bookkeepers post their items direct from the in- 
dividual books, and use the journal only in cases where the transac- 
tions are of the utmost complexity. The journal is an intermediary 
and auxiliary book. 

38. The ledger is the book in which all the transactions are 
gathered into their respective accounts. The entering into the 
proper accounts the transactions as they appear in the day book or 
after they have been journalized. 

39. Yes. Otherwise we should not be able to find out anything 
definite in connection with the business. This book reduces the 
entries in the day book to a systematic arrangement. 

40 

FORM OF DAY BOOK 
Chicago, 111., March 5, 1911 



Mo. 



Day 



History of items 

Sold Samuel Stone: 

4 M's 3 Readers 
12 Stencils, 



Cost 



$.75 
.10 



Items 



Totals 



20 



41 

FORM OF JOURNAL. 

New York, July 8, 1913 



Mo. 



Day 



Names of things 
received Dr. 



Cash 



Names of things 
given out Or. 



Mdse. 



Ledg'r 
Folio 

(L. P.) 


Val. of 

things 

Dr. 


Val. of 

things 

Or. 


7 


37 


76 






18 






37 


76 



42 

FORM OF SALES BOOK 
Cincinnati, Ohio, April 4, 1912 



Style 


Quan. 


History of items 


Cost 


Items 


Totals 








terms 














Carson, Pirie, Scott & Co., 


7-10 60x 














Chicago, 111. 












876 


4 


Suits 


$15.00 


60 








987 


5 


Skirts 


2.45 


12 


2b 






1246 


3 


Suits 


20.00 


60 




132 


26 



402 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

43 

FORM OF CASH BOOK 



Mo. 
Nov. 



Da. 



History of items 



George Johnson, on acct. 
Thomas Lane, work on store 
James Lee, sundry expenses 



Moneys 
R'c'd 
Dr. 

15175 



Moneys 

Pd. Out 

Cr. 



76 



44 

FORM OF LEDGER ACCOUNT 

Merchandise (or any other account) 



Mo. 



Da. 



Explanation 
To cash. 



Sflfi 


Am( 


Dunt 


Mo. 


Da. 


Explanation 


■3 >. 


Am 


jH qj 












V '" 














By cash 


°o 




''m 












^M 




^■nS 












Mo 




h.Q 












P<J2 





45. (a) A written list of articles or merchandise with their 
amounts and values, (b) The difference between the totals on the 
two sides of an account, (c) The acknowledgment of the person 
to whom a draft is directed that he is willing to pay the amount 
of the draft. 

46. (o) Discount of 40% on the list price, (b) Less a discount 
of 3%, the bill to be paid within seventy (70) days from the date 
of the bill, or less a discount of 5%, the bill payable within ten 
(10) days; (c) by or through; (d) free on board, that is placed 
on board the train or ship free of all charges; (e) large paper; (f) 
bill of lading. 

47. When goods are sent for inspection or examination or as 
samples for which no entry in the sales book has been made. 

48. (a) Total receipts from sales, not deducting the expenses in 
connection with the sales, (b) Profit upon a transaction after all ex- 
penses have been deducted, (c) Arranging the accounts in the 
ledger in alphabetical order, with the page upon which each account 
is placed after the name. 

49. (a) at; (b) exchange; (c) paid; (d) shipment; (e) ultimo, 
last month; (/) proximo, next month; (g) errors excepted; (h) 
ditto, the same ; (i) freight. 

50. (a) C. B.; (b) Dr.; (c) Amt. for'd; (d) pes.; (e) C. O. D.; 

U)^; (g) bal. 

51. (a) All business papers in which money is involved and 
which are negotiable. (&) Notes, drafts, assignments for a mone- 
tary consideration, bills of lading. 



ANSWERS IN BOOKKEEPING. 403 

52. A written promise to pay a definite amount of money to a 
certain person on a certain date with or without interest. 

53. The date, place, length of time, amount, signature of the 
drawer, place where the note is to be paid, and in some states, the 
words " for value received." 

54. (a) A negotiable note is one the rights in which can be 
transferred to a third person, (b) A non-negotiable note is not 
transferable. 

(Amount) (Date) 

55- (0) $500.00 Chicago, 111., March 5, 191 1. 

(Time) 

Four months after date, I promise to pay to the order of 
Charles A. Schieren, Five Hundred (500) Dollars, at the Third 
National Bank of Illinois, for value received, with interest. 

(Signed) William Harris. 

(&) $510.00 Chicago, 111., July 5, 191 1. 

Third National Bank of Illinois 

Pay to the order of Charles A. Schieren, 

Five hundred ten o%oo Dollars 

$5io.9"4oo- (Signed) William Harris. 

56. (a) Two. (b) The maker or payer, and the payee to whom 
the note is to be paid, (c) Three, (d) The maker or drawer; the 
drawee or the person on whom the draft is made, and the payee to 
whom the draft is to be paid. 

57. See 83. 

58. (o) Indorsement in blank. Indorsement in full. 

John Smith. Pay to the order of 

Henry Lee 
John Smith. 
Indorsement without recourse. 
Without recourse 
John Smith. 
(&) A joint and several promissory note is one to which there 
are more than one makers or payers, all of whom are jointly and 
severally, i. e., collectively and individually responsible for the full 
amount of the note ; while in an ordinary promissory note the in- 
dividual signer is responsible. 

59. $15000/100 New York, N. Y., May 2, 1911. 
Three months after date, we, jointly and severally, promise to 

pay to the order of Henry Norr, 

One hundred fifty o^qo Dollars, 

value received, with interest at 6 per cents at the Park National 
Bank of Albany. 

Charles Miller 
Anthony W. Klein 
Joseph Lang 

60. See 58 (a). 

61. (a) An itemized bill of merchandise bought or sold or shipped. 



404 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



New York, March 12, 191 1. 



(&) L. J. Linroth, 
Bought of 

The Corporation (Chemical) Company, 
435 West Broadway, 



450 lb. Sod. Bicarb. 
590 lb. Boracic Acid 



•03 



$7600 



62. 



Buffalo, N. Y., March 24, 1911. 
Brinkers & Co., 

New York, N. Y. 

Bought of Philips- Jones Co., 



Terms : ^ cash ; 

balance, note 60 days, 
with interest. 



— Grocers — 
375 Main Street. 



20 

15 

50 
100 



cases canned fish 
cases canned tomatoes 
cases canned corn 
cases canned peas 
bags coffee — 50 lb. 



2.70 


11167 


50 






2.00 


40 


00 






.^50 


52 


50 






2..^0 


125 


00 






.15 


750 


00 


$1036 










00 








517 


60 


lys 


517 


50 



By check 
Balance — by note 60 days 

63. New York, N. Y., March 24, 1911. 
Sixty days after date we promise to pay to the order of Philips- 
Jones Co., at Buffalo, N. Y., 

Five hundred seventeen s^ioo Dollars, 

Value received, with interest. 

$517.50 Brinkers & Co. 

64. Pay to the order of 
George Caswell & Co., 
Olean, N. Y. 
Philips-Jones Co. 

65. $517.50. New York, March 24, 191T. 

Chatham National Bank, 
New York, New York. 

Pay to the order of Philips-Jones Co., 

Five hundred seventeen 5%qq Dollars 



(&) Pay to the order of 

The Corn Exchange Bank 
Philips-Jones Co. 



Brinkers & Co. 



ANSWERS IN BOOKKEEPING. 405 

Note: Philips-Jones Co. have their account with the Corn Ex- 
change Bank. 

^d. (a) By finding the difference between the resources and the 
liabilities, (b) By finding the difference between the capital in- 
vested and the present worth of the business. 

Resources, $75,786.49 

Liabilities, 54,987-39 

Present Worth, $20,799.10 

Capital Invested, 15,000.00 

Gain, $ 5,799-io 

Present Worth, 20,799.10 

Capital Invested, 25,000.00 

Loss, $ 4,200.90 

67. (a) Albert Horton bought a suit of clothes and overcoat from 
Amos Weatherby for $45.00. The entry should appear in the day 
book, journal and ledger. 

(6) Amos Weatherby paid the Park Amusement Co., on account, 
$350.00. The entry appears in the cash book, the day book, the 
journal and the ledger. 

(c) Amos Weatherby has paid cash in the form of a check and 
it has cancelled a debt, going on the credit side. The entries appear 
in the day book, cash book, journal and ledger. 

(d) Weatherby has received $300.00 from Henry Linter in pay- 
ment of a note ; the interest has also been paid. The entries appear 
in the day book, cash book, journal and ledger. 

(e) Shows Amos Waters' account with Weatherby, on the latter's 
books. Weatherby has sold Waters merchandise to the value of 
$50.00, and performed labor to the amount of $10.00. The Cr. 
side shows that Waters has settled his account by paying cash on 
Jan. 7, to the amount of $35.00, and returned merchandise to the 
value of $25.00 on the 9th. The entries appear in the day book, 
sales book, cash book, journal and ledger. 

68. (a) Elon Remington bought of James L. Ronalds merchandise 
to the amount of $100.00, the same being charged to his account. 
The entry should appear in the day (sales) book, in the ledger 
under both the merchandise and Remington accounts. 

(b) Henry Wood paid $75.50 to James L. Ronalds on account. 
The entry should appear in the day book, the cash book, and the 
ledger. 

(c) James L. Donalds bought of Robert Harrington, 50 bbl. 
flour, $5.50. The entry should appear in the day book and in the 
ledger under the accounts of merchandise and Harrington. 



406 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(d) The amount of $190.00 in cash was paid into the business by 
James L. Ronalds. The entry should appear in the cash book, the 
day book and the ledger. 

(e) Cash paid by James L. Ronalds to take up the note of 
Harold Briggs, amount $88.00, and interest on the same $2.00. The 
entry should appear in the cash book, the day book, and the ledger. 

69. Resources Liabilities 

Investment, $5000.00 

John Smith, $1350.00 

B. L. Coon, 123.00 

B. G. Norat, 65.00 

Cash on hand, 1212.50 

Bills payable, 450.00 

Bills receivable, 350-00 

Merchandise as per inventory, 3250.00 

Gain, 770.50 

$6285.50 $6285.50 

Investment, $5000.00 

Gain, 770-50 

Present Worth, $5770-50 

71. Drawn on us, Ames & Wyatt have deposited in their bank a 
draft to be presented to us for acceptance. At 10 days' sight, the 
draft to be paid within 10 days of our acceptance of same. Net 
proceeds, the amount of money that is due them less the expense 
and commission on the consignment. Consignment, the goods sent 
by them to be sold by us. Honor their draft, accept the draft, that 
is, to pay the amount of the draft within ten days of our accepting 
it. Collateral, security deposited with the bank or any other firm or 
corporation to guarantee the payment of the draft. Indorscr, a per- 
son who signs his name on the back of the note, thereby guarantee- 
ing the payment of the note or its transfer. 

j2. 342 West Broadway, 

New York, March 28, 191 1. 
Messrs. Patterson & Hunter, 

Chicago, 111. 
Gentlemen : — 

We wish to acknowledge the receipt of your invoice, dated the 
26th inst, amounting to $345.75. We are at this time enclosing a 
check in full payment therefor, less the usual jobber's discount of 
10%. 

We have always felt that we were entitled to the customary 10% 
discount allowed jobbers, and have therefore deducted this amount 
from the invoice. We trust that this will meet with your approval. 



ANSWERS IN BOOKKEEPING. 



407 



In the future, will you please state specifically the discount and 
terms allowed us, so that we may be able to guide ourselves ac- 
cordingly. 

Very truly, 

Thomas Wright & Co. 

per T. W. 

73 
Chicago, 111., Oct. 1, 1911. 



Charles Hamilton started business 
with the following resources and 
liabilities: 

—RESOURCES— 

Merchandise as per inventory 
Cash on hand — First National Bank 
Joseph Reed account 
James Ewing, note dated June 3, 1911, 
time 4 months 

—LIABILITIES— 



John R. Coons & Co., Buffalo, N. Y. 
account 

My note in favor of Henry Young. 
Cincinnati, Ohio, for $1,500, dated 
Oct. 1, 1911, due Feb. 1, 1912 



2575 
225 



150 



00 



500 00 



74 







DAY BOOK JOURNAL 




Dr 




Cr, 




Oct. 


2 
3 


George Stearns 

To suit of clothes 
William Wentworth 

To coat and vest 
Peck & Co. 

By 8 suits @ $7.50 


Dr. 
Dr. 
Cr. 


$28 
14 


00 
00 


$60 


00 






To cash — check 


Dr. 


60 


00 










J. Crouse 


Dr. 














To one suit 


$22.50 














One overcoat 


20.00 


42 


50 










By note 30 days 


Cr. 






42 


50 




4 


John R. Coons & Co. 
To draft 

Fred Green 

To 1 pair trousers 
2 suits @ $8.00 


Dr. 

Dr. 

$ 6.00 

16.00 


1850 


00 










2 shirts, @ $.50 


1.00 


23 


00 








5 


John Henderson 

To furnishing goods 


Dr. 

$2.75 














Clothing 


40.00 


42 


T5 










First National Bank 


Cr. 














By draft, John R. Coons Co. 








850 


00 




6 


George Boynton 
To 1 coat 


Dr. 

$7.00 














To 1 hat 


3.00 


10 


00 







Note: Cash Book detailed entries are omitted. 



408 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



76 
CASH BOOK 



Dr. 



Cr. 



Oct. 


2 


George Stearns, on account 
Work on store paid 
Cash sales 


$12 
48 


00 
25 


$7 


50 




3 


Note of James Ewing 
Cash sales 


150 
49 


00 
80 








4 


Rent 
Cash sales 


22 


40 


bO 


00 




5 


Joseph Reed, paid in full 


225 


00 










Clerk hire 






lb 


00 




6 


Cash sales 


54 


2o 










Sundry expenses 


41 


50 
20 


9 


00 






Cash sales 


81 






603 


50 






Balance, new account 




20 


521 
603 


70 




603 


20 






Balance, old account 


2521 


70 







76 
MERCHANDISE 



Oct. 


1 


To inventory 


1 


$6450 


00 


Oct. 


2 


By Geo. Stearns 


1 


$ 28 


00 




3 


To cash 


2 


60 


00 




2 


By W.Wentworth 


1 


14 


00 




6 


To profit and loss 


7 


66 


45 




2 
3 
3 
4 
4 
5 
5 
6 
6 


By cash 

By Bills Rec. 

By cash 

By Fred Green 

By cash 

By JohnHenders'n 

By cash 

By Geo. Boynton 

By cash 


2 
2 
2 
S 
3 
3 
3 
3 
4 


48 
42 
49 
23 
22 
42 
54 
10 
41 


25 
50 
80 
00 
40 
75 
25 
00 
50 




8 


To inventory 










6 


By inventory 


4 


6200 


00 




$6576 


45 


$6576 


45 




$6200 


00 







EXPENSE 



Oct. 



To cash 
To cash 
To cash 
To cash 



1 


$ 7 


,50 


Oct. 


6 


2 


50 


00 






3 


15 


00 






3 


9 


00 
50 






$ 81 



By profit and loss 



$ 81 



$ 81 



50 



05 



BILLS RECEIVABLE 



Oct. 



To balance 
To Mdse. 



8 To balance 



$150 
42 



$192 
$ 42 



Oct. 



By cash 

By resources 



$150 
42 



$192 



50 



ANSWERS IN BOOKKEEPING. 

BILLS PAYABLE 



409 



Oct. 



ToJ.R.Coons&Co. 
To balance 



500 



$1350 



Oct. 



By Liabilities 
Cash 



8 By balance 



$500 
850 

$1350 



FRED GREEN 



Oct. 



To mdse. 
To balance 



23 00 
23 00 



Oct. 



By balance 



23 00 



JOHN HENDERSON 



Oct. 



To mdse. 
To balance 



$42 



$ 42 



Oct. 



By balance 



$ 42' 



GEORGE BOYNTON 



Oct. 



To mdse. 
To balance 



$ 10 



Oct. 



By balance 



$10 00 



GEORGE STEARNS 



Oct. 



To mdse. 



8 To balance 



1 


% 28 


00 


Oct. 


2 
6 


$ 28 


00 
00 


$ 16 



By balance 



$ 12 
16 

$ 28 



00 



WILLIAM WBNTWORTH 



Oct 2 



To mdse. 
To balance 



$ 14 



$ 14 



Oct. 



By balance 



$14 



00 



JOHN R. COONS & CO. 



Oct. 



To bills pay. 



$ 850 



00 



Oct. 



By cash 



1 $ 85000 



JOSEPH REED 



Oct. 



1 To balance 



$ 225 00 



Oct. 



By cash 



8 $ 225 00 



78. See balances, 76 and 11. 



410 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

79 
PROFIT AND LOSS 



Oct. 


6 


To mdse. 
To loss 




$66 
13 


45 
05 

50 


Oct. 


6 


By expense 




$81 


50 






$ 81 


$ 81 


50 


RESOURCES AND LIABILITIES 


Oct. 


1 

6 


Mdse. 

First Nat'l Bank 
Joseph Reed 
Bills receivable 
James Ewing 

Mdse. 
Cash 

First Nat'l Bank 
Bills receivable 
George Stearns 
W. Wentworth 
Fred Green 
John Henderson 
Geo. Boynton 




$ 6450 
2575 
225 

150 


00 
00 
00 

00 

00 

00 
70 
00 
50 
00 
00 
00 
75 
00 


Oct. 


1 
6 


John R. Coons&Co. 
Billspay. H.Young 
Net resources 

Bills payable 
Net resources 




$ 850 

500 

8050 


00 
00 
00 




$9400 


00 




$ 9400 

$ 6200 
.521 
1665 
42 
16 
14 
23 
42 
10 




$ 500 
8034 


00 
95 




$8584 


95 


18534 


95 










80-81 



L.F. 



Totals 



Cash on hand 

Fred Green 

John Henderson 

George Boynton 

Merchandise 

Bills receivable 

Bills payable 

George Stearns 

Wm. Wentworth 

Expense 

Resources and liabilities.. 



Net loss 

Net resources. 



$3178 

23 

42 

10 

6510 

192 

850 

28 

14 

81 

1350 



$12279 



Present Worth. 



376 45 

]50|00 

i85o;oo 

00 



9400 



$12279 



$ 81 



$ 81 



15 



$2186 
23 
42 
10 
6200 
42 

16 
14 



$8534 



$8034 



$500 



$500 



ANSWERS IN BOOKKEEPING. 411 

82. $42.50 Chicago, 111., Oct. 3, 191 1. 
Thirty days after date, I promise to pay to the order of Charles 

Hamilton, Forty-two ^9100 Dollars, 

for value received. 

(Signed) J. Crane. 

83. No. XYZ. Due Nov. 2, 191 1. 

$850.09100. Buffalo, N. Y., Oct. 4, iQn. 

At three days' sight pay to the order of John Morrison, 

Eight hundred fifty 09^00 Dollars, 

value received, and charge to the account of 

To Charles Hoffman. John R. Coons & Co. 

The acceptance is written across the face of the draft in red ink, 
as follows: "Accepted, payable at the First National Bank, 
Charles Hoffman, Oct. 4, 1911." 



CHAPTER XL 
QUESTIONS IN GEOMETRY. 

DEFINITIONS. 

1. Define geometry. 

2. What is (a) plane geometry? (b) solid geometry? 

3. What is a plane figure? 

4. Give the different methods of proof and explain each. 

5. What is a point? 

6. What is a line? 

7. Define surface. 

8. Define solid. 

9. What are geometric magnitudes? 

10. What is (a) a straight line? (&) a curved line? 
(c) a broken line? 

11. What are parallel lines? 

12. What is a median? 

13. Define angle. 

14. What is meant by the vertex of the angle? 

15. What is meant by equal angles? 

16. Describe the different ways of naming angles. 

17. Name the different kinds of angles. 

18. What is meant by saying that lines are perpendicular 
to each other? 

19. What is meant by bisecting a line or an angle ? What 
is the bisector? 

20. How are angles m'easured? 

21. What are (a) vertical; (b) adjacent angles? 

22. What is meant by (a) supplementary (&) comple- 
mentary angles? 

23. What is meant by (a) corresponding angles or sides? 
(&) homologous angles or parts? 

24. Name the principal geometric plane figures, accord- 
ing to the number of their sides. 

412 



QUESTIONS IN GEOMETRY. 413 

25. What are (a) a triangle? (b) quadrilateral? (c) 
pentagon? (d) hexagon? (e) octagon, and (/) a circle? 

26. Name the different kinds of triangles according to 
their sides ; angles. Define each. 

27. Define (a) base; (b) altitude. 

28. What is a diagonal ? 

29. What is meant by a polygon? 

30. Name the most important quadrilaterals according 
to both angles and sides. 

31. Define (a) circle; (b) circumference; (c) radius; 
(d) diameter; (e) chord; (/) arc; (g) segment; (h) 
semi-circumference ; (i) semi-circles ; (/) sector. 

32. Define axiom. 

33. Define theorem. 

34. Define problem. 

35. Define postulate. 

36. Define corollary. 

37. What is a proposition? 

38. What is a scholium? 

39. What is meant by (a) the hypothesis? (b) the con- 
clusion ? 

40. What is meant by the converse of a proposition? 

41. Make a list of the most important axioms. 

42. Make a list of the important postulates. 

43. Name the most important corollaries. 

PROPOSITIONS. 

44. Prove that all straight angles are equal. 

45. Prove that if two straight lines meet a third straight 
line, making the sum of the adjacent angles equal to a 
straight angle, these two straight lines form one and the 
same straight line. 

46. Prove that if one straight line meet another straight 
line, not at the extremity, the sum of the angles thus formed 
is equal to a straight angle, or two right angles. 

47. Prove that vertical angles are equal. 

48. Prove that if a straight line intersect two parallel 
straight lines, the alternate angles are equal; the cor- 
responding angles are equal ; the sum of the two opposite 
angles is equal to a straight angle. 



414' THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

49. If a straight line intersect two other straight linies, so 
that the alternate angles are equal, these two straight lines 
are parallel. 

50. Prove that the sum of the angles of a triangle is equal 
to a straight angle or 180 degrees. 

51. Prove that the exterior angle of a triangle is equal 
to the sum of the opposite interior angles. 

52. Prove that if one side of a triangle be produced, the 
exterior angle is greater than either of the opposite interior 
angles, 

53. Prove that if two angles have their sides respectively 
parallel, the angles are equal. 

54. Prove that any two sides of a triangle are together 
greater than the third, 

55. Prove that the greatest side of every triangle is 
opposite the greatest angle. 

56. Prove that a perpendicular is the shortest line that 
can be drawn to a given line from a given point, 

57. Prove that two triangles that have a side and the 
two adjacent angles equal are equal to each other, 

58. Prove that two triangles are equal if two sides and 
the included angle of one equal the two sides and the in- 
cluded angle of the other, 

59. Prove that two right triangles are equal if the legs 
of the right triangle are equal. 

60. Prove that two triangles are equal if all three sides 
of one are equal to the three sides of another. 

61. Prove that in an isosceles triangle the angles opposite 
the equal sides are equal. 

62. Prove that if two angles of a triangle are equal the 
triangle is an isosceles triangle. 

63. Prove that in an equilateral triangle the three angles 
are equal. 

64. Prove that the exterior angles of an isosceles or an 
equilateral triangle are equal, 

PROPORTION. 

65. Prove that in any proportion the product of the means 
equals the product of the extremes. 

66. Prove that in a proportion the quantities are in pro- 
portion by alternation. 



QUESTIONS IN GEOMETRY. 415 

67. Prove that in a proportion the quantities are in pro- 
portion by inversion, 

68. Prove that if four quantities are in proportion, they 
are in proportion by composition; or, the sum of the first 
two terms is to the second term as the sum of the second 
two terms is to the fourth term. 

69. Prove that in a proportion the quantities are in 
proportion by division ; or, the difference between the first 
two terms is to the second term as the difference between 
the second two terms is to the last term. 

70. Prove that equimultiples of any two quantities have 
the same ratio as the quantities themselves. 

71. Prove that parallels between parallels are equal. 

72. Prove that if the opposite sides of a quadrilateral 
are equal the figure is a parallelogram. 

7Z. Prove that the diagonals of a parallelogram bisect 
each other. 

74. Prove that parallelograms with the same base and 
between the same parallels, are equal. 

75. Prove that parallelograms having equal bases and 
between the same parallels, are equal. 

76. Prove that triangles between the same base and par- 
allels are equal. 

77. Prove that a triangle is equal to half a parallelogram 
between the same base and parallels. 

78. Prove that the equare erected on the hypotenuse of 
a right triangle is equal to the sum of the squares erected 
on the other two legs of the triangle. 

79. Prove that a perpendicular to a radius at its extrem- 
ity is tangent to the circumference at that point. 

80. Show that when a line is tangent to the circumfer- 
ence of a circle, it is perpendcular to the radius drawn to 
the point of contact. 

81. Prove that if a line be drawn from the center of a 
circle so as to bisect a chord, it will be perpendicular to 
that chord. 

82. Prove that equal angles at the center of equal cir- 
cles intercept equal arcs. 

83'. Prove that the angle formed by the intersection of 



416 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

two chords is measured by half of the sum of the inter- 
cepted arcs. 

84. What is meant by similar polygons? 

85. Show that two rectangles are to each other as their 
bases. 

86. Prove that any two rectangles are to each other as 
the product of their bases and altitudes. 

87. Show that a line drawn parallel to one side of a tri- 
angle divides the other two sides proportionally. 

88. Show that if a straight line cuts two sides of a tri- 
angle proportionally, it will be parallel to the third side. 

89. Show how to find the third proportional to two given 
lines. 

90. Show that equiangular triangles are similar. 

91. Prove that if two triangles have an angle in each 
equal, and the sides about these angles proportional, they 
are equiangular. 

92. Show that a line that bisects any angle of a triangle 
divides the opposite sides into segments proportional to 
the other two sides. 

93. Show that triangles which have their sides parallel 
or perpendicular, are similar. 

94. Prove that if a perpendicular be drawn from the 
right angle to the hypotenuse, it divides the triangle into 
segments similar to the right triangle ; that the perpendicular 
is a mean proportional between the segments of the hypote- 
nuse, and either side is a mean proportional between the 
hypotenuse and the adjacent segment. 

95. Prove that if from a point without a circle a tangent 
and a secant be drawn, the tangent will be a mean propor- 
tional between the secant and its external segment. 

96. Prove that if two chords intersect each other, their 
segments are reciprocally proportional. 

97. Prove that two similar polygons are composed of 
the same number of triangles, similar each to each. 

CONSTRUCTIONS. 

98. On a given line construct an equilateral triangle. 

99. Bisect a given angle. 

100. Bisect a given straight line. 



QUESTIONS IN GEOMETRY. 417 

101. Show how to construct a perpendicular to a given 
straight line at a given point. 

102. Construct a perpendicular from a point without a 
line. 

103. Construct an angle equal to a given angle at a given 
point in a given line. 

104. Through a given point to draw a straight line paral- 
lel to a given straight line. 

105. Construct a square upon a given straight line. 

106. Show how to describe a circle which shall pass 
through three given points not in the same straight line. 

107. Show how to circumscribe a circle about a given 
triangle. 

108. Show how to inscribe a circle in a given triangle. 

109. Show how to divide a line into any number of equal 
parts. 

1 10. Show how to construct a mean proportional between 
two given lines. 

111. Construct a rectangle equivalent to a given square, 
and having the sum of its sides adjacent equal to a given 
line. 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 
DEFINITIONS. 

1. Geometry is that branch of mathematics that treats of forms, 
such as Hnes, triangles, parallelograms, circles, etc., in their rela- 
tions. 

2. (a) Plane geometry treats only of plane figures, (fo) Solid 
geometry treats of solids. 

3. A plane figure is a surface all of whose points lie in the same 
plane or surface. 

4. (a) Proof by superposition is the method of proving theorems 
in geometry in which one figure is placed on another figure and the 
facts thus proved, (b) The synthetic method is that in which two 
or more essential or axiomatic truths are put together and a new 
truth thus derived, (c) Reductio ad absurdum method in which the 
proposition is assumed to be false and then shows the falseness of 
this assumption, thus proving the truth of the original proposition. 

5. A point is the extremity or end of a line; it has neither length 
nor breadth, only position. 

6. A line is made up of points; it has only length and is the 
boundary of a surface. 

7. A surface is caused or made by a line taking breadth or width; 
it is the boundary of a solid; (it has length and breadth). 

8. A solid is a limited portion of space, having the three dimen- 
sions, length, breadth and thickness. 

9. Points, lines, surfaces, solids are called geometrical magnitudes. 
ID. (a) A straight line is one that does not change its direction 

at any point throughout its length. (&) A curved line is one that 
changes its direction at every point, (c) A broken line is made 
up of two or more straight lines. 

11. Parallel lines are lines which do not meet, however far they 
are prolonged. 

12. A median is a line drawn from the vertex of a triangle to 
the middle of the line opposite the vertex. 

13. An angle is the amount of opening between two lines meeting 
in one point. 

14. The vertex is the meeting point of the two sides of the angle. 

15. Angles are equal when the amount of inclination or opening 
between the respective sides are equal. 

16. (a) By means of the letter placed at the vertex; (6) the 
angle is ABC, the letter at the vertex being between the end letters; 
(c) by means of a small letter placed within the angle. 

17. (a) Acute angle when the ang]e is less than a right angle; 
(b) a right angle when the opening is one-fourth of the circum- 
ference of a circle; (c) obtuse angle, when the opening is greater 

418 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 



419 




Z6e,d,g 



30 c -' 30/ 



306 



30a 3od 30 e 

NTTMBERS REFER TO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS. 



420 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



than a right angle and less than a straight angle; (d) a straight 
angle when the two sides of the angle form one straight line; (e) 
reflex angle when the angle is greater than a straight angle. 

18. That the lines form a right angle. 

19. To divide the line or angle into equal parts. The line that 
bisects the line or angle. 

20. Angles are measured according to their opening by degrees, 
minutes and seconds. A degree is Ysqo part of a circle (circum- 
ference). The minute is %o part of the degree and the second is 
Yeo part of the minute. A right angle, thus, has 90°, ^ of a circle 
(circumference), and a straight angle has 180°, 3^ of a circle (cir- 
cumference). 

21. (o) Vertical angles are formed by the intersection of two 
lines, the sides of one angle being the prolongations of the sides of 
the other angle. (&) Adjacent angles are angles having a vertex 
and a side common to both. 

22. (a) When the sum of two angles is equal to one right angle 
or 90°, the angles are said to be complementary. (&) If the sum 
is equal to a straight angle, or 180°, the angles are supplementary. 

23. (a) Equal angles or equal sides in equal triangles are called 
corresponding angles or sides. (&) Corresponding parts are called 
homologous parts. 

24. Triangle, quadrilateral, pentagon, hexagon, octagon, etc. 

25. (a) A triangle is a plane figure bounded by three sides. (6) 
The quadrilateral is bounded by four straight lines, (c) The penta- 
gon is bounded by five straight lines, (d) The hexagon is bounded 
by six straight lines, (e) The octagon has eight sides. (/)_ The 
circle is a plane figure bounded by a curved line every point of 
which is equally distant from the point within called the center. 

26. (a) The scalene triangle is one in which the three sides are 
unequal ; (b) the isosceles triangle has two sides equal, and the (c) 
equilateral has all three sides equal, (d) The triangle is called 
acute when all the angles are acute; (e) when there is a right 
angle, the triangle is called a right triangle; (/) it is obtuse if an 
angle is obtuse; and (g) is called equiangular when all three angles 
are equal. It is possible to have only one right angle or one obtuse 
angle in any triangle; but all three angles may be acute. Why? 
What kind of a triangle is it when all three angles are equal? 

27. (a) The base is that side on which the geometric figure rests. 
(b) The altitude is the perpendicular distance between the highest 
point of the figure and the base or the base prolonged. 

28. The diagonal is the straight line drawn from one vertex of a 
polygon to an opposite vertex. 

29. A polygon is a plane figure enclosed by three or more sides. 

30. (a) The square in which all the angles and sides are equal. 
(b) The oblong in which the sides are unequal and the angles all 
right angles, (c) The rhombus in which the sides are equal, and 
the angles unequal, (d) The rhomboid which has both sides and 
angles unequal, a, b, c, and d are also called parallelograms be- 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 421 

cause their opposite sides are parallel, (e) The trapezoid has 
only two sides parallel, (f) The trapezium has none of its sides 
parallel, though two of its sides may be equal. 

31. (a) See 25f. (b) The bounding line of the circle is called 
the circumference, though it is customarily called the circle, (c) 
The radius is the generating line of the circle ; it is equal to the 
distance drawn between the center of the circle and any point on 
the circumference, ac. (d) A diameter is a line drawn from one 
point on the circumference to another point and passing through 
the center of the circle, bd. (^) A chord is a straight line joining 
two points on the circumference, ef. (/) An arc is that part of the 
circumference between the ends of the chord, erf. (g) The two 
parts into which the circle is divided by the chord are called seg- 
ments, ERF and EFADBE. (/i) When the two arcs of the circle are 
equal they are called semi-circumferences. (i) When the two 
segments are equal each is called a semicircle. (/) A sector is that 
portion of a circle enclosed by two radii, acd. 

32. An axiom is a self-evident truth. 

S;i. A theorem is a geometrical truth requiring proof of its 
validity. 

34. A problem is a construction to be made so that it will fulfill 
certain given conditions. 

35. A postulate is a construction so plain and self evident as to 
be admitted without proof. 

36. A corollary is a theorem that is easily derived from another 
theorem and finds its proof in the solution of that theorem. 

37. A scholium is a remark. 

38. A proposition is the statement of any theorem, postulate or 
corollary. 

39. (a) The hypothesis is that which is given or stated in the 
proposition, (b) The conclusion is the truth derived as a result 
of the proof based upon the hypothesis. 

40. A proposition is the converse of another when the kypothesis 
and conclusion of one are the hypothesis and conclusion of the 
other. 

41. (a) Things equal to the same thing are equal to each other. 

(b) If equals be added to equals the sums are equal. 

(c) If equals are substracted from equals the remainders are 
equal. 

(d) If equals are multiplied by equals the products are equal. 

(e) If equals are divided by equals, the quotients are equal. 
(/) The whole is equal to the sum of all its parts. 

(g) The whole is greater than any of its parts. 

(h) A straight line is the shortest distance between two points. 

42. (o) A straight line is determined by two points. 

(b) A straight line is determined by one point and a given 
direction. 

(c) All straight angles are equal. 

(d) All right angles are equal. 



422 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(c) Only one perpendicular can be drawn from a given point to 
a given line. 

(/) Only one perpendicular can be drawn to a given point on a 
line. 

43. (a) Only one straight line can be drawn between two points. 

(b) One circle can be drawn with a given center and a given 
radius. 

(c) A straight line may be produced to indefinite length. 

(d) Through a given point and in a given direction only one 
straight line can be drawn. 

PROPOSITIONS. 

44. Given — aec and xyz are straight angles. 
To prove — <aec=>>xyz. 

Proof. Place <abc on < xyz so that yz coincides with bc, the 
vertex b on vertex y. Then since they are both straight angles the 
amounts of inclination are equal ; and the line xy will necessarily 
coincide with ab. Hence, <abc= <Cxyz. 

45. Given the two straight lines ab and bc meeting the third 
straight line bd, making the sum of the angles abd and ced equal to 
a straight angle. 

To prove that ab and bc will form one and the same straight 
line. 

Proof. Suppose that ab and bc do not form the same straight 
line, then some other line, as be, must be the continuation of ab. 
If ABE be a straight line, the sum of the angles ABD-)-EBD=a straight 
angle. But we know that abd-|-dbc=abd-|-cbd. cbd=ebd, which is 
false. Therefore, be is not a continuation of the line ab. In similar 
manner it can be proved that no other line than bc can be the 
continuation of ba. 

46. Given the line ab meeting the line CD at the point c. To prove 
that the sum of the angles acd and dcb= a straight angle. 

Proof. At the point c erect the perpendicular ce. The sum of 
the angles ace and ecb is equal to two right angles. But ECD-f-DCB= 
ecb; and acd=:ace+ecd the sum of the angles acd-)-dcb= two right 
angles or a straight angle. 

47. Given <s aoc and dob are vertical angles. 
To prove— <aoc=<dob 

Proof — <aoc4-<aod= 1 straight < 
<dob-|-<aod= 1 straight < 
<aoc-|-<aod=<dob+<aod 
<aoc=<dob 

48. Given the two parallel straight lines, AB and CD, cut by the 
transversal gh. 

To prove that the alternate angles, ckl and blk are equal; that 
the corresponding or exterior and interior opposite angles ckg and 
ALK are equal ; that the sum of the two opposite interior angles 
CKL and ALK is equal to a straight angle, or 180°. 

Proof. Assuming that the angle clk is not equal to blk, make an 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 423 

angle ekl equal to it and produce ek to f. Since the alternate 
angles ekl and blk are eequal, ef and ab are parallel, which is im- 
possible, for only one straight line can be drawn parallel to another 
straight line through a given point. Therefore, ckl must be equal 

to BLK, and ALK to LKD. 

Now DKL equals ckg; .'. alk=ckg. ckg+ckl=ckl4-alk; bu' 

CKG+CKL=180° .-. CKL-f ALK=180°. 

49. Given the line ab intersecting the two straight lines CD and 
EF, making the alternate angles ekh and dhk equal. 

To prove that the two lines are parallel. 

Proof. If the two lines are not parallel, they must meet, if prO' 
duced. Let them meet in the point g. Then hgk becomes a tri^ 
angle. The exterior angle ekh is greater than the angle khd; but 
this is impossible, since they are given as equal angles. Therefore. 
CD and ef cannot meet toward d or f, and in the same manner they 
cannot meet toward c and E. Since they cannot meet, they are 
parallel. 

so. Given the triangle abc. 

To prove that the sum of the angles a, b, c := 180°. 

Proof. Draw the line de parallel to the base of the triangle, ab. 
Then the angle ecb = the angle cba, because they are alternate 
angles. The angles dca and cab are also equal for the same reason. 
The angle acb is common. ACB-f cab-|-abc=acb-|-dca+ecb. But the 
sum of DCA+ACB-|-ECB=i8o° : the sum of the three angles of the 
triangle is equal to a straight angle. 

51. Given the triangle abc. 
To prove that cbd=cab+acb. 

Proof. The sum of the three angles of the triangle is equal to a 
straight angle. The sum of the angles abc and cbd =: a straight 
angle. Subtracting the common angle, abc, we get the sum of the 
two interior angles equal to exterior angle. 

52. See 51 and Axiom g for proof. 

53. Given the angles acb and def the side ab parallel to de, and 
the side bc parallel to the side ef. 

To prove that the angles are equal. 

Proof. Draw gce through the vertices of the two angles. The 
> ACQ equals the <dec, and the < bcg equals the < fec (See 48). 
If from the equal angles acg and dec, the equal angles bcg and fec 
be subtracted, there remain the equals < s acb and def. 

54. Given the triangle abc. 

To prove that the sum of ab+bc is greater than ac. 

Proof. The straight line ab is the shortest distance between the 
points AC. Hence the broken line abc is greater than the straight 
line AB. 

55. Given the triangle abc, with the side ac the longest side. 

To prove that the angle abc, opposite the greatest side, is the 
greatest angle. 

Proof. From the line ac, cut off cd=cb. Join the points b and 



424 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 



44 




45 



C 
46 



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^3 '^ 56 

NUMBERS REFER TO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS. 



r- B 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 425 

D. Because the triangle cdb is isosceles, the angle cdb = the angle 
DBC. But CDB is greater than the angle a, hence the angle cbd is 
also greater than the angle A. But the angle abc is greater than dbc, 
therefore abc is much greater than the angle a. 

56. Given the line ab and the given point c. 

To prove that the perpendicular is the shortest line drawn from 
c to AB. 

Proof. Draw the line cf. The triangle cdf is a right tri- 
angle, the largest greatest angle in the triangle being the right angle 
at D. Therefore, the line opposite the greater angle in the triangle 
is the greatest side, and the side cf is greater than the perpendicular 
CD. In similar manner it can be proved that no matter what line is 
drawn from c to the line ab, the line is always greater than the 
perpendicular. Hence, the perpendicular cd is the shortest line that 
can be drawn from c to the line ab. 

67. Given bc=ef 

<ABC=<DEF 
<ACB=:<DFE 

To prove Aabc=Adef 

Proof. Place the A ABC on A def so that bc coincides with ef; 
then, since A abc and def are equal, ab will take the direction of 
de; and, similarly ac will take the direction of df and the intersec- 
tion of ab and ac, a, will coincide with the intersection of de and 
df, d. 

58. Given <abc=<def. 
ab=de 

BC=EF 

To prove— Abac=A def 

Proof. Place the triangles abc on def so that angle b shall fall on 
e; ab on de. Then since the angles b and e are equal, bc will coin- 
cide with EF. Since the sides are equal the point A will coincide 
with the point d and the point F will coincide with the point c, 
and hence the distance between a and c equals the distance between 
D and F, and the lines joining these points will coincide. 

59. See proof above. 

60. Given the triangles abc and cde, the side ab:=de, the side 

BC=EF, and CA=DF. 

To prove that the triangles are equal in all respects. 
Proof. Place the triangle def so the df will coincide with CA. 
Join the vertices b and e by the line be. 

61. Given the isosceles triangle abc, the sides ac and ab being 
equal. 

To prove that the angle c=B. 

Proof. Draw the line ad so that it bisects the angle A. Then in 
the triangles acd and dab we have ac=ba ; ad common to both and 
the angle bad=dac: the triangles are equal in all respects, and the 
cUgle c=R. 

62. Given the triangle abc, with the angle a=:b. 
To prove that side Ac= side CB. 



426 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 
A D 




B 61 C, A 62, B 

NUMBERS REFER TO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS. 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 427 

Proof. Let the line cd bisect the angle c. The A cad=: A bdc ; 
the angle acd=dcb, the angle cda=:cdb (why?) and the side CD is 
common to both triangles, therefore the triangles adc and dec are 
equal, and the side ac=cb : the triangle is isosceles. 

6.3. See proof, 62, 

64. <CAB= <ABc; CAB-|-DAB= 1 Straight angle. 

CBA-j-EBA= 1 Straight angle. 

.*. CBA+EBA=CAB+DAB. 
.'. EBA=DAB. 

PROPORTION. 

For definitions of ratio and proportion, see Arithmetic. 

65. Given, a : b : : c : d. 
To prove that, ad=bc. 

a c 
Proof -=-. Multiply by bd. 
b d 
ad=bc. 

66. Given, a : b : : c : d. 
To prove, a : c : : b : d. 

Proof, ad=bc. Divide by cd. 
a b 

-;=- or a:c: : b:d 
c d 

67. Given, a : b : : c : d. 
To prove, b : a : : d : c. 
Proof, bc=ad. Divide by ac. 

b d 

-=- orb:a::d:c 

a c 

68. Given, a : b : : c : d. 

To prove, a+b: b : : c+d : d. 

b d b d 
a+b c+d 

= .-. a+b:b::c+d:d 

b d 

69. Given, a : b : : c : d. 

To prove, a — b:b::c — d:d. 

a c a c 

Proof -=-;-- 1 = --1 

b db d 

a-b c-d 

- - = — or a — b:b::c — d : d. 
b d 

70. To prove, a :b : :ma :mb. 

a a ma 

Proof a: b= - Multiply by m; -= 

b — b mb 

/. a:b::ma:mb. 



428 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

71. Given the parallels cd and ab, and ac and bd. 
To prove that ac=ibd, and ab=cd. 

Proof. Draw the diagonal ad. The two triangles, acd and abd, 
are equal in all respects. Why? Therefore, ab=cd and ac=:bd. 

72. See proof of 71. 

"JZ- Given the parallelogram abcd. 

To prove that ad and bc bisect each other at the point E. 
Proof. The two triangles, abe and ced are equal in all respects. 
Why? Hence, ae=ed and ce=:eb. 

74. Given the parallelograms abcd and abef, with the same base 
AB, and between the same parallels, ab and cf. 

To prove that the parallelograms are equal. 

Proof. The two triangles ebc and fad are equal, because the sides 
BC and AD are equal, be and af are equal, and the angle cbe equals 
the angle fad. If, from the whole figure abcf, the triangle bce be 
taken, the parallelogram abef will remain; and if the equal triangle 
AFD be taken from the same figure, the parallelogram abcd will 
remain. Hence, the parallelograms are equal. 

75. See proof of 74. 

76. See proof of 74. 

"JT. Given the triangle abc and the parallelogram abde, having 
the same base and between the parallels ab and ed. 

To prove that abc=^ of abde. 

Proof. Draw the diagonal ad. The triangles abc and abd are 
equal because they are between the same base and the same paral- 
lels. But the triangle abd is one-half of the given parallelogram, 
hence, the triangle abc equals one half the parallelogram abde. 

78. Given the right triangle abc, with ab as the hypotenuse. 

To prove that the square erected on ab equals the sum of the 
squares erected on ac and bc. 

Proof. Describe the squares on the three sides of the triangle. 
Draw CG parallel to af, and also ce and ad. The angles cbd and abe 
are equal because they are right angles. The angles abd and cbe 
are equal because abc is added to each. The two triangles abd and 
cbe are equal because they have ab and be equal, bd and bc equal. 
The parallelogram bg equals twice the triangle ebc (why?), and 
the parallelogram bh equals twice the triangle abd (why?), hence 
the parallelogram bg is equal to the square bh. It can be proved in 
similar manner that the parallelogram ag equals the square ak. 
The square fb is equal to the sum of the two parallelograms, and is, 
therefore, equal to the sum of the two square ak and bh. Hence, 
the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on 
the two legs of the right triangle. 

79. Given the circle ab with the radius ab, and the line cd per- 
pendicular at its extremity. 

To prove that cd is tangent to the circle at b, that is, it will 
touch the circle at only the point b. 

Proof. Draw the line ae from the center to any point on the 
perpendicular line, ae. Since ab is perpendicular to the line cd, it is 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 

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429 




NUMBERS REFER TO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS. 



430 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

shorter than any obhque line. Hence, the point e is not on tUe 
circumference of the circle, and must lie outside of the circle. In 
similar manner, it can be proved that every other point on the line 
CD lies outside of the circle, excepting the point b. Therefore, the 
point B is the only point of contact between CD and the circumference. 

80. See proof of 79. 

81. Given cd drawn from the center of the circle and bisecting 

AB, at E. 

To prove that cd is perpendicular to ab. 

Proof. Draw the radii AC and bc. The two triangles ace and bce 
are equal, the three sides of one being equal to the three sides of 
the other (why?), and the angle aec equals the angle ceb, and since 
they are equal, they must each be equal to a right angle. The line 
CD is, therefore, perpendicular to the given chord. 

82. Given the equal circles abk and lde, with the angles acb equa. 
to angle dfe. 

To prove that the arc ab equals the arc de. 

Proof. Join the points AB and de by straight lines. Now, if the 
sector ACB be applied to the sector dfe, the point a will fall on d, and 
B upon E, and the arc ab must fall within or without the arc de. 
But according to the definition of a circle, this is impossible, hence, 
the two arcs coincide point with point, and are, therefore, equal. 

83. Given the two chords intersecting at the point h. 

To prove that the angle ahd will be measured by one-half the 
sum of the intercepted arcs ad and cb. 

Proof. Join the points A and C. The angle ahd is equal to the 
sum of the angles ACH and cah. The angle cah is measured by 
half the arc cb, and the angle ach is measured by half the arc ad. 
Therefore, the equal of the sum of the two angles, ahd, is measured 
by half the sum of the two intercepted arcs. 

84. Similar polygons are those that have their angles equal, each 
to each, and the homologous sides proportional. 

85. Given abcd and afgd, two rectangles having a common altitude 

AD. 

To prove, abcd :afgd : :ab :af. 

Proof. Suppose the bases ab and af to be commensurable, in the 
rates of 5 to 3. If ab be divided into five equal parts, af will con- 
tain three of these parts. Draw perpendiculars at each point of 
division. These rectangles are equal. 

ABCD :afgd : :S :3 
AB :af : :S :3 ... aecd :afgd : :ab :af. 

86. Given the rectangles abcd and afgh. 
To prove abcd:afgh : :abxbc:agxah. 

Proof. Place the two rectangles so that the angles at A are 
vertical. Complete the rectangle ehca. abcd:ache: :ab:ah. 

ACHE :agfh : :ac :ag. 
Multiply the proportions and divide the antecedent and consequent 
of the first ratio by ache; 

ABCD :agfh : :abxac : :ahxag. 

87. Given the triangle abc; de a line drawn parallel to ab. 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 431 

To prove ad :dc : :be :ec. 

Proof. Draw ae and db. The triangles ade and bde are equal 
because they have the same base, de and are between the same 
parallels, ab and ed. But ade and dec have their bases in the same 
line AC and the same altitude (why?); therefore, ade :dec : :ad :dc 
and BDE :dec : :be :ec. But ade=bde, and dec is common, 
ad :dc : :be :ec. 

88. Given the triangle abc with its sides cut proportionally by the 
line DE, i. e., ae :ec : :bd :dc. 

To prove de parallel to ab. 

Proof. Draw AD and BE. ade:dec: :ae:ec and bde:dec: :bd:dc. 

But we know ae:ec::bd:dc and bde : dec :: ade : dec .'. bde=:Ade. 

Since these triangles are equal and have the same base, the 
altitude must be the same, and therefore the lines de and ab are 
parallel. 

89. Given a and b. 

To find a third proportional, i. e., b :a : :a : cm. 

Construction — 

Draw CD and cm making any angle. On CD and cm cut off parts 
CF and CG equal to a; and on cd, CE=:b. Join e and g. Draw fm 
parallel to eg. cm is the third proportional. For, ce :cf : :CG :CM or 
b:a: :a:CM. 

90. Given the two equiangular triangles abc and def. To prove 
that they are similar and have their homologous sides proportional; 
or, ab:ac: :de:df. 

Proof. Place acb on def so that A falls on D, then since the angle 
a equals the angle d, the inclination of ac to ab is the same as df 
to de. Make dg equal to ac and dh equal to ab. The triangles 
abc and dhg are equal (why?) and angle ABC=:angle dhg and 
ACB=DGH. But acb=dfe, and abc=def .". dhg=:def, and dgh 
=dfe. Since this is so, hg and fe are parallel and dg:df::dh;de 
or, by substituting we get ab :ac : :de :df. 

91. See proof of 90. 

92. Given bd as the bisector of the angle ABC 
To prove ad :dc : :ab :bc. 

Proof. Draw ce parallel to bd and produce ab till it meets CE. 
The angle bce equals the angle dbc (why?) ; the angle bec equals 
abd (why?), and since the angles e and bec are each equal to half 
of ABC, (why?) they are equal to each other, and the triangle bce is 
isosceles .* cb=:ce. Since db is parallel to ce, ad :dc : :ab :be ; but 
BC=BE, .". ad :dc : :ab :bc. 

93. Given acb and fed, two triangles with their sides respectively 
parallel. 

To prove that the triangles are similar. 

Proof, < abc=<fed; < cab=<edf;< acb=<dfe. 

(See 53.) Hence, the triangles are equiangular and similar. In 
like manner it can be proved that when the sides are perpendicular 
to each other, the triangles are equiangular, and, therefore, similar. 

94. Given the right triangle abc with cd as the perpendicular. 



432 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

It L 




92. 

NUMBERS REFER TO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS. 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 433 

To prove that triangles adc and abc, dbc and abc, adc and dbc 
are similar. 

Proof. In triangles adc and abc, the angle a is common, adc and 
ACB are equal, and abc and acd are equal (why?). Hence, the 
triangles are similar. In like manner abc and dbc are also similar. 
In the triangles adc and dbc, the angles acd and cbd are equal ; the 
angle cbdi= the angle adc (see above) and cad==dcb (why?). 
Hence, the triangles adc and dbc are similar. 

Therefore, ad :dc : :dc :db, and ab :ac : :ac :ad, and ab :cb : :cb :db. 

95. Given the secant AC, the tangent cb, both drawn from c. 
To prove cb is the mean proportional between ad and DC. 

Proof. Draw ab. The angle abc is a right angle (why?). In 
the triangles aec and cbd, c is common, angle cbd:= angle a, and 
ABC— CBD (why?). The triangles are similar. Hence, ac :cb : :CB :dc. 

96. Given the two chords ab and cd intersecting. 
To prove ao :do : :co :bo. 

Proof. Join a and c, and b and d. The two triangles aoc and 
bod are equiangular and similar (why?). Hence, ao :do : :co :bo. 

97. Given the two similar polygons, abcde and fgklm. 

To prove that these are composed of the same number of tri- 
angles, similar each to each, and similarly situated. 

Proof. From the vertices a and F draw the diagonals to the 
opposite vertices in their respective polygons. Since the polygons 
are similar, < E = •< m, and the homologous sides are propor- 
tional ; ae:ed :: fm:ml. Therefore, the triangles aed and fml 
are similar, and < edaiz: < mlf. But edc=mlk, therefore, 
ADC=FLK. Hence, triangles are similar, ad is proportional to fl; 
and since the polygons are similar, dc is proportional to lk ; there- 
fore, the triangles ADC and flk are similar. In like manner it can 
be proved that the triangles abc and fkg are similar. 

98. Given the straight line ab. 

To consivuct an equilateral triangle on ab. 

Construction. With a as center and a radius equal to the length 
of the line ab, draw an arc. With the end b as center and the same 
radius, draw an arc cutting the first arc in c. Draw the lines ac 
and BC. The triangle abc is the required triangle, because all three 
sides are equal, being equal to the length of the line' ab. 

99. Given the angle cab. 
To bisect the angle. 

Construction. With A as center and any radius, cut the sides of 
the angle in the points, d and E. With d as center and a radius 
equal to more than half of the distance de, draw an arc of a circle. 
Vv'ith E as center and the same radius, draw another arc. These 
arcs meet in the point f. Join a and f. The line af is the bisectrix 
of the angle, for in the triangles adf and aef are equal in all re- 
spects (why?) ; hence, the angle daf equals the angle fae, and the 
original sngle a is therefore, bisected. 

TOO. Given the line ab. 

To bisect the line ab. 

Construction. With the extremities A and b as centers and a 



434 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 




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NUMBERS REFER TO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS. 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 



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Xr 



i O E> 



B 



X^ 



101 



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436 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

radius equal to more than half of the line, draw arcs, these meeting 
in the points d and E. Draw the line de which cuts the line ab in 
the point c. AC and bc are equal, and the line, is therefore, bisected. 
Why? 

loi. Given the line ab and the point c. 

To construct a perpendicular to the line at c. 

Construction. With c as a center and any radius, draw an arc 
which cuts the line or the line prolonged in the points d and e. With 
these points then as centers, and a radius equal to more than half 
of the distance de, construct arcs. Join the meeting points of 
the arcs (above and below the line) by the line fg. The line fg 
and its part FC are perpendicular to the line ab, because the angles 
DCF and fce are equal and right angles. Why? 

102. Given the line ab and the point c. 
To construct a perpendicular to ab from c. 

Construction. With c as center and a radius equal to any dis- 
tance that will cut the line ab, draw the arc efg. With the points 
E and g as centers and a distance equal to more than half of the 
distance eg draw arcs above and below the line. Join the meeting 
points of the arcs. The line ch is the required perpendicular. 
Why? 

103. Given the angle fed and the line ab. 

To construct an angle on ab at B equal to the given angle. 

Construction. On ab mark off gb equal to the side ed. With B 
as center and a radius equal to the side ef, draw an arc. With the 
point G as center and a radius equal to the distance df, draw another 
arc. These arcs meet in the point c. Join the ends b and g with 
the point c. The angle abc is the required angle; for the triangle 
def and gcb are equal, because the three sides of one are equal to 
the three sides of the other, hence all the angles of one are re- 
spectively equal to all the angles of the other; and the angle def is 
equal to the required angle gbc. 

104. Given the line bc and the point A. 

To construct a line through a that is parallel to the given line. 

Construction. Join the point a with any point in the given line, 
as F. Make the angle daf equal to the angle afb, and prolong the 
line da to e. The line de is the required line. Why? 

105. Given the line be. 

To construct a square on be. 

Construction. At the extremities of the line, erect the perpendicu- 
lars AB and DE, the lengths of which shall be equal to the length of 
the given line. Join the points A and d. abde is the required square. 
Why? 

106. Given the three points a,b,c not in the same straight line. 
To construct a circle that shall pass through these three points. 
Construction. Join the points by the lines ab and bc. From the 

middle points of these two lines, d and E, erect perpendiculars, dg 
and EG. With the point g as center and the distance ga as radius, 
construct the circle abc. g is equally distant from all three points 



ANSWERS IN GEOMETRY. 437 

because it is on the two perpendiculars erected at the middle points 
of the given lines. 

107. Given the triangle abc. 

To construct a circumscribing circle. 

Construction. Erect perpendiculars at the middle points of the 
three sides. These three perpendiculars meet in the point which 
is equidistant from the vertices of the triangle. With the point o 
as center and a radius equal to the distance from to any of the 
vertices, draw the required circle. 

108. For the construction of an inscribed circle, draw the bisectors 
of the three angles of the triangle. They meet in a common point o 
which is equidistant from all the sides of the triangle. With this 
point as a center and a radius equal to the perpendicular distance 
from to any of the sides, construct the required circle. 

109. Given the line ab. 

To divide the line into five equal parts. 

Construction. Draw the line am, making any angle with ab. 
Divide the line am into five equal parts. Draw bm. From the 
points c, D, E, F, draw the lines cg, dh, ei, and fj parallel to bm. 
AG, GH, HI, ij, JM are the required parts. Prove. 

no. Given a and b. 

To construct a mean proportional : i. e., a :x : :x :b. 

Construction. Place a and b so that they will form one continu- 
ous line DE with DF=a, and FE=b. Describe the semicircle of which 
DE is the diameter. At F erect a perpendicular. Join DC and E. CF 
is the required mean proportional ; a :cf : :CF :b. 

III. Given the square s and ab equal to the sum of the sides of a 
rectangle. To construct a rectangle. 

Construction. With ab as a diameter describe the semicircle acdb. 
Draw DC parallel to ab, dc being distant from ab by the perpendicular 
DE, the side of the square s. ae and eb are the sides of the rectangle 
AE :ed : :ed :eb ,', aexeb=:ed2. 



438 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 






NUMBERS REFER TO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS. 



CHAPTER XII. 
QUESTIONS IN ALGEBRA. 

1. (a) Define algebra. 

(b) In what respects does algebra differ from arithmetic? 

2. Read (a) a, a', a", a'", a"", (6) aj, a2, as. 

3. Briefly explain the use of (a) the parenthesis, (), (b) 
the brackets, [], (c) the braces, {} and (d) the vinculum, 

4. What is meant by (a) an algebraic expression, (b) a 
term, (c) a positive term, (d) a negative termi? 

5. What are (a) numerical factors? (b) literal factors? 

6. What are (a) a monomial, (6) a polynomial, (c) a 
binomial, (d) a. trinomial? 

7. What is meant by degree of an expression ? 

8. What is meant by (a) coefficient, (b) exponent, (c) 
index of the power ? 

9. What are like terms? 

10. What is meant by (a) a homogeneous polynomial, 
{b) an arranged polynomial? 

11. Read x, x^, x^, x*, and explain what each denotes. 

12. Express (a) the sum of x and y; (b) of x, y, and z; 
(c) by how much is 3x greater than 5a; (d) arrange seven 
numbers so that y is the middle number. 

13. Express five times the fourth power of x, minus (the 
cube of y increased by the sum of a and b multiplied by 
three times the square of a times x). 

14. What is meant by the reciprocal of a number? 

15. Add: m'* — 3m3— 6m2n, m^n +imn2 — 5m3, /m^n + 
4mn2— 3n3, _2mn2— 3n3+4n4, 2n3+2n4+3m4, — n^-f 
2m4+7m3. 

439 



440 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

16. Subtract: 7x2— 8x— 1 from 15x2— 17x+8. 

17. From a*— 6^ take 4a3b— 6a2b2-f 4a63, and from the 
result take 2a4— 4a3b+6a2b2+4ab3— 2b4. 

18. From 2x2 — 2y2 — z2 take 3y2-|-2x2 — z2, and from the 
remainder take 3z2 — 2y2 — x2. 

19. State the rule for addition of polynomials. 

20. (a) x+(4-b) = ? (b) x+(-b) = ? (0 x-(+b) = ? 
(d) x-(-b) = ? 

21. State the rule in subtraction. 

22. X— [y— z+(m— e— f) } /] = ? 

23. Simplify the following: 

(a) (2x-y) — (2y-z)-(2z-x). 

(b) 2a— I b— (a— 2b)}. 

(c) 2a— (3b+2c)— [5b— (6c— 6b)+5c— { 2a— (c+ 

2b) ;]. 

24. State the important rules in multipHcation of alge- 
braic quantities. 

25. Multiply: 

(a) — a by -|-b. 
(6) —a by — b. 

(c) 3a by — Sab. 

(d) 3ax by 2am by — 4mx by b2. 

26. State the formula for the square of the sum of two 
numbers. 

27. State the formula for the square of the difference be- 
tween two numbers. 

28. State the formula for the product of the sum and the 
difference of two numbers. 

29. State the formula for the square of the sum of three 
numbers. 

30. State the formula for the square of the difference be- 
tween three numbers. 

31. (a) (— 3+2ab+a2b2)X— a4=? 

(&) (— Z— 2xz2 + 5x2yz2— 6x3y2+3x3v2z) X— 3x3vz= ? 

(c) (x4— 3x2-f2x+l)X(x3— 2x— 2) = ?' 

(d) 3m3-l-'^'^^+9nMi2-|-9m2nX6m2n3 — 2mn4 — 6m3n2-|- 
2m4n. 



QUESTIONS IN ALGEBRA. 441 

3'2. (a) (x+y)2=? 

(b) (y-z)2=? 

(r) (x+y) (x-y) = ? 
(d) (2x+l)2=? 

33. (a) (6xy— 5v2) (6xy+5v2) = ? 

(&) (ax-fby) (ax— bv) (a2x2+b2y2) = ? 

(c) (a+b+c)2=? 

(d) (a— b— c)2=? 

34. State the rule for finding, by inspection, (at a glance) 
the product of two binomials in the form of (a+5) (a+6) 
or (b— 8) (b-4). 

35. State the rule when the binomials are of the form of 
(x+5) (x— 3) and (x— 5) (x+3). 

36. Find by inspection (without written work) the 
products of 

(a) (x-3) (x-6) 
(&) (x+1) (x+U) 
(0 (a— 2b) (a— 5b) 

(d) (x+12) (x-11) 

(e) (x-10) (x-5) 
(/) (x-2a) (x+3a) 

37. Write the rule for the division of algebraic quantities. 

38. Write the results of the following: 

20ab 
(^') "~5b" 

(&) ^^ 

(c) 

^'^ abx 

12am^n4p2q3 
^ 3m2n2pq2 

(/) 104ab3x9-^-(91a5b6x7-^-7a4b4x) 

39. (a) (Sab— 12ac)-^4a= 

(b) (12x5— 8x3 +4x)^—3x= 

(c) (12x5y4_24x4v2 + 36x3y3— 12x2y2)H-12x2y2 



-b 
-12a4 



3a 
5aby 



442 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

(d) (x44-64)-^(x2+4x+8) = 

(e) (x4— 6xy— 9x2— y2)-^x2+y+3'x= 

40. Solve the following by inspection and give the rule: 

(a) (a3-l)-(a-l) 

(b) (bs— 343)-^(b— 7) 

(c) (z5— 32a5)^(z— 2a) 

(d) (32y5— 243m5)^(2y— 3m) 

41. Divide the following by inspection, and state the rule: 

(a) (a3+b3)-(a+b) 

(b) (8a3y3+l)^(2ay+l) 

(c) (64a3-^l,000n3)-f-(4a-^10n) 

(d) (1024y5+243z^^)-f-(4y-f3z) 

42. Write the results of the following by inspection, 
and state the rule : 

(a) (x6— a6)--(x+a) 

(b) (y6— 729a6)--(y— 3a) 

(c) (81b4— 16z4)--(3b+2z) 

(d) (256a4— 10,000) -:--(4a+ 10) 

43. Solve the following by inspection, and write the rule : 

(a) (y6+l)^(y2+l) 

(b) (cio+l)--(c2+l) 

(c) (mi2-fl)-^(m.4.-|-l) 

(d) (729a6+p6)-^(9a2+p2) 

FACTORS. 

Factor the following: 

44. 45x'^zio_90x5z7— 360x4z8. 

45. mnpz — n2pz — mpdx+nd2x. 

46. a2+13ab— 300b2. 

47. x6+9x3y-h20y2. 

48., x2y2z2+19xyzcd+48c2d2. 

49. y6— 7y3+12. 

50. c2d2— 30abcd+221a2b2. 

51. X2— y2. 

52. 100a2b2— 10,000c2d2. 

53. (2ab— a2— b2+x2+y2_2xy). 

54. (ay+bx)2- 

55. 729+x6. 



QUESTIONS IN ALGEBRA. 443 

56. 32a5— 243x5. 

57. 729x3— 5 12z3. 

58. 3x2y2_9xy— 12. 

59. y2 — x2 — yb — bx. 

60. 3a3— 2a2y— 27ay2+18y3. 
— ^ 61. m2-l-2mn4-n2 — ^m — n — 6. 

62. p2_5p_24. 

63. 6x2y2_xy3— 12y4. 

64. 4a2x2— 8abx+3b2. 

65. n2x — n2q — a^x-{-a.^q. 

66. (x2— X— 6) (x2— X— 20). 

Find the greatest common divisor or highest common factor 
of: 

67. 12a3x2n— 4a3xn2 and 30a2x3n2— 10a2x2n3. 

68. 42x3y(x— y) (x— 3y) and 28x2 (x2— y) (3x— y). 

69. x2— y2, (x+y)2, and x2+3xy+2y2. 

Find the least common multiple of the following: 

70. 6(x2+xb), 8(xb— b2), 10(x2— b2). 

71. (a — n) (a — c), (n — a) (c — a), (c — a) (c — n). 

72. (a+b)2_(c+d)2, (a+c)2_(b+d)2, (a+d)2_ 
(b+c)2. 

73. State the rule for reducing a fraction to its lowest 
terms. 

Reduce each of the following fractions to lowest terms: 

74. x3— b^ 76. 6x2— 5xy— 6y2 
x2— b2 8x2— 2xy— 15y2 

75. y2+7y4-10 77. a^- 7a2+16a— 12 
y2+5y+6 '3a3— 14a2+16a~" 

^ 78. 6x3— Ilx2c+3xc2 
6x2c— 5xc2— 6c3 
Change to the form of a fraction : 
79. m — 1+ — — • 80. m — 1— 



m 



444 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 
Change to an integral or mixed form: 

81. (^'+^) 82 ?EL'-5m— 2 



(r— 1) m- 

Reduce to fractions with common denominators. 
„^ 2m— 4b ^ 3m— 8b 

84. -"-=^,1, -^=^ 

ya na 

85. -..^^and "^ 



3(s+t) 6(s2— 12) 

Simplify the follov/ing : 
■ ^ 5c3_2 3c2— c 



87. 
88. 



8c2 8 

4m,+5 3m— 7 _9__ 

3 5m "^ 12m2 

1 1 1 , 2c— a , b— 2a 



2c2b 6b2a 2ca2 ' 4c2a2 ' 4c2ba 



89. T3— +T^ 
l+a 1 — 



90. 
91. 
92. 



1 



1 — m 1 — m2 

X— y X— y _ (x— y) (a+b) 

a(x+y) b(x+y) ab(x+y) 

3+2a 2— 3a 16a— a2 
2— a 2+a "^ a2— 4 



Simplify : 
93. ^l„x-i^ 94. ^^ ■ '^ 



am 



2b— 2 ■ b— 1 



95. a2+b2 ^^^ a+b 
a2 — b2 a — b 



96. 



2m(x2— y2)2 _ (x— y) (x+y)' 

v3 



ex 



QUESTIONS IN ALGEBRA. 445 

97. Define (a) equation, (b) identical equations, (c) 
conditional equation, (d) simple equation, (e) simultan- 
eous .equation, (/) fractional equation. 

Solve the following equations: 

98. 5x+40=3x+50. 

99. (x+7) (x— 3) = (x— 5) (x— 15). 

100. 5(x— 2)2+7(x— 3)2=(3x— 7) (4x— 19)+42. 

101. (y-2) (7-y) + (y-5) (y+3)-2(y-l) + 12=0. 

102. x+i/2X+y3X=ll 

103. 2x— %x+l=5x— 2. 

104. 3ax4-| — 3=bx— a. 

105. ^+-4- =20--^^=^ 



106. 



2 



3 4 



.__ X 3x , 4x 

107.-4 ^+"=-T- 



108. 
109. 
110. 



3ay 2by ^_^ 



ay — b , a by by- 



4 ' 3 2 3 

111. Find a number which, being added to twice itself, 
will give a sum equal to 24. 

112. What number is it whose third part is greater than 
its fourth part by 16? 

113. 21 gallons of wine were drawn from a cask that had 
lost one third of its contents by leakage ; the cask then ap- 
peared to be half full. What did the cask originally hold ? 

114. The sum of two numbers is 67 and their difference 
is 19. What are the numbers ? 

115. A workman was engaged for 48 days. For each 
day that he worked he was to receive 24 cents, and for 



446 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

each day that he was idle, he paid 12 cents for his board. 
At the end of the time, he received $5.04. E.equired the 
number of days that he worked and the number of days that 
he was idle. 

116. A and B sit down to play at cards. A sits down 
with $84 and B with $48. Each loses and wins in turn, 
until it finally appears that A has five times as much as B. 
How much did A win? 

117. A can do a piece of work alone in 10 days and B in 
13 days. How long will it take them to complete the work 
if they work together? 

118. A fox, pursued by a grayhound, has a start of 60 
leaps. He makes 9 leaps while the hound makes 6; but 3 
of the hound equal 7 leaps of the fox. How many leaps 
m'ust the grayhound make to overtake the fox? 

119. Two carpenters, 24 journeymen, and 8 apprentices 
received at the end of a certain period $144. The carpenters 
received $1.00 per day, each journeyman, $^4, and the ap- 
prentice $% per day. How many days were they employed 
together ? 

120. A capitalist received a yearly income of $2940 ; four- 
fifths of the money that he had invested bore interest at the 
rate of 4% per annum; the remainder, at the rate of 5%. 
How much money had he invested? 

121. A cistern containing 60 gallons of water has three 
unequal cocks for discharging it ; the largest will empty it 
in 1 hour, the second in two hours and the third in three 
hours. In what time will the cistern be emptied if they are 
all open at the same time? 

122. In a certain orchard, j/2 of the trees are apple trees, 
y^ peach trees, Yq plum trees. There are also 120 cherry 
trees, and 80 pear trees. How many trees are there in the 
orchard ? 

123. A farmer, on being asked how many sheep he had, 
answered that he had them in five fields : in the first there 
were % of all, in the second there were Vq, in the third %, 
yi2 in the fourth and 450 in the fifth. What was the total 
number of his sheep ? 



QUESTIONS IN ALGEBRA. 447 

124. My horse and saddle together are worth $132. If 
the horse is worth ten times the vahie of the saddle, what is 
the value of each ? 

125. The rent of an estate is 8 per cent greater this year 
than it was last year. The rentals this year amounted to 
$1890. What were the rentals last year? 

126. What number is that from which if 5 be subtracted, 
% of the remainder will equal 40 ? 

127. A post is % in the mud, Ys in the water, and 19 feet 
above water. What is the whole length of the pole ? 

128. After paying % and % of my money, I had $66 left. 
What amount did I have at first ? 

129. A person was desirous of giving three pence apiece to 
some beggars, but found that he did not have enough money 
by eight pence so he decided to give two pence to each and 
found that he would have three pence left. How many beg- 
gars were there? 

130. A person, in play, lost ^ of his money, and then 
won $20, after which he lost % of the amount he then had. 
On counting his change, he found that he had $12 left. 
Eiow much did he have at first ? 

131. A and B go into business separately investing equal 
amounts. A gains $126 and finds that he has twice as much 
as B who has lost $87. With how much money did each 
start ? 

Find the values of x and 3^ in the following by addition : 

132. 3x— y=3 135. 8x— 9y=l 
y+2x==7 6x — 3y=4x 

133. 4x-7y=-22 ^3^ | y^^^y^y^^ 
5x+2y=37 '^^- \ %x+y,y=6y^ 



134. 2x+6y=42 ^37 | y^x-^%y=4 

8x — 6y=3 ■ \ X — y= — 2 



448 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 
Find the values of .r and 3; by substitution : 

141. -I -^+6=5 



138. 
139. 
140. 



5x+7y=43 
llx+9y=69 

x+8y=18 
y— 3x=— 29 

5x— y=13 ) 
8x+%y=29 [ 



y 



12 



16 



==0 



Solve the following- by comparison : 
142. 3xH 1 f-6+42 



144. 2y+3x=y+43 

X 4- X 



•^ 22 

143. J^+^ 

X 4. y _ 
8 7 



-uy2 

■=y-2 
=x— 13 




^7x=51 



146. A father says to his son : " Twenty years ago my 
age was four times yours; now, it is just double." What 
were their respective ages? 

147. A father divides his property between his two sons. 
At the end of the first year the elder had spent one quarter 
of his share, and the younger had gained $1000, and their 
property was then equal. At the end of the second year the 
elder son had lost $500, and the younger had gained $2000. 
The property of the younger was now twice as much as 
that of his elder brother. What did each inherit from his 
father? 

148. Two clerks, A and B, receive salaries together equal 
to $900. A spends Yio per year of his salary; B adds as 
much to his salary as A spends. They find that they have 
equal sums at the end of the year. What was the salary of 
each? 

149. Two numbers have the following properties : if the 
first be multiplied by 6, the product will be equal to the 



QUESTIONS IN ALGEBRA. 449 

second multiplied by 5 ; and 1 subtracted from the first 
leaves a remainder equal to the second minus 2. What are 
the numbers ? 

150. Find the two numbers with the following proper- 
ties: the first when increased by 2 is 3^ times as large as 
the second ; the second increased by 4 gives a number equal 
to half the first. What are the numbers ? 

151. A father says to his son, "Twelve years ago I was 
twice as old as you are now ; four times your age at that 
time plus twelve years, will express my age twelve years 
hence." Required the age of ea<jji. 

152. What fraction to the numerator of which if 1 be 
added, the value will be equal to %, but if 1 be added to the 
denominator, the value will be equal to Y^? 

153. Required the two numbers whose difference is equal 
to 7 and whose sum equals S3. 

154. Divide the number 75 into two such parts that three 
times the greater may exceed seven times the less by 15. 

155. In a mixture of wine and vinegar, J^ of the whole 
plus 25 gallons of wine and % of the whole minus 5 gallons 
was cider vinegar. How many gallons were there of each? 

156. Two travelers set out at the same time from London 
and York whose distance apart is 150 miles. One of them 
traveled at the rate of 8 miles a day and the other at the 
rate of 7 miles per day. In what time will they meet ? 

157. If 32 pounds of seawater contain 1 pound of salt, 
how much fresh water must be added to these 32 pounds 
so that the quantity of salt contained in 32 pounds of the 
new mixture shall be reduced to % pound? 

158. The hour and the minute hands of a clock are exact- 
ly together at noon ; when will they be together again ? 

159. At the close of an election the successful candidate 
had a majority of 1500 votes. Had a fourth of the votes of 
the second candidate also been given to him, he would have 
received three times the number of votes of the latter, less 
3500. How many votes did each receive? 



450 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

160. From a company of ladies and gentlemen, 15 ladies 
retired ; there were then left 2 gentlemen to each lady. After 
this, 45 gentlemen departed, in w:hich case there were 5 
ladies to each gentleman. How many ladies and gentle- 
men were there at first ? 

161. The sum of two numbers is 420 and their sum is to 
the first as 7 : 4. Find the numbers. 

162. Find two numbers whose sum and difiference are as 
5 : 1, and their sum and product are 5 : 8. 

163. A man has two horses and a saddle which are worth 
$150. If he puts the saddle on the first horse, it is worth 
twice the other; but, if he puts the saddle on the second 
horse, he is still worth $300 less than the other. What is 
each horse worth? 

164. A is twice as old as B, and 4 years older than C. In 
4 years their combined ages will be 100 years. Find C's age. 

165. A certain number is expressed by two digits. The 
difference is 3, and the units digit is to the tens as 5 is to 2. 
Find the number. 

166. A boat sails 20 miles down a river and back in 8 
hours. It takes as long to sail 3 miles up the river as 5 miles 
down. Find the time to sail the 20 miles each way. 

167. Find two numbers such that the first added to 4 
times the second equals 29; the second added to 6 times the 
first is 36. 

168. The circumference of the fore wheel of a carriage 
is a feet ; of the hind wheel b feet. What distance is passed 
over when the fore wheel has made n more revolutions than 
the hind one ? 

169. At what time between 2 and 3 o'clock are the hands 
of a clock at right angles ? 

170. Find two numbers which produce the same result, 7, 
whether one be subtracted from the other, or the latter be 
divided by the former. 



QUESTIONS IN ALGEBRA. 451 

171. When are the hour and the minute hands of a clock 
together between 10 and 11 o'clock? 

172. A colonel has his regiment in a solid column. If 
there were 2 ranks less, each would have ten more. If there 
were three ranks more, each rank would have 10 men less. 
Find the number in the regiment. 

173. A grocer buys 15 lbs. of figs and 28 lbs, of currants 
for $2.60: by selling the figs at a loss of 10 per cent., and 
the currants at a gain of 30 per cent., he clears 30 cents on 
his outlay ; how much per pound did he pay for each ? 

174. Two persons, A and B, start at same time from two 
places, c miles apart, and walk in the same direction. A 
travels at the rate of d miles an hour, and B at the rate of 
e miles ; how far will A have walked before he overtakes B ? 

175. A train traveled a certain distance at a uniform rate. 
Had the speed been 6 miles an hour more, the journey 
would have occupied 4 hours less ; and had the speed been 
6 miles an hour less, the journey would have occupied 6 
hours m.ore. Find the distance. 

176. A person invested $3,770, partly in 3 per cent bonds 
at $102, and partly in railway stock at $84, which pays a 
dividend of 4^/2 per cent. ; if his income from these invest- 
ments is $136.25 per annum, what sum is invested in each? 



ANSWERS IN ALGEBRA. 

1. (o) That branch of mathematics which treats of numbers and 
.Iheir^ relations by means of symbols which may have any values 
whatever, 

(b) In arithmetic, numbers are used in the solution of examples 
ind problems ; in algebra, the solution does not depend upon num- 
bers; letter symbols are used in place of numbers, to which any 
ralue may be given. In the former all quantities are positive, in 
the latter we deal with minus or negative quantities. In arithmetic 
the plus sign is always understood when not expressed, and the 
multiplication sign is always expressed in work involving that pro- 
cess; in algebra, the reverse is the rule, the multiplication sign is 
understood between two or more letters in one term, and the plus 
sign is always expressed, except at the beginning of an algebraic 
expression. 

2. (a) a, a prime, a second, a third, a fourth, (b) a one, a two, 
a three, a four. 

3. These signs and symbols all indicate that the quantities en- 
closed by them are to be considered as one quantity; as, (x-f-y), 
[x+y], |x+y(. x+y; all of these indicate that x and y are 
to be considered together as one quantity. 

4. (a) An algebraic expression is a quantity composed of a num- 
ber of algebraic symbols, (b) A term is an expression whose 
parts are not separated by the signs + or — ; as, 3x, yabc, 8cf, — 6y/x 
(c) a term preceded by a plus sign; as, +2c, (d) one preceded by 
a minus sign; as, — 6abc. 

5. (a) Numerical factors are those expressed by numbers, while 
(&) literal factors are those expressed or represented by letters. 

6. (a) An expression consisting of only one term, as, Sz, — % xyz. 

(b) One containing more than one term, as, xy-|-7xyz-f-3x — Sabc. 

(c) One containing two terms only, as, 5ab-|-9xyz. 

(d) One containing three terms, as, a-fb-j-Sxy. 

7. The value of the exponent of the term. 

452 



ANSWERS IN ALGEBRA. 453 

8. (a) The coefficient is the known factor of a product prefixed 
to another factor to show how many times the factor is taken ; as, 9 
in 9x; a in ay if the value of a is known; 2 in 2abz if a and b are 
unknown, (b) The exponent is a small figure or letter placed to 
the right of and above the factor to show the number of times it 
is taken as a factor; as, 3 in Sa^b^x. (c) The index of the factor 
or power is the same as the exponent of the power. 

9. Like terms are those that have the same letters; and the cor- 
responding letters have the same exponents of the powers. 

10. (o) When all the terms of a polynomial are of the same de- 
gree, as Sxy-f-2x2- — San. (b) Polynomials so arranged that all the 
terms either descend or ascend according to the degree; as, 7abx+ 
12yx — m.; 7z — 6xy-|-14abz. 

11. X square, the second power of x, denoting x times x. 

x cube or x third, the third power of x, denotes x times x times x. 
X fourth, the fourth power of x, denotes x times x times x times x. 

12. (a) x+y; (b) x+y+z; (c) 3x-5a; (d) y+3, y+2, y+1, y, 
y— 1, y— 2, y— 3. 

13. 5x4— (y3-fa+b) 3 (ax) 2. 

14. One divided by the number itself; as, Vs, is the reciprocal of 
3; 1/y is the reciprocal of y. 

15. 6m4— m3+2m2n+3mn— 4n3+5n4. 

16. 8x2— 9x+9. 

17. — a4— 8ab3-fb4. 

18. x2— 3y2— 3z2. 

19. Arrange the terms of the polynomials in columns so that like 
terms shall be arranged in the same columns; add all the terms that 
have the same sign and find the difference between the sum of the 
positive coefficient and the sum of the negative coefficients, prefix- 
ing the sign of the greater sum and add the common literal factors. 

20. (a) x+b. (&) X— b. (c) x— b. (d) x-\-h. 

21. Change the sign of term to be subtracted, or of all the terms 
in a polynomial that is to be subtracted, and proceed then as in 
addition. 

22. X — y-j-z+m — e-j-f. 

23. (a) 3x— 3y— z. (b) 3a— 3b. (c) 4a— 161>-2c. 

24. (o) The product of quantities with like signs is plus; the 
product of quantities with unlike signs is always minus, (b) In the 
multiplication of monomials annex the literal factors to the product 
of the numerical factors, (c) The product of two or more powers 
of any number is the same number with an exponent equal to the 
sum of the exponents of the factors of that number, (cf) In the 



454 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

multiplication of polynomials multiply the multiplicand by each 
term of the multiplier and then add the partial products. 

25. (a) — ab. (b) ab. (c) — 15a2b. (d) — 24a2m2b2x2. 

26. The sum of the square of the sum of two numbers is equal 
to the sum of their' squares plus twice their product. 

27. The square of the difference of two numbers is equal to the 
sum of their squares minus twice the product of their difference. 

28. The difference between the squares of the numbers. 

29. The square of the sum of three numbers is equal to the sum 
of the squares of the three numbers plus twice the sum of their 
products two by two. 

30. The same as above with the exception that instead of all 
positive quantities the minus sign appears in front of each " twice 
the product " in which the multiplier is a negative quantity. 

31. (a) 3a4— 2a5b— a6b2. 

( b ) 3x3yz2+ 6x4yz3 - 15x5y2z^+ 1 8x6y3z -9x6y3z2. 

(r) x7-5x5+7xH2x2-6x-2. 
(d) 6m7n— 18m5n3+18m3n— 6mn7. 

32. (a) x2+2xy+y2. 

(b) y2 — 2yz+z2. 

(c) x2 — y2. 

(d) 4x2+4x+l. 

33. (a) 36x2y2_25y4. 

(b) a4x4_b4y4. 

(c) a2-|-b2-fc2+2ab+2ac+2bc. 
id) a2+b2+c2+2bc— 2ac— 2ab. 

34. The first product is the square of the first term ; the last term 
is the product of the last terms of the binomials; the middle term 
of the product is equal to the sum of the last terms of the binomials 
as a coefficient of the first term. Thus, a2+lla+30 and b2— 12b— 
32 are the products of the binomials. 

35. The rule is the same as that above quoted with the exception 
that the middle term of the product is equal to the difference of 
the last terms prefixed as a coefficient of the first term. Thus, (x+ 
2x — 15) and (x — 2x — 15) are the answers. The sign of the last 
terms is always minus. 

36. (a) x2— 9x+18. 

(b) x2+12x+ll. 

(c) a2— 7ab+10b2. 

(d) x2-fx— 132. 

(e) x2— 15x+50. 
if) x2+ax— 6a2. 



ANSWERS IN ALGEBRA. 455 

37. (a) Write the dividend over the divisor with a line between 
them and remove the common factors, in the division of monomials. 
(b) The quotient is that power of the number with an exponent 
equal to the exponent of the dividend less the exponent of the di- 
visor, (c) Where the exponent of the quotient is a negative quan- 
tity make the quotient a reciprocal with a positive exponent. 

38. (a) 4a. 

(b) -a. 

(c) — 4a3. 

X 

(e) 4am3n2pq. 
(/) 8bx3. 

39. (a) 2b— 3c. 

(&) 3x4—2x2+1. 
(c) x3y2_2x2+3xy— 1. 
(dj x2— 4k+8. 
(e) x2 — 3x — ^y. 

40. (a) a24-a+l. 
(&) b2-f7b-f49. 

(c) z4+2z3a+4z2a2-f8za3+16a4. 

Id) 16y4-f24y3m-f36y2m2+54ym3-f81m4. 

The difference between two equal odd powers of any two quan- 
tities is divisible by the differences of the quantities. 

41. (a) a2— ab+b2. 
(&) 4a2y2— 2ay-f 1. 

(c) 16a2— 40an+100n2. 

id) 256y4— 192y2z+144y2z2— 108yz3-f81z4. 

The sum of two equal odd powers is divisible by the sum of the 
numbers. Note the signs. 

42. (a) x5 — x4a-fx3a2 — x2a3-f-a4x — a^. 

(b) y5+3y4a-f9y3a2+27y2a3+81ya4+243a5. 

(c) 27b3— 18b2z+12bz2— 8z3. 
id) 64a3— 160a2+4O0a— lOOO. 

The difference between two equal even powers of two numbers is 
divisible by either the difference or the sum of the numbers. 

43. (a) y4— y24-l. 

ib) c8— c6+c4— c2+l. 
ic) m8— m4+l. 
id) 81a4— 9a2p24-p4. 

The sum of two equal even powers of two numbers is divisible 
by only the sum of each of the numbers raised to an even power. 

44. 4Sx4z7(x3z3— 2x— 8z). 



456 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

45. (mp — nd) (nz — dx). 

46. (a+25b) (a— 12b). 

47. (x3+5y) (x3-f4y). 

48. (xyz+16cd) (xyz+3cd). 

49. (y3-4) (y3-3). 

50. (cd— 17ab) (cd— 13ab). 

51. (x+y) (x-y). 

52. (lOab+lOOcd) (lOab— lOOcd). 

53. (a— b— x+y) (a— b+x— y). 

54. (ay+bx— 2) (ay+bx+2). 

55. (9+x2) (81— 9x2+x4). 

56. (2a+3x) (16a4— 24a3x+36a2x2_54ax3-)-81x4).^ 

57. (9x— Sz) (81x2+72xz+64z2). 

58. 3(xy+l) (xy-4). 

59. (y+x) (y-x— b). 

60. (a+3y) (a— 3y) (3a— 2y). 

61. (m+n+2) (m+n— 3). 

62. (p+3) (p-8). 

63. y2(3x+4y) (2x— 3y). 

64. (2ax— b) (2ax— 3b). 

65. (n+a) (n — a) (x — q). 

66. (x+2) (x— 3) (x+4) (x— S). 

67. 2a2xn(3x — n). 

68. Hx2(x— y). 

69. x+y. 

70. 12Dbx (x+b) (x— b)^ 

71. (a — n) (a — c) (n — c). 

72. (a+b+c+d) (a+l>-c— d) (a+c— b— d) (a+d— b— c). 

73. A fraction is reduced to its lowest terms by dividing both 
numerator and denominator by the greatest common divisor (or 
highest common factor) of its terms. 

x2+bx+b2 3x+2 y 

^^- x+b ^^- 4x+5y 

y+5 a2— 5a+6 

'^- y+3 ^^- 3a2— 8a 



ANSWERS IN ALGEBRA. 457 

x(3x— c) 1 



78. 



79. _H^ 3^^ 2 



c(3x+2c) °°- - 6ba 

1 
m 



1— a2 

m2 — 2m 4-1 , 

80. 90. -__!_ 

81. r2+r+l+^ 

r— 1 2(y— x) 

10 b(x+y) 

82. 2m+3+-^i^ J 



83. 
84. 



4m— 8b 3m2_8bm ^^- 2+a 



10m2 10m2 

n — bny any cj' — bny 93. 



any any any 



8x(s— t ) xy 94. —^— 

^^- 6(s2— 12) 6(s2— 12) 

6c3_3c-i-2 or (a^+b^) 

86. 8^2 ^^- a2— b2 

80m3+64m2+84m-{-45 2mx2(x— y) 

^^- 60m2 ^^- c 

97. (a) A statement that one expression equals another; as, 
5+x=;104-y. (&) An equation in which the two sides or mem- 
bers are equal no matter what values are assigned to the literal 
factors or terms as, a-|-b=:m+n. (c) One that is true only when 
the letters have particular values, (d) One containing only one 
unknown quantity and that quantity in the first degree, (e) One 
containing two or more equations with one or more unknown 
quantities, equations being satisfied by the same values of the un- 
known numbers, (f) One in which either of the terms of the frac- 
tion or both is a letter. 

IDS. x=23^. 

106. x=3%3. 

107. x-4. 
cdf+4cd 



98. 


x= 


=5. 


99. 


x= 


-A. 


100. 


X: 


=4. 


101. 


y: 


=3. 


102. 


X: 


=6. 


103. 


X: 


6— 3a 



^^- '- 3ad-2bc 
109. z= abcdf 



6a— 2b ^^°" ^~ 3a— 2b 



bed — acd+abd — abc 
3b 



458 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

111. 8. 

112. 192. 

113. 126. 

114. 24 and 43. 

lis. 30 work days; 18 idle days. 

116. $26. 

117. 5i%3 days. 

118. 108 leaps. 

119. 9 days. 

120. $70,000. 

121. 32%i minutes. 

122. 2400 trees. 

123. 1200 sheep. 

124. $120. 

125. $1750. 

126. 65. 

127. 24 feet. 

128. $120. 

129. 11 beggars. 

130. $20. 

131. $300. 

132. x=2; y=3. 

133. x=:5 ; y=6. 

134. x=4^ ; y=5j^i. 

135. x=^ ; y=%. 

136. x=6 y=9. 

137. x=14; y=16. 

138. x=:3 ; y=4. 

139. x=10; y=l. 

140. x^3y2 ; y=4y2. 

141. x=:12; y=16. 

142. x=ll; y=15. 

143. x=16; y=7. 

144. x=10; y=— 13. 



ANSWERS IN ALGEBRA. 459 



145. x=7; y=14. 

146. Father, 60 years; son, 30 years. 

147. Elder, $4000 ; younger, $2000. 

148. A, $500; B, $400. 

149. 5; 6. 

150. 24; 8. 

151. Father, 72 years; son, 30 years. 

152. 4/15. 

153. 13; 20. 

154. 54; 21. 

155. Wine, 85 gal.; vinegar, 35 gal 

156. 10 days. 

157. 224 lb. 

158. 5%i minutes past 1. 

159. 6500 votes ; 5000 votes. 

160. 50 gentlemen; 40 ladies. 

161. 180; 240. 

162. 4; %. 

163. $1050; $600. 

164. 32% years. 

165. 25. 

166. 3 hours down; 5 hours up the river, 

167. 5 ; 6. 
„ abn 

169. 27%i minutes past 2. 

170. 11/6 ; 81/6. 

171. 5%i minutes to 11. 

172. 600 men. 

173. Figs, 8c; currants, 5c 

do 

174. ^zi^ miles. 

175. 720 miles. 

176. $2720 in bonds ; $1050 in stock. 



CHAPTER XIII. 

LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS MOST COMMONLY IN 

USE. 

A. B., Bachelor of Arts. 

A. D., Anno Domini, in the year of our Lord. 

Ae., Of age. 

A. M. or M. A., Master of Arts. 

Anon., Anonymous. 

Asst., Assistant. 

Brig. Gen., Brigadier General. 

Cr., Credit; creditor. 

D. D., Doctor of Divinity. 

Dept., Department. 

Do., Ditto, the same. 

Dr., Debit ; debtor. 

Dr., Doctor. 

E., East. 

Eng., England ; English. 

Esq., Esquire. 

Et al, and elsewhere ; and others. 

Etc. &c, Etcetera ; and so forth. 

Fahr., Fahrenheit. 

Feb., February. 

F. O. B., Free on board. 

Gov., Governor. 

H. M., His Majesty; Her Majesty. 

Hon., Honorable. 

lb.. Ibid ; the same. 

I. E., Id est ; that is. 

Incog., Incognito; unknown. 

Inst., Instant ; this month ; present month. 

Jan., January. 

Jr., Junior. 

Lat., Latitude; Latin. 

460 



LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS. 461 

LL. D., Doctor of Laws and Letters. 

Long., Longitude. 

Lieut, or Lt., Lieutenant. 

M., Monsieur; Sir; Mr. 

Maj., Major. 

M. C, Member of Congress (Representative). 

M. E., Methodist Episcopal. 

Mile., Mademoiselle ; Miss. 

M. P., Member of Parliament. 

Mr., Mister ; Mr. 

Ms., Manuscript. 

N. A., North America. 

N. B., Nota Bene ; note well ; take notice. 

N. E., Northeast; New England. 

No., Number. 

Nov., November. 

Oct., October. 

O. S., Old Style (calendar, before 17 — ). 

O. T., Old Testament. 

N. T., New Testament. 

Ph. D., Doctor of Philosophy. 

P. M., Postmaster ; afternoon. 

P. O., Post office. 

Prof., Professor. 

Q. E. D., Which was to be proved or demonstrated. 

Rev., Reverend ; review ; revenue. 

R. R., Railroad. 

S. A., South America. 

Sat., Saturday. 

Soc, Society. 

Sr., Senior. 

St., Saint ; street. 

Supt., Superintendent. 

Tu., Tues., Tuesday. 

U. S., United States. 

U. S. A., United States of America ; United States Army. 

U. S. N., United States Navy. 

Viz., Namely. 

Vol., Volume. 

V. P., Vice President. 

Pres., President. 



462 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

W., West. 
S., South, 
N., North. 
Wed., Wednesday. 

LATIN AND FRENCH WORDS AND PHRASES. 
L=LATIN ; F=FRENCH. 

Ad infinitum. (L.) To the end; to infinity. 

A la mode. (F.) According to the fashion. 

Ad libitum. (L.) At pleasure. 

Alias. (L.) An assumed name. 

Au fait. (F.) Skilled. 

Au revoir. (F.) Till we meet again. 

Belles-lettres. (F.) Polite or good literature. 

Bon ton. (F.) Good or high style. 

Bon mot. (F.) A witticism; a witty saying. 

Bona fide, (L.) In good faith. 

Carte blanche. (F.) With full permission or consent; un- 
limited. 

Cui bono? (L.) For whose good? 

Ci devant. (F.) Former. 

Coup d'etat, (F.) A stroke of State policy. 

Debut. (F.) First appearance. 

De facto. (L.) Actually; in fact. 

De jure (L.) According to or in law. 

De trop. (F.) Too many. 

En masse. (F.) In a body. 

Ennui. (F.) Weariness ; fatigue. 

En passant. (F.) By the way. 

En route. (F.) On the way. 

En suite. (F.) In company. 

E pluribus unum. (L.) One out of many. 

Errata. (L.) Errors ; mistakes. 

Ex officio. (L.) By virtue of the office. 

Ex parte. (L.) On the side. 

Faux pas. (F.) A mistake; a false step. 

Fete. (F.) A festival; a feast. 

In statu quo. (L.) In the former state or condition; as it 
was. 

Miandamus. (L.) We command. 

Modus operandi. (L.) mode of operating. 



LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS. 463 

Ne plus ultra. (L.) Nothing beyond. 

Nolens volens. (L.) Willingly or unwillingly. 

Nolle prosequi. (L.) Unwilling to prosecute. 

Nom de plume. (F.) An assumed literary name. 

On dit, (F.) They say. 

Par excellence. (F.) Preeminently. 

Per annum. (L.) By the year. 

Per diem. (L.) By the day. 

Postmortem. (L.) After death. 

Prima facie. (L.) According to the face; on first view. 

Pro bono publico. (L.) For the public good. 

Pro et con. (L.) For and against. 

Quantum sufficit. (L.) Sufficient quantity. 

Qui vive. (F.) On the alert. 

Quid pro quo. (L.) An equivalent. 

Quondam. (L.) Former. 

Regime. (F.) System or rule. 

Sang froid. (F.) Self possession. 

Sine die. (L.) Without a day. 

Sub rosa. (L.) Secret, under cover, privately. 

Tete-a-tete. (F.) A private talk. 

Tout ensemble. (F.) General appearance. 

Terra firma. (L.) Solid earth. 

Vis a vis.(F.) Face to face. 

Versus. (L.) Against. 

Via. (L.) By way of. 

Viva voce. (L.) By the living voice. 



CHAPTER XIV. 

PENMANSHIP. 

The purpose of these lessons is to present to the teacher 
and student a series of well graded drills and exercises in 
free arm movement penmanship with the idea of securing to 
the student a free, rapid and easy style of writing with the 
minimum of fatigue. 

POSITION of the writer. Sit in an upright position, with 
the head and shoulders erect and the right arm perfectly 
flat on the desk, and the left hand holding and moving the 
paper. Keep your feet firmdy fixed on the floor, with the side 
of the body just touching the front of the desk, and facing 
the corner of the room. Hold arm and pen in the position 
shown in figure at the head of the exercises. The end of 
the penholder should point midway between the shoulder 
and the elbow. 

SUGGESTIONS. See that your pen is clean and clear at 
the beginning of every exercise, and that the ink flows 
freely. 

Study the exercises until they are familiar to you. 

Hold your pen lightly and move freely and easily across 
the paper. 

Count with each up or down stroke, suiting your writing 
to your counting. Write slowly when counting is slow ; 
write faster when counting is faster, and keep on increasing 
the rapidity of your counting. 

Do not sacrifice form for speed. Aim for accuracy of 
form. 

Strokes should slant at an angle about one fourth of a 
right angle. 

Practice each exercise until it is thoroughly known and 
mastered. 

464 



PENMANSHIP. 



465 



Combine letters, and practice full words. 
Combine capitals and small letters. (See list.) 
Remember that PRACTICE MAKES PERFECT. 



LIST OF WORDS FOR PRACTICE. 



an 

animal 
animate 
ball 
bull 
bile 
cat 
catch 
cattle 
dog 
dug 
day- 
daily 
each 
eating 
early 
fan 
fancy 
funny 
frying 
game 
globe 
grime 
hang 
hundred 
hovering 
in 

illness 
independent 
joke 
jug 
judge 
kite 
kiss 
landed 



lingering 

manner 

mover 

many 

number 

ninny 

open 

opera 

orange 

paper 

prince 

quince 

queer 

runner 

rumor 

ravage 

stamp 

something 

savage 

trick 

tumbler 

taken 

uncle 

union 

urbane 

vintage 

vagary 

velvet 

wavering 

water 

wafer 

young 

yams 

zebra 

zenith 



Abraham 

Benjamin 

Charles 

Daniel 

Ebenezer 

Frances 

George 

Harold 

Irving 

James 

Katharine 

Leonard 

Manuel 

Nina 

Oporto 

Price 

Quincy 

Roland 

Stephen 

Unger 

Vermilye 

William 

Xenophon 

Young 

Zulu 



$125.00 Chicago, III., June 2, 1911. 

Five (5) months after date I promise to pay to the order of 

Henry R. Young 

One hundred twenty-five '*^4oo Dollars 

Value received, with interest. 

STEPHEN GIRARD. 



466 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 






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CHAPTER XV. 

PEDAGOGIC SUBJECTS. 

Class and School Management. 

History of Education. 

Psychology and Principles of Education. 

General Methods. 
Special Methods in Arithmetic^ English,, 

History and Geography, 
questions in class and school management. 

1. Why must regularity and punctuality of attendance 
be regarded as important considerations in the manage- 
ment of a school? 

2. Name the three purposes of discipline in a school- 
room. 

3. Name the advantages to teacher and pupils of the 
daily preparation by the teacher of the lessons to be taught. 

4. Give arguments for corporal punishment. 

5. Give arguments against corporal punishment. 

6. Enumerate some principles that should guide any 
principal or teacher in the making of a class program. 

7. In what ways do teachers cause truancy among pu- 
pils? 

8. State objections to the teacher's questioning pupils 
in regard to delinquencies of their schoolmates. 

9. State two respects in which an ungraded school is 
preferable to a graded one. 

10. Should a teacher explain the reason for disciplining 
a pupil? Give a reason for your answer. 

11. What are the principal objections to awarding 
prizes on the basis of comparison of his conduct with that 
of another? 

12. What considerations should govern a teacher in 
recommending a pupil's promotion? 

476 



PEDAGOGIC SUBJECTS. 477 

ANSWERS IN CLASS AND SCHOOL MANAGEMENT. 

1. One of the most important functions of the school is the in- 
culcation of right habits to be made use of in later school life and 
the business and social worlds. Regularity and punctuality are 
among the most desirable of habits. Moreover, economy of time 
and effort in class and school management requires that these hab- 
its be inculcated. No one factor can aid so much in the proper 
disciplining of a school. They provide an effective training of the 
will. 

2. (a) To correct and reform the pupil; (&) to prevent the re- 
currence of the offence; (c) to serve as an example to the others 
in the class. 

3. (a) It economizes the energy of the teacher; (&) the teacher 
is able to meet the chief difficulties in the lesson; (c) it enables 
him to see the relatively important and unimportant in the lesson, 
and to emphasize the necessary part of the work; i-t gives him full 
power to apply numerous illustrations and applications; (d) it 
saves time; (e) it insures the teacher's interest in the subject and 
tends to develop interest of the pupils in the work. 

4. (a) Some pupils are not amenable to any other form of pun- 
ishment; (b) the fear that it can and may be used puts a quietus 
on the tendency to gross disorder. 

5. (a) This means of disciplining may be used to the exclusion 
of all other means; (b) offences for which the punishment may be 
inflicted may be trivial; (c) the teacher should not be the one to 
inflict it in any case, as it tends to degrade the teacher in the eyes 
of the pupils; (d) the results are not lasting; (<?) it may be ap- 
plied to pupils for error in work, and help instill a dislike for the 
work in the pupil; (f) it may suppress and break the child's spirit; 
and may breed hatred for the teacher, as in the case of Tennyson. 

6. (a) Do not allow for too many recitations; (b) in the lower 
grades have no lesson take longer than thirty minutes; (c) place 
the subjects requiring thought well in the early part of the day, 
when the mind is at its best; (d) indicate seat and study work; 
(e) correlate wherever possible; (/) do not have two lessons in- 
volving the same kind of mental work follow each other or too 
closely after each other; (g) take into consideration the total 
amount of the work to be done and the natural abilities of the 
pupils. 

7. (a) The teacher may threaten punishment in case of tardiness 
or lateness; (b) may neglect to notify the parents; (c) make the 
child feel that he is neglected; (d) may hold him up to ridicule and 
sarcasm; (e) make personal remarks on the appearance, breeding, 
etc., of the pupil ; (f) may engender a feeling of hatred or dislike. 

8. (a) It tends to make the children tale bearers; (b) it is a 
confession of weakness on the part of the teacher; (c) it causes 
disorders and dissensions among the scholars; (d) it is un-Amer- 
ican; (e) it warps the moral judgment of the pupils, and (/) tends 
to exaggerate the faults in others. 



478 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

9. (o) The individual pupil can secure the attention that he prop- 
erly requires; (fc) the brighter pupils may be advanced according 
to the progress which they make; (c) subjects suited to the needs 
of the pupils may be taken up without regard to the grade of the 
pupils. 

10. Generally speaking, the teacher should not. But there are 
cases where an explanation is necessary in order to show the justice 
of the punishment. The children should learn implicit and unques- 
tioning obedience in school. When an unnecessary explanation is 
made, the effect is to weaken this discipline. 

11. The only consideration that should merit the award of prizes 
is effort made by the pupils. The practice of giving prizes for con- 
duct is especially vicious, since it undermines the foundation of 
prompt and implicit obedience to the rules of the school. By means 
of prizes a premium is put on disorder and infractions of the rules. 

12. (a) The effort shown by the pupil; (b) his progress in work; 
(c) the ability to take up the advanced work; (d) his behavior and 
age. 



QUESTIONS IN HISTORY OF EDUCATION. 

1. What characteristics of the work of Socrates entitle 
him to rank among great educators? 

2. Describe the origin and development of the Kinder- 
garten. 

3. How did the Crusades promote education in Europe? 

4. Enumerate some of the fundamental ideas in Com- 
enius's theories of education. 

5. State the characteristics of Spartan education. 

6. What subjects were included in a liberal education 
of the Roman youth? 

7. State briefly why the religious reformers were natur- 
ally interested in the subject of public education. 

8. Show in what way Fenelon was connected with edu- 
cation. 

9. (a) What subjects were emphasized in the elemen- 
tary schools of fifty or more years ago? (b) What sub- 
jects are emphasized today? (c) Account for this change. 

10. Name a prominent work on education written by 
each of the following: Spencer, Locke, Rousseau, Pes- 
talozzi, Comenius, Fenelon, Barnard, Page, Aristotle, 
Plato. 



PEDAGOGIC SUBJECTS. 479 

11. From the standpoint of the state, hov/ can compul- 
sory education in any country be justified? 

12. Which term, education or instruction, is the more 
applicable to the work of (a) the ancient Chinese educa- 
tion ; (b) the ancient Athenian system of education? (c) 
Explain why. 



ANSWERS IN HISTORY OF EDUCATION. 

1. (o) His opposition to the superficial instruction of the Soph- 
ists, and his insistence upon getting at the real truth of any matter; 
(6) by his use of what is known as the Socratic method, which is 
the developing method; (c) his distinction between the subjective 
and the objective worlds in teaching. 

2. Froebel in his studies and work as a teacher observed that the 
children delighted in movement and action; that they used all their 
senses, observed keenly, discovered facts and invented and con- 
structed things in their play. These natural tendencies he proposed 
to use in the interest of education. The Kindergarten was accord- 
ingly organized. In this the activities of the children are organized 
and systematized, so that order is given to their ideas, and the chil- 
dren are prepared for the regular school work. 

3. (a) They caused a change in the relations of man in 
Europe; (b) they contributed largely to the progress of civilization; 

(c) enlarged the sphere of human knowledge; (d) introduced the 
sciences, arts and literature of the Eastern countries; (e) the eman- 
cipation of the serving classes followed as a result; (/) commerce 
and trade were quickened, and the middle class strengthened in their 
fight for freedom. 

4. (o) Whatever is known must be taught; (b) whatever is 
taught should be taught as being of practical application; (c) if 
anything is to be learned, it. general principles must first be learned; 

(d) we should not leave any subject until it is thoroughly under- 
stood; (^) all things should be learned in due succession, and not 
more than one thing to be taught at one time. 

5. The building up of a nation of strong and sturdy warriors 
characterized by a few noble public and private virtues, accompan- 
ied by a large number of vices in order to make these few virtues 
stand prominent. The mental features of education were neglected, 
while the physical side was strongly emphasized. Subjects that en- 
ter into a finer education were eliminated ; war songs and heroic 
accounts were used to instill courage and patriotism. No lasting 
results. 



480 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

6. Grammar, rhetoric, dialectic, music, arithmetic, geometry and 
astronomy. 

7. Owing to their rehgious theory, the fundamental propositions 
of which were that man is justified by his personal faith, and that 
the source of this faith is the Bible, and that to get at the source 
of this faith, it was necessary to have a people who would be able 
to read and comprehend the sacred books with intelligence and 
understanding. 

8. Fenelon was a priest whose chief efforts in the line of educa- 
tion were to make the Catholic religion the universal religion in 
France. He was superior of the convent of the New Catholics, an 
institution for the retention and education of the female converts to 
the Catholic faith. His most important contribution to education 
was his " Education of Girls." 

9. (a) The humanities; languages, particularly Latin and Greek. 

(b) The English language and the scientific and industrial subjects. 

(c) This change is due to the changed industrial and commercial 
conditions. 

10. Spencer, " Education " ; Locke, " Thoughts on Education " ; 
Pestalozzi, " Leonard and Gertrude " ; Comenius, " Orbis Pictus " ; 
Fenelon, " Education of Girls " ; Barnard, "American Journal of 
Education " ; Page, " Pedagogy " ; Aristotle, " Politics " ; Plato, 
" Republic." 

11. Modern nations recognize the fact that the preservation and 
progress of modern social and political institutions rest upon the 
intelligence of its inhabitants. That nation progresses most whose 
inhabitants show the least illiteracy, while those nations are among 
the lowest in the scale of importance where the people are in a back- 
ward state of education. The state, therefore, has assumed the 
function of compelling the children to attend the public schools 
during a certain period of their minority. 

12. (a) Instruction; (&) education. (c) The Chinese system 
tended to cultivate the memory, to the neglect of the other phases 
of the mind. The Athenians, on the other hand, sought to develop 
every phase of the human mind. The complete development of the 
human being, by the harmonious union of physical and intellectual 
education, was their aim. 



QUESTIONS IN PSYCHOLOGY. 

1. Distinguish between (a) physiologic and (&) psycho- 
logic facts. 

2. Define (a) perception ; (b) conception, 

3. State the stages of conception, and explain each. 

4. State the three laws of association, and briefly ex- 
plain each. 

5. Explain what is meant by reasoning from analogy. 



PEDAGOGIC SUBJECTS. 481 

6. What is the value of habit? 

7. Contrast induction and deduction. 

8. What is attention? 

9. Name the kinds of attention and briefly discuss each. 

10. (a) State the threefold division of the mind, (b) 
In which phase of the mind would you place the follow- 
ing: reason, attention, love, rivalry, memory and resolu- 
tion? 

11. Briefly discuss the formation of character in the 
school. 



ANSWERS IN PSYCHOLOGY. 

1. (a) Facts that are associated with the various bodily organs 
and their functions, (b) Those relating to the workings of the 
mind, its stimuli and results, and their translation into the activity 
of the bodily organs. 

2. (a) The consciousness of particular material things present to 
the sense; the process of referring sensations to definite objects. 
(b) The function by which we can recognize or identify a distinct 
subject of discourse; the power to think individuals into classes or 
general notions. 

3. (a) The observation of two or more individual things re- 
sembling one or another in certain particulars, brought together as 
percepts or images. (&) Comparison and contrast, with the se- 
lection of the points of resemblance, (c) Abstraction of the re- 
semblances and their differentiation from the differences, (d) Gen- 
eralization resulting in the formation of the concept, and tendency 
to compare the individual with and include it in the general notion 
of the concept. 

4. (a) Ideas are associated. "Each idea, as it comes before us, 
reaches one hand back into the past, and the other forward into the 
future." (b) Ideas are associated through similarity or contigu- 
ity. " Present actions, sensations, thoughts or emotions tend to re- 
vive their like among previously recurring states." — Bain. " Pres- 
entations or impressions which occur together or in immediate suc- 
cession will afterward tend to revive, recall or suggest another." — 
Sully, (c) Association by contrast. " One presentation or impres- 
sion will tend to revive, recall or suggest its opposite." 

5. Where certain similarities are discovered bet een two or more 
things, and what is true of one thing is believed true of the other 
things because of these common similarities. " Two things resem- 
ble one another in one or more respects ; a certain proposition is 
true of the one ; therefore it is true of the other." — Mill. 

6. The formation of habits tends to save the will power in things 
and actions that need to be repeated often; restrains unnecessary 



482 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

and superfluous activity of the muscles ; aids the intellect ; strength- 
ens the powers of observation, memory and reasoning; and aids 
education in the formation of good habits. It economizes time and 
energy. But it must not be allowed to deaden the power of initiative 
in the individual. 

7. Induction is the reasoning from a number of particular in- 
stances to a general conclusion, while deduction is the reasoning 
from a general conclusion and applying it to a number of particular 
instances to prove the truth of that conclusion. 

8. The direction of the mind to any object or thing which pre- 
sents itself to the mind. 

9. Involuntary attention, in which the mind is acted upon by the 
force of the stimulus presented at the time. Voluntary attention, in 
which the mind is active under a desire ; it puts forth effort to at- 
tend to the object. 

10. (a) Knowing or intellect; (b) feeling or emotions; (c) will; 
(d) intellect, will, feeling, feeling, intellect, will. 

11. The formation of character includes the cultivation of all the 
powers of the mind. The intelligence is to be cultivated so that the 
child may possess the powers of attention and reflection. A man of 
character possesses all the virtues which later require intelligence. 
The growth and development of feeling are also strong elements in 
the development of character. Truth and justice are prime charac- 
teristics of the man of character ; and these may be developed by 
means of school work. History cultivates the moral judgment; 
mathematics, truth; geography, the reflective power. The will, so 
prominent in the man of character, develops with the co-ordinating 
growth and development of the other phases of the mind. 



QUESTIONS IN GENERAL METHODS AND SPECIAL METHODS 

IN ARITHMETIC, ENGLISH, HISTORY AND 

GEOGRAPHY. 

1. Enumerate five of the most important laws of gen- 
eral method. 

2. Define apperception. 

3. What are the five formal steps of apperception? 

4. Show the differences in method of treatment of (a) 
arithmetic, (b) composition; (c) geography; (d) history. 

5. In the process of teaching, one should test, instruct 
and drill. State the order in which they should be taken 
up, and the purpose of each. 

6. Mention the processes by the aid of which the mem- 
ory may be strengthened. 



PEDAGOGIC SUBJECTS. 483 

7. What mental and moral habits are specially developed 
by the proper study of arithmetic? 

8. Mention five general suggestions that you would 
give to teachers of mathematics that would tend to im- 
prove the efficiency of their work. 

9. What is the fundamental idea in the teaching of pri- 
mary arithmetic work? 

10. Illustrate how you would teach the first principles 
of percentage by the inductive method. 

11. In what grade should the teaching of phonics be 
introduced? 

12. Teachers should make special preparation for con- 
ducting recitations in reading. Mention three essentials 
of such preparations. 

13. State two common defects in articulation, and sug- 
gest a remedy. 

14. Mention two faculties that should be chiefly ap- 
pealed to in teaching children in the primary grades. 

15. Enumerate the advantages of (a) the word method, 
(&) the sentence method of teaching reading. 

16. In the geography syllabus you are required to take 
up the climate, position, surface, products, people, occupa- 
tions of a country. Arrange these in the order in which 
they should be taken up, and state your reasons for your 
arrangement. 

17. State how you would convey an idea of the size and 
dimensions of the United States to your class. 

18. What kind of historical facts possesses the most 
value and interest for young children, such as are in the 
fourth and fifth years? Illustrate. 

19. What is the value of sketching of maps in connec- 
tion with history and geography work when made by (a) 
the teacher; (b) the pupil? 

20. Discuss the use of the history text-book as a read- 
ing book. 

21. Discuss the value of the topical method of teaching 
geography. 

22. Indicate what you deem the most valuable method 
of teaching geography from the viewpoints of the children, 
and give your reasons therefor. 



484 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

23. Name three subjects that the teacher of history 
should know. 

24. In teaching history to young children why is it 
well to group events round the lives of eminent persons? 

ANSWERS IN GENERAL METHODS AND SPECIAL METHODS 

IN ARITHMETIC, ENGLISH, GEOGRAPHY AND 

HISTORY. 

1. (a) We must proceed according to nature. (&) Methods must 
be suited to the needs of the pupils, their capacities, knowledge and 
stage of development, (c) The senses should be largely exercised. 
(d) We should proceed from the known to the related unknown, 
from the simple to the more complex, from the individual thing to 
the general concept, (e) Arrange your work so that the children 
will naturally find interest in what you present to them. 

2. That form of mental activity under which the percepts are 
brought into relation with our previous experiences and modified so 
that they are assimilated with them. 

3. Preparation, presentation, comparison, generalization, applica- 
tion. 

4. (a) The reasoning power is to be emphasized, and here the 
necessity for exact judgments is of first importance, (b) Composi- 
tion lends itself to clear thinking; that and facility and fluency of 
language are the main considerations, (c) In this subject the de- 
velopment of the rational powers by means of causal relations is 
important. Both the inductive and deductive methods of reasoning 
are employed individually and supplementary of each other, (d) 
The treatment of this subject should bring out the universality of 
the moral laws. The philosophy of history should find no place in 
the elementary school. Fluency of language is of course not to be 
slighted. 

5. Instruct, drill and test. Instruction adds to the general amount 
of knowledge of the pupil, helps him to form new and additional 
general notions, and absorb new ideas, notions and concepts and 
apperceiving groups. Drill fixes these ideas and concepts, and deep- 
ens and strengthens them. Testing will assist in their application 
and help to broaden their experiences. 

6. Drill and repetition ; simple mnemonics ; by bringing the events 
into association with others by means of the three laws of associa- 
tion ; appeal to as many of the senses as possible. 

7. Exactness, correctness, neatness, speed and rapidity of thought, 
thoroughness, development of the memory, reasoning and formation 
of correct judgments; instilling a spirit for universal truths. 

8. Take one step at a time ; show the similarity of operations 
wherever possible in related work; make your problems concrete 
and within the experience of the children ; give frequent reviews 
and drill ; use one method throughout your work, but employ new 
and novel devices wherever feasible. 



PEDAGOGIC SUBJECTS. 485 

9. The instilling of the rules of the four fundamental operations, 
so as to lay the foundation for the work in the more advanced 
grades. 

10. Drill on the hundredths of numbers ; give and explain the 
terms per cent and percentage; review the simple fractions; both 
common and decimal; reduce common fractions in terms of deci- 
mals; then reduce these to per cents. Apply to numerous simple 
examples to impress the idea. 

11. Phonics should be taught in all grades from the primary 
through the grammar grades to good advantage. In the primary 
grades the purpose is to be the rapid recognition of words, to aid 
in fluent reading. The work should be constant and steady drill on 
phonograms and the elemental sounds of the letters. This should 
form a most important part of the work in the first year. 

12. The life of the author should be known; the historical and 
geographical bases of the selection ; the plot, its division into the 
incidents, etc. ; the characters, their relative importance, the unrav- 
elling of influence of the events upon the characters ; the meanings 
of the words, their derivations, etc. 

13. Carrying over the letter from the preceding words, as in 
" don't you know," " doncherno." The slurring over of the essen- 
tial vowels, as " edication " for " education." Constant practice in 
distinct articulation. 

14. Observation, dramatic expression, the muscular sense. 

15. (a) Children learn the name of a word as quickly as they 
learn the name of a letter; the visual appearance of the word is 
that of a unit, (b) It is the natural method, for even when children 
answer in one word, it conveys the meaning of an entire sentence; 
through the use of the blackboard the visual and auditory senses 
are appealed to. Children learn to speak in completed sentences, 

16. Position, surface, climate, products, occupations, peoples. The 
relation of cause and effect can be shown here even to a low grade. 
The products depend upon the climate, which in turn is dependent 
upon the position and surface. The people are found where there 
is a possibility of occupation, which is largely the result of the prod- 
ucts found. 

17. Fix the idea of a linea.r and a square mile in the minds of the 
children. Compare these with known distances and with known 
regions. Find the time it takes to cover known distances, and the 
amount of " tire " or fatigue in doing the work. Then apply to the 
United States. Find the time it would take the child to walk across 
the United States, north to south, and east to west ; let him figure 
out how long it would take him to walk around at his rate of walk- 
ing. 

18. Stories with the human element in them ; those that do not 
sermonize or moralize too openly ; stories of boys and girls ; those 
containing heroic deeds and adventures; biographical and historical 
narratives. 

19. (a) The saving of time and the correctness of the map ; the 
addition of a number of things that cannot be done when the child 



486 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

draws the map. (b) The map becomes more firmly fixed in his 
mind ; the child can see things when he puts them into the map that 
he cannot see when the teacher draws the map. 

20. The purpose of the reading lesson is not carried out, in that 
the pupil is more interested in the information that he gets when 
reading. It is seldom that a history text-book furnishes satisfac- 
tory material for reading lessons, unless edited for that purpose. 

21. The children can see the subject as a whole, and the rela- 
tive importance of each topic; the casual relations are grasped as a 
whole; it helps to secure facts in their minds. It is valuable where 
the text-books are not uniform and where the information in the 
book is not sufficient. 

22. One of the most valuable is where the reasoning powers of 
the child are exercised, and where he is taught to do the discover- 
ing of things himself. This is illustrated in the following : The 
child is told that cotton is raised only in those States south of the 
Mason and Dixon Hne and to give the reasons therefor; or, that 
the most important industry in the New England States is manu- 
facturing, and to tell why. 

23. Drawing, geography and current events. 

24. So that the children may be able to fix dates ; they are inter- 
ested more in the person and his doings than in the deeds them- 
selves; they are more interested in the human elements. 



CHAPTER XVI. 

THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 

By Joshua G. Fitch. 

I have undertaken to say a few words to you on the 
"Art of Questioning." It is a subject of great importance 
to all of you who desire to become good teachers ; for, in 
truth, the success and efficiency of our teaching depend 
more on the skill and judgment with which we put ques- 
tions than on any other single circumstance. 

Importance of questioning. It is very possible for a 
teacher in a Sunday-school to be fluent in speech, earnest 
in manner, happy in his choice of illustration, and to be 
a very inefficient teacher nevertheless. We are often apt 
to think it enough if we deliver a good lesson, and to 
forget that, after all, its value depends upon the degree 
in which it is really received and appropriated by the 
children. Now, in order to secure that what we teach 
sha^' really enter their minds, and be duly fixed and 
comprehended there, it is above all things necessary that 
we should be able to use effectively the important instru- 
ment of instruction to which our attention is now to be 
drawn. 

How the art is learned. I have called questioning an 
art. It is so, inasmuch as it is a practical matter, and 
to be learned mainly, not by talking about it, but by 
doing it. We can only become good questioners after 
muc'h patient practice ; and, as is the case with every other 
art, proficiency in this one can only be attained by work- 
ing at it, and education in it only by the teaching of 
experience. But if this were all I should not have ven- 
tured to make questioning the subject of an address to 
you ; for the only advice appropriate in such a case would 
be, " Go to your classes, work in them, and learn the art 
of questioning by questioning." 

487 



488 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

General principles involved. The truth is, however, 
that there is a science of teaching as well as an art ; every 
rule of practice which is worth anything is based on some 
principle ; and as it is the business of every good artist 
to investigate the reasons for the methods he adopts, 
and to know something of those general laws which it 
is his business to put to a practical application, so it will, 
perhaps, be worth our while to dwell for a little on the 
general principles which should be kept in view in 
questioning, and to ascertain not only hozv a wise teacher 
should put questions, but why one way is better or worse 
than another. 

Three kinds of questions. Questions as employed by 
teachers may be divided into three classes, according to 
the purposes which they may be intended to serve. 

First kind. There is, first, the preliminary or experi- 
mental question, by which an instructor feels his way, 
sounds the depths of his pupil's previous knowledge, and 
prepares him for the reception of what it is designed to 
teach. 

Second kind. Then, secondly, there is the question 
employed in actual instruction, by means of which the 
thoughts of the learner are exercised, and he is com- 
pelled, so to speak, to take a share in giving himself the 
lesson. 

Third kind. Thirdly, there is the question of examina'- 
tion, by which a teacher tests his own work, after he has 
given a lesson and ascertains whether it has been soundly 
and thoroug'hly learned. If we carefully attend to this 
distinction we shall understand the meaning of the saying 
of a very eminent teacher, wbo used to say of the inter- 
rogative method, that by it he first questioned the 
knowledge into the minds of the children, and then ques- 
tioned it out of them, again. 

Example of the first kind. Perhaps I can best illus- 
trate the nature of what I have called preliminary or ex- 
perimental questioning, by referring for a moment to the 
history of a very celebrated man — ^an Althenian philos- 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 489 

opher — who lived more than two thousand years ago, 
but whose name and influence survive even in this age. 

Socrates had the reputation of being a very great teach- 
er, yet he never lectured or preached. He had not even 
a code of doctrine or of opinion to promulgate. But he 
lived in the midst of a keen, cultivated, yet somewhat 
opinionated people, and he made it his business to ques- 
tion them as to the grounds of their opinions ; and to 
put searching and rigid inquiries to them on points which 
they thought they thoroughly understood. He believed 
that the great impediment to true knowledge was the 
possession of fancied or unreal knowledge, and that the 
first business of a philosopher was, not to teach, but to 
prepare the mind of the pupil for the reception of truth, 
by proving to him his own ignorance. This kind of 
mental purification he considered a good preparation for 
teaching; hence he often challenged a sophist, or a 
flippant and self-confident learner, with a question as to 
the meaning of some familiar word ; he would receive 
the answer, then repeat it, and put some other question 
intended to bring out the different senses in which the 
word might be applied. It not unfrequently appeared 
that the definition was either too wide and included too 
m.uch, or too narrow and comprehended too little. The 
respondent would then ask leave to retract his former 
definition and to amend it; and when this was done the 
questioner would quietly proceed to cross-examine his 
pupil on the subject, applying the amended definition to 
special cases, until answers were given inconsistent with 
each other, and with the previous reply. Now, as Soc- 
rates never lost sight of the main point, and had a re- 
markable power of chaining his hearers to the question 
in hand, and forbidding all discursiveness, the end of the 
exercise often was, that the pupil after vain efforts to 
extricate himself, admitted that he could give no satis- 
factory answer to the question which at first seemed so 
easy. 

Questioning by Socrates. I will give you a translation 
from one of Plato's dialogues, in which this peculiar 
method is illustrated. There was one of the disciples of 



490 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

Socrates, named Meno, who had been thus probed and 
interrogated until he felt a somewhat uncomfortable con- 
viction that he was not so wise as he had thought, and 
w'ho complained to the philosopher of what he called 
the merely negative character of his instruction. 

"Why, Socrates," said he, "you remind me of that 
broad sea-fish called the torpedo, which produces a 
numbness in the person who approaches and touches it. 
For, in trutih, I seem benumbed both in mind, and mouth, 
and know not what to reply to you, and yet I have often 
spoken on this subject with great fluency and success." 

In reply Socrates says little, but calls to him Meno's 
attendant, a young slave boy, and begins to question him. 

" My boy, do you know what figure this is? " (drawing 
a square upon the ground with a stick). 

" O yes. It is a square." 

"What do you notice about these lines?" (tracing 
them). 

" That all four are equal." 

" Could tihere be another space like this, only larger 
or less? " 

" Certainly." 

" Suppose this line (pointing to one of the sides) is two 
feet long, how many feet will there be in the whole? " 

" Twice two." 

" How many is that? " 

"Four." 

" Will it be possible to have another space twice this 
size?" 

" Yes." 

"How many square feet will it contain?" 

" Eight." 

" Then how long will the sides of such a space be? " 

" It is plain, Socrates, that it will be twice the length," 

" You see, Meno, that I teach this boy nothing, I only 
question him. And he thinks he knows the right answer 
to my question; but does he know?" 

" Certainly not," replied Meno. 

" Let us return to him again." 

" My boy, you say that from a line of four feet long 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 491 

there will be produced a space of eight square feet ; is ft 
so?" 

" Yes, Socrates, I think so." 

" Let us try, then." (He prolongs the line to double 
the length.) 

" Is this the line you mean? " 

" Certainly." (He completes the square.) 

" How large is become the whole space? " 

" Why it is four times as large." 

"How many feet does it contain?" 

" Sixteen." 

" How many oug'ht double the square to contain? " 

" Eight." 

After a few more questions the lad suggests that the 
line should be three feet long since four feet are too 
much. 

" If, then, it be tlhree feet, we will add the half of the 
first line to it, shall we? " 

" Yes." (He draws the whole square on a line of three 
feet.) 

" Now, if the first square we drew contained twice 
two feet, and the second four times four feet, how many 
does the last contain?" 

" Three times three, Socrates." 

"And how many ought it to contain ? " 

" Only eight, or one less than nine." 

" Well, now, since this is not the line on which to draw 
the square we wanted, tell me how long it should be." 

" Indeed, sir, I don't know." 

"Now observe, Meno, what has happened to this boy; 
you see he did not know at first, neither does he yet 
know. But he then answered boldly, because he fancied 
he knew; now he is quite at a loss, and though he is 
still as ignorant as before, he does not think he knows." 

Meno replies, " What you say is quite true, Socrates." 

" Is he not, then, in a better state now in respect to 
the matter of which he was ignorant?" 

" Most assuredly he is." 

" In causing *him to be thus at a loss, and benumbing 
him like a torpedo, have we done him any harm? " 



492 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

" None, certainly." 

" We have at least made some progress toward finding 
out his true position. For now, knowing nothing, he is 
more likely to inquire and search for himself." 

Points in this example. Now I think those of us who 
are Sunday-school teachers can draw a practical hint or 
two from this anecdote. If we want to prepare the mind 
to receive instruction, it is worth wihile (1) to find out 
what is known already, and what foundation or sub- 
stratum of knowledge there is on which to build ; (2) to 
clear away misapprehensions and obstructions from the 
mind on which we wish to operate ; (3) to excite curiosity 
and interest on the part of the learners as to the subject 
which it is intended to teach. For " curiosity," as Arch- 
bishop Whately says, " is the parent of attention ; and a 
teacher has no more right to expect success in teaching 
those who have no curiosity to learn, than a husband- 
man has who sows a field witlhout plowing it." 

Kindling curiosity by questions. It is chiefly by ques- 
tions judiciously put to a child before you give him a 
lesson, that you will be able to kindle this curiosity, to 
make him feel the need of your instruction, and bring his 
intellect into a wakeful and teachable condition. What- 
ever 3'^ou may have to give in the way of new knowledge 
will tihen have a far better chance of being understood. 
For you may take it as a rule in teadhing, that the mind 
always refuses to receive — certainly to retain — any iso- 
lated knowledge. We remember only those facts and 
principles which link themselves with what we knew 
before, or with what we hope to know or are likely to 
want hereafter. Try, therefore, to establisih, in every 
case, a logical connection between what you teach and 
What your pupils knew before. Make your new informa- 
tion a sort of development of the old, the expansion of 
some germ of thought or inquiry which lay hid in the 
child's mind before. Seek to bring to light what your 
pupil already possesses, and you will then always see 
your way more clearly to a proper adaptation of your 
teaching to his needs. 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 493 

Examples of using the other two kinds. I said at the 
outset that there were two other purposes whiclh might 
be served by questioning, besides this primary one which 
I have just described. It may serve the purpose of actual 
instruction in the course of giving a lesson, and it may 
also be the means of examining and testing the pupils 
after the lesson is finished. Some teachers seem to think 
that this last is the only use of questioning; but, in truth, 
it is as a means of deepening and fixing truth upon the 
mind that it possesses the highest value. Hence, every 
fact you teach, before you proceed to another, oug^ht gen- 
erally to be made the subject of interrogation. 

Applying them to Bible instruiction. I will suppose 
that most of the instruction which you are in the habit 
of giving in a Sunday-school is connected with Scripture 
reading lessons. The usual plan is to let a certain portion 
of the word of God be read, verse by verse, in turns 
by the children of the class, then to cause the books to 
be closed, and then to proceed to question on the lesson. 
Now, in my own classes in a Sunday-school, I have gen- 
erally found that the mere mechanical difficulty of read- 
ing, and the fact that so much of the phraseology of the 
Bible is unfamiliar and antiquated, were sufficient to pre- 
vent the lesson from being understood by all the chil- 
dren. So, if I reserved my questions until the end, it has 
often happened that many important truths of the lesson 
proved to have been overlooked by the children, and the 
result of the questioning has been most unsatisfactory. 
To remedy this, the best plan seems to be, to put brief, 
pointed questions during the reading, to take care that 
no difficult or peculiar words pass unexplained, and 
constantly to arrest the attention of the class, when it 
flags, by inquiries addressed to individual members of it. 
You will also find it a good plan, especially with the 
younger children, after the whole lesson has been read 
twice or thrice by the class, to read a short passage your- 
self, generally two or three verses, in a slow, distinct 
manner, with as much expression as possible, and then 
question thoroughly upon the passage, exhausting its 
meaning before you go on to the next. When this has 



494 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

been done with each successive portion of the lesson the 
books may be closed, and the whole recapitulated by way 
of examination. You will find this plan answer a 
double purpose ; it will improve fhe reading of the class, 
by giving to it a model clearness and expression, and it 
will enable you to question systematically on every fact 
you teach as soon as you have taught it. By thus making 
sure of your ground as you proceed, you will become en- 
titled to expect answers to your recapitulatory or exami- 
nation questions; and this is a point of great importance, 
for nothing discourages and depresses a teacher more, 
or sooner destroys the interest of the children in a lesson, 
than the asking of questions which they can not answer 
Thus the advantage of questioning on each portion of 
a lesson, rigidly and carefully, as it is learned, is that 
you then have a right to demand full answers to all your 
testing questions when the lesson is concluded. You 
will, of course, go over the ground the second time much 
more rapidly than at first ; but it is always desirable to 
cover the whole area of your subject in recapitulation, 
and to put questions at the end to every child in your 
class. 

Methods of using these two kinds. I have only one 
other observation to make as to the distinction to be kept 
in view between the questioning of instruction and the 
questioning of examination. In the former it is often 
wise to use the simultaneous method, and to address 
your questions to the whole class. This kind of col- 
lective exercise gives vigor and life to a lesson, and the 
sympathy which is always generated by numbers helps to 
strengthen and fix the impression you wish to convey. 
But you must never be satisfied with simultaneous an- 
swers ; they should invariably be followed up by individ- 
ual questioning, or they will prove very misleading. It 
may seem a paradoxical assertion, but it is nevertheless 
true, that a group of children may appear intelligent, 
while the separate members of the group are careless, ig- 
norant, or only half interested. Without intending to 
deceive, children soon learn to catch the key-note of a 
word or a sentence from their fellows, and to practice 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 495 

many little artifices by wihidh knowledge and attention 
are simulated, and by which a very slight degree of in- 
terest may be mistaken by their teacher for sound and 
thoug'htful work. So, while you will often call for col- 
lective answers in order to retain the vivacity and spirit 
of your lesson, you should always suspect such answers ; 
and in every case let them be succeeded by individual 
appeals to separate children, especially to those who ap- 
pear the least attentive. Of course the recapitulatory 
or examination questions should be entirely individual ; 
in a small class the questions may well be put to each 
child in turn, but in a large one they should be given 
promiscuously ; so that every learner may feel sure that 
he will be personally challenged, and that the knowledge 
of the rest will form no cloak for his own ignorance. 

But, leaving for the present all distinctions as to the 
purposes which questions may at different times be made 
to serve, let us fix our attention on some points which 
should be kept in view, as to the language, style, and 
character of all questions whatever. 

The language of questions. First, then, cultivate great 
simplicity of language. Use as few words as possible, 
and let them be such as are adapted to the age and ca- 
pacity of the class you are teaching. Remember that 
questions are not meant to display your own learning or 
acquirements, but to bring out those of the children. It 
is a great point in questioning to say as little as possible ; 
and so to say that little as to cause the children to say as 
much as possible. Conduct your lessons in such a way 
that if a visitor or superintendent be standing by, his 
attention will be directed, not to you, but to your pupils 
and his admiration excited, not by your skill and keen- 
ness, but by the amount of mental activity displayed on 
their part. 

Tliere is an old Latin maxim which, translated, means, 
" It is the business of art to conceal art." I suppose this 
means that in the case of all the highest and noblest arts 
their results are spoiled by any needless display of 
mechanism, or any obtrusive manifestation of the artist's 
personal gifts. At any rate you may take it for granted. 



496 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

in relation to your art, that the best questioning is that 
which attracts least attention to the questioner, and 
makes the learners seem to be the most important parties 
concerned. You will do well, therefore, to practice your- 
selves in using great plainness of speech, and in con- 
structing questions in the fewest possible words. 

Not to give information in the questions. Connected 
with this is another hint of importance: Do not tell 
much in your questions. Never, if you can help it, com- 
m.unicate a fact in your question. Contrive to educe 
every fact from the class. It is better to pause for a 
moment, and to put one or two subordinate questions, 
with a view to bring out the truth you are seeking, than 
to tell anything which the children could tell you. A 
good teacher never conveys information in the form of 
a question. If he tells his class something, it is not 
long before he makes his class tell him the same thing 
again ; but his question never assumes the same form, or 
employs the same phraseology as his previous statement ; 
for, if it does, the form of the question really suggests 
the answer, and the exercise fails to challenge the judg- 
ment and memory of the children as it ought to do. I 
may, for instance, want to bring out the fact that Jeru- 
salem is the chief city in the Holy Land. Now, suppose 
I do it thus : " What is the chief city in the Holy Land? " 
" Jerusalem." " In what country is Jerusalem the chief 
city?" "The Holy Land." Here each question carries 
with it the answer to the other, and the consequence is 
that they test little or nothing, and serve scarcely any 
useful purpose. 

An example with questions. For this reason it is al- 
ways important, in questioning on a passage of Scripture, 
to avoid using the words of Scripture ; otherwise we may 
greatly deceive ourselves as to the real extent of knowl- 
edge possessed by the class. I will suppose, for example, 
that you are giving a lesson on the meaning of the Chris- 
tian injunction, " Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thy- 
self," and that the class has first been questioned as to 
the meaning of it, and proved unable to give a full and 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 497 

satisfactory explanation of the scope and meaning of 
these memorable words. The parable of the good Sa- 
maritan has been chosen as an illustrative reading les- 
son. It has been read twice or thrice by the class in 
turn, and then the teacher takes the first verse and reads 
it slowly to the class : — 

"A certain man went dozvn from Jerusalem to Jericho, 
and fell among thieves, which stripped him of his raiment, 
and wounded him, and departed, leaving him half dead." 
Luke X., 30. 

Sonne teachers would proceed to question thus : 
"Whom is this parable about?" "A certain man." 
" Where did he go from ? " " Jerusalem." " Where to ? " 
"Jericho." "What sort of people did he fall among?" 
"Thieves." "What did they do with his raiment?" 
" Stripped him of it." " What did they do with the 
man himself?" "Wounded him." "In what state did 
they leave him? " " Half dead." 

Faults in these questions. Observe here that the teach- 
er has covered the whole area of the narrative, and pro- 
posed a question on every fact ; so far he has done well. 
But it is to be noticed that every question was proposed 
as nearly as possible in the words of the book, and re- 
quired for its answer one (generally hut one) of these 
words. Now it is very easy for a boy or girl, while the 
echoes of the Bible narrative just read still linger in the 
ear, to answer every such question by rote merely, with 
scarcely any effort of memory, and no effort of thought 
whatever. It is very possible to fill up the one remaining 
word of such elliptical sentences as those which have 
just been used as questions, without having any percep- 
tion at all of the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 

So, if you desire to secure a thorough understanding of 
the sacred narrative, it will be necessary to propose 
questions constructed on a different model, avoiding the 
use of the exact phraseology of Scripture, and requiring 
for answers other words than those contained in the nar- 
rative. 

Better questions. Let us go over the same subject 
again, first introducing it by one or two preliminary ques- 



498 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

tions; for example: "Who used these words?" ''To 
whom were they spoken ? " " Why were they uttered ? " 
" Repeat the question which the lawyer asked." " What 
is the parable about?" (Various answers.) One says, 
"A man who went on a journey." " What do you call a 
man who goes on a journey? " "A traveler." " In what 
country was the man traveling?" " Judea." "Let us 
trace his route on the map." 

"In what direction was he traveling?" "Eastward." 
"Through what kind of country?" (Here the teacher's 
own information should supply a fact or two about its 
physical features.) " What should you suppose from the 
lesson was the state of the country at that time?" 
" Thinly peopled." " Road unfrequented," etc. " How 
do you know this?" "Because he fell among thieves." 
" Give another expression for ' fell among.' " " Happened 
to meet with." "Another word for ' thieves.' " " Rob- 
bers." "How did the robbers treat this traveler?" 
" They stripped him of his raiment." " What does the 
word raiment mean? " " Clothes." " Besides robbing him 
of his clothes, what else did they do?" " W'ounded 
him." " Explain that word." " Injured him." " Hurt 
him very much," etc. "' How do you know from the text 
that he was much hurt?" "They left him half dead." 
" They almost killed him." 

The twofold aim in these questions. Now observe here 
that the aim has been twofold. First, not to suggest the 
answer by the form of the question. Hence another sort 
of language has been adopted, and the children have 
therefore been made to interpret the biblical language 
into that of ordinary life. Secondly, not to be satisfied 
with single words as answers, especially with the particu- 
lar word which is contained in the narrative itself, but 
always to translate it into one more familiar. Children 
can often give the word which sufifices to answer their 
teacher's inquiry, and are yet ignorant of the whole state- 
ment of which that word forms a part. After going over 
verses like these in detail, I should recommend varying 
the form of the question, thus : 

" Now what have we learned in this verse?" 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 499 

" That there was a traveler going from the chief city 
of Judea to another town near the Jordan, on the north- 
east." 

" Well, and what happened to him? " 

" He was robbed and half killed, and left very weak 
and helpless." 

Get entire sentences for answers. A teacher ought 
not, in fact, to be satisfied until he can get entire sen- 
tences for answers. These sentences will generally be 
paraphrases of the words used in the lesson, and the 
materials for making the paraphrases will have been de- 
veloped in the course of the lesson by demanding, in 
succession, meanings and equivalents for all the principal 
words. Remember that the mere ability to fill up a 
parenthetical or elliptical sentence proves nothing beyond 
the possession of a little tact and verbal memory. It is 
worth while to turn round sharply on some inattentive 
member of the class, or upon some one who has just 
given a mechanical answer, with the question, " What 
have we just said?" "Tell me what we have just 
learned about such a person." Observe that the answer 
required to such a question must necessarily be a whole 
sentence ; it will be impossible to answer it without a real 
efllort of thought and of judgment in the selection of the 
learner's words, and without an actual acquaintance with 
the fact that has been taught. 

Do not put vague questions. It is of great importance, 
also, that questions should he deHnite and unmistakable, 
and, for the most part, that they admit of but one answer. 
An unskillful teacher puts vague, wide questions, such as, 
" What did he do ? " " What did Abraham say ? " " How 
did Joseph feel at such a time?" "What lesson ought 
we to learn from this ? " questions to which no doubt he 
sees the right answer, because it is already in his mind; 
but which, perhaps, admit of several equally good an- 
swers, according to the dififerent points of view from 
which different minds would look at them. He does not 
think of this ; he fancies that what is so clear to him ought 
to be equally clear to others; he forgets that the minds 



500 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

of the children may be moving on other rails, so to 
speak, even though directed to the same object. So, 
when an answer comes which is not the one he expected, 
even though it is a perfectly legitimate one, he rejects 
it; while, if any child is fortunate enough to give the 
precise answer which was in the teacher's mind, he is 
commended and rewarded, even thoug*h he has exerted 
no more thought on the subject. 

Effects of vague questions. Vague and indefinite ques- 
tions, I have always observed, produce three different re- 
sults, according to the class of children to whom they 
are addressed. The really thoughtful and sensible boy 
is simply bewildered by them. He is very anxious to be 
rig'ht, but he is not clear as to what answer his teacher 
expects ; so he is silent, looks puzzled, and is, perhaps, 
mistaken for a dunce. The bold and confident boy who 
does not think, when he hears a vague question, answers 
at random ; he is not quite sure whether he is right or 
wrong, but he tries the experiment, and is thus strength- 
ened in a habit of inaccuracy, and encouraged in the mis- 
chievous practice of guessing. There is a third class of 
children whom I have noticed, not very keen, but sly 
and knowing nevertheless, who watch the teacher's pe- 
culiarities, know his methods, and soon acquire the knack 
of observing the structure of his sentences, so as to find 
out which answer he expects. They do not understand 
the subject so well, perhaps, as many others, but they 
understand the teacher better, and can more quickly 
pronounce the characteristic word, or the particular an- 
swer he expects. Now, I do not hesitate to say, that as 
far as real education and development of thought are con- 
cerned, each of these three classes of children is injured 
by the habit of vague, wide, and ambiguous questioning 
Which is so common among teachers. 

Do not ask questions that cannot be answered. For 

similar reasons it is generally necessary to abstain from 
giving questions to which we have no reasonable right to 
expect an answer. Technical terms, and information 
children are not likely to possess, ought not to be de- 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 501 

manded. Nor should questions be repeated to those who 
can not answer. A still more objectionable practice is 
that of suggesting the first word or two of a sentence, 
or pronouncing t^e first syllable of a word which the 
children do not recollect. All these errors generate a 
habit of guessing among the scholars, and we should ever 
bear in mind that there is no one habit more fatal to 
accurate thinking, or more likely to encourage shallow- 
ness and self-deception, than this. It should be dis- 
countenanced in every possible way; and the most ef- 
fective way is to study well the form of our questions, 
to consider well whether they are quite intelligible and 
unequivocal to those to whom they are addressed, and 
to limit them to those points on which we have a right 
to expect clear and definite answers. 

Do not give questions that only require " Yes " or 
" No " for an answer. There is a class of questions 
which hardly deserve the name, and which are, in fact, 
fictitious or apparent, but not true questions. I mean 
those whic'h simply require the answer " Yes " or " No." 
Nineteen such questions out of twenty carry their own 
answers in them ; for it is almost impossible to propose 
one without revealing, by the tone and inflexion of the 
voice, the kind of answer you expect. For example : " Is 
it right to honor our parents?" "Did Abraham show 
much faith when he offered up his son ? " " Do you 
think the author of the Psalms was a good man?" 
" Were the Pharisees really lovers of truth? " Questions 
like these elicit no thought whatever ; there are but two 
possible answers to each of them, and of these I am sure 
to show, by my manner of putting the question, which 
one I expect. Such questions should, therefore, as a 
general rule, be avoided, as they seldom serve any useful 
purpose, either in teaching or examining. For every 
question, it must be remembered, ought to require an 
effort to answer it; it may be an effort of memory, or 
an effort of imagination, or an effort of judgment, or an 
effort of perception ; it may be a considerable effort or 
it may be a slight one, but it must be an effort; and a 
question whic'h challenges no mental exertion whatever, 



502 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

and does not make the learner think, is worth nothing. 
Hence, however such simple affirmative and negative 
replies may look like work, they may co-exist with 
utter stagnation of mind on the part of the scholars, and 
with complete ignorance of what we are attempting to 
teach. 

Questions must follow each other in a proper order. 
So much for the language of questioning. But it is 
worth while to give a passing notice to the order and 
arrangement which should always characterize a series 
of questions. They should, in fact, always follow one 
another in systematic order; eac'h should seem to grow 
out of the answer which preceded it, and should have a 
clear logical connection with it. Much of the force and 
value of the interrogative method is lost in a loose, un- 
connected, random set of inquiries, however well they 
may be worded, or however skillfully each separate ques- 
tion may be designed to elicit the thought and knowledge 
of the learners. If the entire impression left on the mind 
of the learner is to be an effective one, all that he has 
learned on a given subject ought to be coherent and con- 
nected. We can not secure this without acquiring a 
habit of continuous and orderly questioning, so that each 
effort of thought made by the scholar shall be duly con- 
nected with the former, and preparatory to the next. 
There will thus be a unity and entireness in the teaching, 
and what is taught will then have a reasonable chance of 
a permanent place in the memory. For we must ever 
remember that whatever is learned confusedly is re- 
membered confusedly, and that all effective teaching 
must be characterized by system and continuity. Hence, 
in proposing questions, it is very necessary to keep in 
view the importance of linking them together, of making 
each new answer the solution of some difficulty, which 
the former answer suggested but did not explain, and of 
arranging all questions in the exact order in which the 
subject would naturally develop itself in the mind of a 
logical and systematic thinker. 

Examples of this. A very good example of this pecul- 
iar merit in questioning may be found in the Protestant 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 503 

Episcopal Church Catechism, especially in its latter sec- 
tion. I do not, of course, enter here on any controversy 
respecting the subject-matter of this catechism; but the 
arrangement of the questions will certainly repay an 
attentive examination. Look at that portion which re- 
lates to the sacraments. It will be found that each an- 
swer serves to suggest the next question, and that the 
whole body of answers, in the order in which they stand, 
furnish a systematic code of doctrine on the subject to 
which the catechism refers, with every fact in precisely 
its right place. The excellence of the method adopted 
here will be best understood by contrasting it with many 
popular modern works in a catechetical form. 

Lawyers study the art of questioning. We have often 
been struck, I dare say, in reading the newspapers, to 
find what plain and sensible evidence the witnesses all 
appear to give at judicial trials. We recognize the name 
of some particular person, and we know, perhaps, that 
he is an uneducated man, apt to talk in an incoherent 
and desultory way on most subjects, utterly incapable 
of telling a simple story without wandering and blunder- 
ing, and very nervous withal ; yet if he happens to have 
been a witness at a trial, and we read the published re- 
port of his testimony, we are surprised to find what a 
connected, straightforward story it is ; there is no ir- 
relevant or needless matter introduced, and yet not one 
significant fact is om.itted. We wonder how such a man 
could have stood up in a crowded court and narrated facts 
with all this propriety and good taste. But the truth is, 
that the witness is not entitled to your praise. He never 
recited the narrative in the way implied by the newspaper 
report. But he stood opposite to a man who had studied 
the art of questioning, and he replied in succession to a 
series of interrogations which the barrister proposed to 
him. The reporter for the press has done no more than 
copy down, in the exact order in which they were given, 
all the replies to these questions ; and if the sum of these 
replies reads to us like a consistent narrative, it is be- 
cause the lawyer knew how to marshal his facts before- 
hafid, had the skill to determine what was necessary, 



504 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

and what was not necessary, to the case in hand, and to 
propose his questions so as to draw out, even from a con- 
fused and bewildered mind, a coherent statement of facts. 
We may take a hint, I think, from the practice of the bar 
in this respect; and, especially in questioning by way 
of examination, we may remember that the answers of 
the children, if they could be taken down at the moment, 
ought to form a complete, orderly, and clear summary 
of the entire contents of the lesson. 

Digressions from a proper order allowable only for 
good reasons. Of course I do not mean to insist too 
rigidly on an adherence to this rule. Misconceptions will 
reveal themselves in the course of the lesson w'hich will 
require to be corrected ; hard words will occur, which need 
explanation ; new trains of thought and inquiry will seem 
to start out of the lesson, and to demand occasional di- 
gression ; it will, in fact, often become necessary to 
deviate a little to the right hand or to the left from the 
main path, for the sake of illustration, and for other good 
reasons. No good teacher allows himself to be so en- 
slaved by a mechanical routine as to neglect these things ; 
we must not attempt, even for the sake of logical con- 
sistency, to adhere too rigidly to a formal series of ques- 
tions, nor refuse to notice any new fact or inquiry which 
seems to spring naturally out of the subject. Still, the 
main purpose of the whole lesson should be kept steadily 
in view ; all needless digression should be carefully avoid- 
ed, and any incidental difficulties which are unexpectedly 
disclosed in the lesson should rather be remembered and 
reserved for future investigation, than permitted to be- 
guile a teacher into a neglect of those truths which the 
lesson is primarily designed to teach. 

The questioner should be animated. A good deal of 
the success of a teacher depends upon the manner in 
which questions are proposed. Perhaps the most impor- 
tant requisite under this head is animation. Slow, dull, 
heavy questioning wearies children, and destroys their 
interest in a lesson. It is by a rapid succession of ques- 
tions, by a pleasing and spirited manner, by dexterously 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 505 

challenging all who seem inattentive, and, above all, by 
an earnest feeling of interest in the subject, and of de- 
light in seeing the minds of his scholars at work, that the 
teacher will best kindle their mental activity, and give 
life and force to his subject. Hence it is necessary to 
avoid long pauses, and all monotony of voice, or slug- 
gishness of manner; to vary the phraseology of your 
questions, and to seek in every way to kindle interest and 
enthusiasm about the lesson. But in doing this let us 
remember that we can not give more than we possess ; 
we can not raise the minds of others above the level of 
our own ; and therefore it is important that our manner 
should show a warm interest in the subject, and that our 
own love for sacred truth should be so strong as to con- 
vey itself, by the mere force of sympathy, into the hearts 
of those whom we undertake to instruct. 

Examples of this. I have seen teachers whose cheeks 
glowed and whose manner became suffused with earnest- 
ness as they spoke the words of healing and of life. I 
have seen their eyes glisten with tearful joy as one little 
one after another had his intellect awakened to receive 
the truth, and his heart touched by sacred impressions. 
And I have known well that these were teachers, who, 
whatever their intellectual gifts might be, were the 
most likely persons to obtain an entrance into the hearts 
of children, to exercise a right influence over them, and 
to find, after many days, that the seed they had thus 
sown in hope and fear had been watered by the divine 
favor and benediction, and brought forth rich and 
glorious fruit. Of course we must not counterfeit an 
emotion which we do not feel, nor use an earnest manner 
as a mere trick of art, or as a machine for making our 
teaching effective ; but a Sunday-school teacher will 
never be worth much unless his own heart kindles at the 
thought of the permanence and preciousness of the truths 
he has to teach, nor unless he feels a positive pleasure 
in witnessing every new proof of the unfolding of mind 
on the part of his class. Such feelings are sure to give 
vigor to his teaching, a vivid and picturesque character 
to his illustrations, earnestness to his manner, animation 



506 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

to his voice, and a quick, active, and telling character to 
his method of questioning. 

Teachers should not use a book of questions. For 

these reasons I think it very undesirable for a teacher to 
use a book of questions, or to have teaching notes in his 
hand while he gives the lesson. The value of such as- 
sistance is great if you avail yourselves of it beforehand: 
if it helps to systematize your own thoughts and prepare 
you for the right development of the lesson. But in the 
presence of the children the use of the question book has 
a chilling and depressing effect; it destroys their con- 
fidence in their teacher, it prevents him from feeling at 
his ease, and it gives a sluggish and mechanical look to 
the whole proceeding. Whether our questions be good 
or bad, it is quite certain that they should be our ozvn, 
not read out of a book, or from notes, but growing spon- 
taneously out of our own minds, and adapted not only 
to the peculiar character and requirements of the class, 
but also to the time and circumstances, to the special 
turn which the lesson has chanced to take, and to the 
particular inferences which the teacher feels it most im- 
portant to draw from it. 

Reasons for not using a book. For it must ever be one 
of the first requisites in all good teaching, that the minds 
of the teacher and the taught should come into actual 
contact. The words of some one else, read or quoted to 
me, never can have half the force of the actual utterance 
of a living present being, whose own thought seeks en- 
trance into my mind, and is intended specially to meet 
my needs. We all know the difference between readinj 
a sermon to children and delivering orally a far inferior 
address, but one attended with gestures and looks and 
tones which prove its genuineness and give it directness 
of application. The same difference is noticeable in ques- 
tioning, and therefore it is far better that a teacher should 
make a few blunders and inaccuracies while he is educat- 
ing himself into the habit of independent questioning, 
than that he should be rigidly exact and careful by the 
help of notes or books. Swimming with corks is not, 
strictly speaking, swimming at all ; and so the reading of 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 507 

certain inquiries from a catechism or a book is not, in 
fact, questioning at all, but an indirect and very inefficient 
substitute for it. 

Each pupil should feel the questioning. Perhaps it 
may be worth while to say a word or two about the an- 
swers which questions may receive. We ought not to 
be satisfied with obtaining a right answer from one child, 
nor even from the whole class collectively. In most cases 
it is necessary to repeat a question which has been an- 
swered, to some other child who may have appeared in- 
attentive. And if a question is first given to one who 
fails to answer it, and then to another boy or girl who 
gives the right answer, it is generally a good plan to go 
back to the first child and put the same question again, 
in order to test his attention to what is going on in the 
class. We can only secure a hold upon the more indo- 
lent scholars by making each one feel that he can not pos- 
sibly escape, but that his own personal knowledge of the 
subject is sure to be challenged at the close of the lesson. 
Hence all questions should be well distributed through- 
out the class, and no one child should be allowed to avoid 
the frequent appeals of his teacher. 

As to wrong answers. Wrong answers will often be 
given, yet these should never make us angry, but should 
be reserved for a while, and shown to be incorrect by 
subsequent examination. Of course, if random or foolish 
answers are offered, it is a proof that the discipline of 
the class is bad and the offense must be regarded as a 
breach of rule, and treated accordingly. But a mistake 
arising from ignorance ought never to be treated as a 
crime. A teacher may meet it by saying, " Will some 
one tell me why that answer is a wrong one? " Or, if the 
answer is very wide of the mark, by saying, " We will 
go into that presently " ; or, " We will have a lesson on 
that subject, and you will then see why the answer was 
a bad one." And in the very numerous cases in which 
an answer is partly wrong and partly right, or in which 
an answer, though right in substance, is wrong in the 
mere language or form of expression, it is always desir- 
able to alter the language of your question, to propose 



508 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

it again to an elder child, to add a subordinate quesion 
or two to disentangle the precise truth, and then at last 
the question should be repeated in its original form, and 
an amended answer be required. But all this implies 
patience and judgment; a condescension to the weakness 
and obscurity of infant minds ; a considerate, forbearing 
tone; and a constant desire to sympathize in their dif- 
ficulties, rather by offering a friendly help in escaping 
from them than by solving them at once. 

When answers are not given the teacher must look into 
himself. It may occasionally happen to a teacher to be 
much vexed and puzzled because he can obtain no an- 
swers to his questions at all, or because all the answering 
comes from one or two prominent children. In such 
cases it is needless to find fault, or to complain and 
S'cold for the inattention. It is far better to look into 
oiarselves and see if we can not find the reason there for 
our want of success. Perhaps we have allowed the les- 
son to proceed in disorder, and nothing is known, sim- 
ply because nothing has been taught; and in this case our 
own method is in fault. Or, perhaps, we have been 
asking questions above the comprehension of the chil- 
dren, which they are positively unable to answer, and 
which we have no right to ask. Or, it may be that we 
have put our questions in an indistinct or unintelligible 
way. Let us always, in case of failure, suspect ourselves, 
take the ignorance of the children, as a censure upon 
our own methods, and endeavor, with God's blessing, 
to turn the experience of such a lesson to good account, 
by rectifying our plans, simplifying our language, or 
studying more accurately the nature of the beings with 
whom we have to deal. 

Let the pupils question each other. Occasionally it 
will be found advantageous to vary the exercise by the 
employment of mutual questions ; by setting the children, 
especially of an upper class, to question one another in 
turn on the subject of the lesson. They will be very 
shy, and unwilling to do this at first; but after a little 
practice they will learn to like it, and in the act of 
framing questions their own intelligence will be greatly 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 509 

strengthened. Lord Bacon said, "A wise question is the 
half of knowledge " ; and it is quite true that it takes 
some knowledge of a subject to enable us to put a good 
question upon it; such mutual interrogation as I have 
described will therefore be, in a double sense, a test of 
the knowledge and thoughtfulness of a class. 

And the teacher also. Every encouragement should 
always be offered to the children to put questions to their 
teacher, and to give free expression to whatever difficul- 
ties and doubts may be in their minds. A good teacher 
will never think such questions irksome or out of place, 
but will welcome them, and all the trouble they may 
bring with them, as so many proofs that the minds of his 
pupils are at work, and so many hopeful guarantees of 
future success. 

Questioning ought to set the pupils thinking. For, 
indeed, the whole sum of what may be said about ques- 
tioning is comprised in this: I ought to set the learn- 
ers thinking, to promote activity and energy on their 
parts, and to arouse the whole mental faculty into action, 
instead of blindly cultivating the memory at the expense 
of the higher intellectual powers. That is the best ques- 
tioning which best stimulates action on the part of the 
learner ; which gives him a habit of thinking and inquir- 
ing for himself; which tends in a great measure to render 
him independent of his teacher; which makes him, in 
fact, rather a skillful finder than a patient receiver of 
truth. All our questioning should aim at this ; and the 
success of our teaching must ever be measured, not by 
the amount of information we have imparted, but by the 
degree in which we have strengthened the judgment and 
enlarged the capacity of our pupils, and imparted to them 
that searching and inquiring spirit which is a far surer 
basis for all future acquisitions than any amount of mere 
information whatever. 

SPECIAL REMARKS TO SUNDAY-SCHOOL TEACHERS. 

Dear Friends: I came here to speak on what seems 
to be the mere mechanism of the teacher's art; and yet 
I do not like to conclude without traveling a little beyond 



510 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

my province, and expressing to you my entire sympathy 
with the motive and the object vv^hich draw you together 
in this place. It is pleasant to know that I am surround- 
ed by persons who are accustomed, for the love they 
bear to their Lord and Master, to devote their Sunday's 
leisure to the work of nurturing and tending the lambs 
of his wandering flock, and who come here, from time 
to time, in order to know how they may do that work 
in the best manner. I wish that by any words of mine I 
knew how to encourage you in this wise and Christian 
course. I wish I could convey to you a stronger sense 
of the deep responsibility involved in the work you have 
undertaken. Few thoughts ought to weigh more heavily 
on the mind of the Sunday-school teacher than the con- 
sideration of the seriousness and difficulty of the work 
he has undertaken to do. In many cases it is true that 
all the influences which are brought to bear upon the 
minds and hearts of the children out of school are posi- 
tively hostile to your teaching. They come to you from 
disorderly, dirty, ill-managed, and ungodly homes, to 
spend a brief hour in your class.* You are their only 
religious instructors. It is while they are with you, and 
only then, that their minds come into contact with the 
realities of an unseen world. It is from you only that 
they learn the name of God and of his Son, our Saviour, 
and it is you that must shape their first, and therefore 
their most enduring, conceptions of sacred truth, of the 
beauty of holiness, the examples of saints and martyrs, 
the hatefulnes'S of sin, the purity and glory and blessed- 
ness of heaven. That brief hour spent in your class is 
the one bright and hopeful spot in the history of many a 
child who, from his birth, is called to wander in strange 
paths, and who comes to you in, perhaps, a desultory 
and uncertain way for a few weeks, returning every Sun- 
day into the midst of associations and pursuits, every 
one of which is positively antagonistic to religious im- 
pressions, and tends to neutralize all your teaching. 
This is a solemn thought, and one which, I doubt not, 



*In England many Sunday-schools are largely composed of the 
children of the poor. 



THE ART OF QUESTIONING. 511 

has been often present to your minds, but the practical 
conclusions from it are very simple. How necessary it is 
to turn every moment of that precious time to the best 
possible account! How important it is to avail our- 
selves of every method and of every suggestion, however 
humble, by means of which the time can be economized 
and our teaching be made more effective ! If the pro- 
fessional teacher, who devotes every day of the week to 
his work, who undertakes to give instruction in far 
meaner subjects than you teach, and who can count on 
far more aid and sympathy from the parents, needs to 
study the theory of his art, how much more necessary 
is it for you, with the sacred oracles of God in your 
hands, to apply every power and faculty you possess to 
the task of explaining those oracles in the best manner. 
It is a great mistake to suppose that religious instruction 
can be given more easily than secular. The truth is just 
the reverse. More teaching power, more judgment, and 
riper knowledge are required in order to teach the Holy 
Scriptures well than to teach anything else. You could 
not hope to teach grammar or mathematics by merely 
liking the subject and feeling an interest in it. You would 
find it necessary to study it systematically, to search 
other books which would throw any light on the text- 
book you used, and, more than all, to find out what were 
the best methods of presenting the subject to the mind 
of the learner, and the most effectual way of fixing it in 
his memory. And no one has a right to expect success 
as a teacher of God's Word on any easier condition. 
Story and parable, psalm and prophecy, precept and 
doctrine, all require to be well studied before we at- 
tempt to teach them. We dishonor the Bible, and its 
divine Author too, when we attempt to give an unstudied 
and unprepared lesson on its sacred verities. Whatever 
elucidation history and science, or the comments of wise 
men, can bring to bear on the sacred Word, ought to be 
thankfully welcomed. We can not afiford to dispense 
with any aid by which our own grasp of the Scriptures 
can be strengthened and our conception of the truth en- 
larged. And to the end that you may enter your class 



512 THE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION BOOK. 

rightly armed and equipped for the discharge of your 
Sunday duties, I know no means more wise and prac- 
tical than those which the promoters of this training 
class have adopted. I refer especially to the model les- 
sons, to the criticisms of their style and matter, and to 
the friendly discussions as to educational methods, for 
which the class was formed. I believe that, with God's 
blessing, such means are the most efficient which you 
can use for improving the character of our Sunday-school 
teaching. I believe th^ if, in addition to the patient 
private study of the Holy Scriptures, a teacher will 
resolutely make use of these advantages — if he com- 
bines a due and reverent sense of the importance of his 
office, with a modest estimate of his own personal quali- 
fications for it — if he carries with him the constant recol- 
lection that there is not a little child in his class, however 
dull, however poor, however uninteresting, who has 
not that within him which will survive even the brightest 
star in the firmament of heaven ; and if all the while he 
remembers who is the Master whom he is called to 
serve, and whose words they are which he undertakes 
to explain, he will have a right to expect success in his 
work. Day by day, as he studies the Bible, God will be 
lifting up for him the veil of difficulty which at first 
seemed to conceal its truths ; and Sunday by Sunday the 
Great Teacher will seem to be aiding and strengthening 
him, giving him increased happiness in his work, greater 
personal influence over the minds of the children, and 
greater skill in imparting a knowledge of that Word, 
" the entrance of which giveth light, and it giveth under- 
standing to the simple." 



ANALYSIS. 513 



ANALYSIS. 

Importance of questioning. 
How the art is learned. 

General Principles. 

Three kinds of questions. 

(1) Prehminary. 

(2) Stimulative. 

(3) Examinative form. 
Examples of the first from Socrates. 
Points in this example. 

(1) Find out what is known already. 

(2) Clear away misapprehensions. 

(3) Excite curiosity. 
Kindling curiosity by questions. 

Examples of the other two kinds of questions. 
Applying them to Bible instruction. 
Methods of using these two kinds. 

Specific Points. 

1. The language of questions must be simple. 

2. Not give information in the question. 

An example with" questions. 
Faults in these questions. 
Better questions. 
Aim of these questions twofold. 

3. Get entire sentences for answers. 

4. Do not put vague questions. 

Effects of these. 

5. Nor ask questions that cannot be answered. 

6. Nor ask such as only require " yes " or " no." 

7. Questions must follow in a proper order. 

An example. 

Lawyers study the art of questioning. 

8. Digress from the proper order only for good reasons. 

9. The questioner should be animated. 

Examples. 

10. Teacher not to use a book of questions. 

Reason of this. 

11. Each pupil must feel the questioning. 

What to do with wrong answers. 

What to do when no replies are elicited. 

12. Have the pupils question each other. 

And the teacher also. 

The Great Principle. 

Questioning aims to set the pupil to thinking. 
Special remarks to Sunday-school teachers. 



In Preparation. 

To be published soon. 

By the same author. 

THE 

PEDAGOGIC QUESTION 
BOOK 

This work will give more than twenty-five 
hundred questi'ons with answers and necessary 
references in the following pedagogic subjects: 

History and Principles of Education, Psychol- 
ogy, Class and School Management, General 
Methods, Special Methods in Arithmetic, En- 
glish (Grammar, Reading, Composition, Spell- 
ing and Dictation), History and Civics, and 
Geography. 

Questions and Answers 

in English and American Literature 

Several thousand questions with answers in lit- 
erature: Arranged according to periods and 
supplemented by lists of poets and prose writers, 
their important works, most famous charac- 
ters, dates and synopses of many famous books. 

These questions have been selected from among several 
thousand examination papers prepared by the civil ser- 
vice and examining boards throughout the United States 

Prepare for the next examination by studying ques- 
tions actually asked at previous examinations. 
Prepare for a higher license. 

A. FLANAGAN CO. 

CHICAGO 



m 2 7 1951 



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